Exam Report 2015 Flashcards
Candidates need to increase / improve their level of language awareness, particularly in the area of phonology.
Some candidates continue not to manage their time effectively. Tasks 4 and 5 in Paper One, and Tasks 2 and 3 in Paper Two carry a large number of marks and candidates are strongly advised to allow adequate time for these tasks. Candidates are free to attempt the tasks in the order of their choosing and those candidates who attempt the high scoring tasks first are therefore able to complete them fully and maximise the number of marks that they can gain for
In Paper Two, Task 1 continued to generate a high number of marks with more than half the candidates achieving at least 10 marks. Candidate performance in Task 2 was in line with previous sessions with candidates performing better on part (a) than on part (c) which continues to reflect the fact that candidates need more experience, and possibly training, in identifying the kind of principles that can inform the design of teaching material.
General advice
Candidates are strongly advised to do the following in order to maximise their performance in the examination:
- do the sample test in the Delta Modules Handbook and review their answers against the Guideline Answers and sample scripts with accompanying Examiner comments
- plan their time carefully to make sure that the time they allocate for each task is commensurate with the maximum number of marks that they can obtain from each task. Candidates who start with high scoring tasks, e.g. Paper One, Tasks 4 and 5 often do well if they attempt these tasks first.
- read question rubrics very carefully, underlining or highlighting key points they contain. It is essential that candidates provide the information asked for and do not provide unrequested information.
- only provide the number of features (1.3), strengths/weaknesses (1.4), features (1.5a), points (2.1), purposes, ways the exercises combine and assumptions (2.2) as stated in the rubrics for these tasks. Only the first required number produced by a candidate will be marked.
- in 2.3, only make 15 points which will allow candidates to produce more depth in their answers.
- plan the order in which they are going to answer the tasks and complete at least two full mock examinations in timed conditions to get used to the exam format and time requirements.
- do not waste time making rough notes – there is no time available for this. Instead candidates should do what is suggested in the above bullet point and do more tasks under timed conditions to get used to the requirements and formats of the different tasks
- follow the layout as suggested in each task.
- number the points they make to ensure that they respect the rubric
- use headings and sub-headings to signpost their answers as indicated in the Examiner’s comments for each task.
- start each task on a new page and clearly label their answers, showing what task or part of a task they are answering
- lay their answers out with plenty of space – candidates might find it easier to write their answers on every other line in the answer booklet. Many answers were very cramped and written in the margins, making it very difficult for Examiners to mark the tasks. Candidates need to consider their audience and by leaving extra space, they can include more points later in the exam if they realise that they have something more to add.
2 Delta Module One Markscheme
2.1 Distribution of marks
In Delta Module One, candidates accumulate marks across questions and it is the total number of marks obtained across the two papers that determine which grade a candidate is awarded. Candidates do not therefore gain a grade for each task.
Answers are marked against a detailed markscheme containing guideline answers, with candidates being awarded marks for each correct answer given. Relevant alternative wordings and examples are accepted. The number of marks available for each task is as follows:
Paper 1 Task 1 6 Task 2 12 Task 3 12 Task 4 20 Task 5 50 Total 100
Paper 2 Task 1 18 Task 2 42 Task 3 40 Total 100
Grand Total 200
Points made twice within an answer are not credited twice and no marks are deducted for wrong answers.
2.2 Markscheme for each task
Paper One
Task 1
One mark is awarded for each correct answer.
Task 2
A total of three marks are available per answer:
two marks for the basic definition
one mark for a correct example
Note: The example is only awarded if the basic definition is correct.
Task 3
Two marks are awarded for each language feature correctly identified up to a maximum of three features.
Two marks are awarded for each correct example / illustration. An example cannot be awarded marks if the feature is not identified.
Task 4
Three marks are awarded for each strength/weakness correctly identified up to a maximum of four strengths and weaknesses.
Two marks are awarded for each example from the text illustrating the strength or weakness identified. Note: no mark can be given for an example if its accompanying strength or weakness has not been correctly identified.
Task 5
One mark is awarded for each point correctly made up to a maximum of 50.
Note: In a, there is a maximum of five marks available and a mark is only awarded if a correct
Paper Two
Task 1
Two marks are awarded for each positive/negative feature identified.
One mark is awarded for each application to the learner for each positive/negative feature identified.
Task 2
In a, two marks are awarded for each purpose correctly identified to a maximum of 12 marks.
In b, two marks are awarded for each combination correctly identified to a maximum of 12 marks.
In c, one mark is awarded for each assumption listed, one mark is awarded for each example provided, and one mark is awarded for one reason given for an assumption to a maximum of 18 marks.
Task 3
Two marks are awarded for each correct point made up to a maximum of 30 marks.
Paper 1 Task 1
There has been no change to this task. For examples of Task One questions, detailed feedback on how to approach this task, and comments on sample answers, see previous Examination Reports on the Cambridge English Teaching Support website and the latest Delta Modules Handbook.
As in previous sessions, candidates are recommended to:
only write the required term, not giving an example or any extra information
only write one answer and not provide alternative answers
spell terms correctly (a very limited number of alternative spellings are accepted e.g. US and UK spellings)
provide an answer, even if they are not sure it is correct.
Paper 1 Task 2
Candidates are recommended to:
be succinct in their answers
attempt all the definitions
think carefully about the basic definition that they give and make use of linguistic/technical terms rather than the more simplified terms they might use with students
only provide one example for each definition
lay out their answers clearly using the sub-headings of Point, Example.
Paper 1 Task 3
The extract for this task is the speaking activity below for pre-intermediate (CEFR B1) level learners.
In order to complete this activity successfully, learners at this level would need to use the following key language features:
- verbs and nouns relating to childhood activities, e.g. go swimming, watch cartoons, play computer games
- back-channelling and responding to others’ contributions, e.g. Oh, really?, Yes, I did that too!
Identify a total of three further key language features learners at this level would need to use. Provide an example specific to this activity to support each choice.
Guideline Answer
• Turn-taking / holding the floor / interrupting / recognising end of turn / inviting contributions / clarifying and asking for clarification
Example What do you think? Can I ask a question? Sorry, I don’t understand. I mean when I was in Spain.
• Used to/would (for past habits/states) / narrative tenses OR past simple / past continuous / past perfect (NB: candidates must mention 2 of these verb forms)
Example I used to go to the beach every summer. I was staying with my grandmother when I first met Sonia.
• Question forms / yes/no / wh- questions
Example Did you enjoy it? How did you get there?
• Comparatives / Superlatives
Example It was the happiest time of my life. It was the best holiday I ever had. Things were easier when I was young.
• Language to express memories / adverbs of frequency
Example I remember long evenings by the pool. We always went to the seaside.
• Adjectives for feelings / situations / places
Example I was sad. It was lovely. The town was crowded.
• Time linkers / language to indicate time /prepositions/adverbs of time
Example One day we got up very early. Meanwhile, they were looking everywhere for us. We went in July.
The most common features identified were:
- turn-taking/ holding the floor / interrupting / recognizing end of a turn / inviting contributions / clarifying and asking for clarification
- used to/would (for past habits/states) / narrative tenses / mention of two of the following verb forms: past simple / past continuous / past perfect
- question forms.
The least common features identified were:
- comparatives / superlatives
- language to express memories / adverbs of frequency.
The inaccurate/imprecise features listed below were frequently identified:
- Candidates did not provide three distinctly different features, e.g. they cited used to/would and narrative tenses as two separate features but they are part of the same language feature, i.e. verb forms to talk about the past. This meant that the total number of marks that they could gain was 8. In a few extreme cases, candidates chose three separate past forms (e.g. past simple, used to, would) and so only gained 4 marks for the whole task
- Providing more than three features, sometimes six or more, which was not a productive use of time as only the first three are marked
- Back-channeling, fillers (these were part of one of the features mentioned in the rubric)
- Paralinguistic features, e.g. nodding (these are not language features)
- Language to express feelings (with no mention of adjectives) or descriptive adjectives without stating what they were describing, i.e. situations, feelings or places
- Using past tenses rather than stating the precise names of the verb forms
- Providing one past tense, e.g. simple past (which is too limited for pre-intermediate learners) rather than two or three
- Writing linkers/conjunctions/discourse markers without stating the function i.e. to indicate time
- Providing more than one example of each feature. The Examiners only marked the first example which meant that if the first example was incorrect (e.g. too complex or low for the level), it would be marked but no marks awarded even if the second example was appropriate
- Examples for language items which were not in full sentences and so were not illustrative of their use in relation to this particular text type.
Candidates are recommended to (18):
1 research features of spoken and written discourse in depth in terms of what different text types require
2 read the rubric carefully
3 only discuss what the rubric requires
4 avoid repeating features and examples which are mentioned in the rubric
5 outline no more than three features as only the first three features will be marked
6 make sure their answers cover three distinctly different areas from a range of relevant language features, i.e. grammatical forms (e.g. one verb form, one non verb form), functions, lexical areas, sub-skills and discourse features
7 avoid relying on pre-learnt answers from previous Guideline Answers
8 make sure their answers, including examples, are specific to the activity described in the task
9 make sure that they give a point and an example – marks for correct examples cannot be awarded without a clearly stated, accurate point
10 provide one example for each feature
11 only use the same example once
12 provide full language examples, not just sentence stems, e.g. I used to play outside with my friends rather than I used to …
13 remember the level of the learners (pre-intermediate in this case) and give examples which learners at this level could realistically produce)
14 avoid including any information on why the feature is included
15 list the points they wish to make, avoiding any introduction, summary or conclusion
16 use a bullet point or similar format when answering the task
17 number each feature that they include in their answer
18 lay their answer out using the headings of Feature and Example to ensure that they include both requirements.
- 1 The following sample answer gained full marks
- Learners may require ‘used to’ to describe habitual actions in the past.
For example “I used to go swimming every Sunday.”
- Learners would need to use adverbs of frequency.
For example “I often went to the cinema.”
- Learners would need phrases to encourage others to contribute. In order for the task to be successful even the more reticent students should contribute.
For example: “What about you, John?”
Examiner’s comments on sample answer
The three features that the candidate lists are accurate and are accompanied by an appropriate and full example. The features are also clearly distinct from each other, i.e. there is a verb form (used to); a non-verb grammatical feature (adverbs of frequency); and a speaking sub-skill (inviting contributions). The answer has the benefit of clear layout with the use of numbers for the features and the heading For example to distinguish the feature from its example. Each example is in a full sentence. The examiners also noted that it was positive that the candidate did not waste time by identifying more than three features or providing more than one example for each feature.
3.2 The following sample answer gained two thirds of the marks available for this task
- Narrative tenses to describe past events / states
E.G. We lived in Saudi Arabia. I hadn’t eaten camel before - Discourse markers to manage the conversation, in groups.
E.G. Anyway / What about you? / For me, - Comparative and superlative adjectives to describe important events and their accompanying structures
EG: It was the most exciting day of my life
My sister was better at school than me.
Examiner’s comments on sample answer
Again, it is positive that this candidate has respected the rubric and only listed three features. Two of these were credited: narrative tenses to describe past events/states and the use of comparative and superlative adjectives to describe important events. The other feature of discourse markers to manage conversation could not be credited as it was too vague – the candidate needed to specify how they were used to manage the conversation, e.g. through recognising the end of a turn etc. This lack of specificity also meant that the first example could not be awarded any marks, although it would not have been possible to do so, even if the feature had been credited because it consisted of a single word, Anyway, and was not embedded in a sentence, e.g. Anyway, what do you think? The first examples for the other two features were credited as being appropriate to the feature and the level of the learners, but future candidates should note that it is not a productive use of time to provide more than one example for each feature as only the first feature provided will be marked.
Paper 1 Task 4
Focusing on the areas listed below, identify a total of four key strengths and weaknesses of the text. Provide an example from the text of each choice. Include at least one strength and one weakness in your answer.
- Organisation
- Accuracy of grammar
- Range of lexis
- Accuracy of lexis
6.1 Guideline Answer
Key strengths
• Organisation
Logical/clear organisation
Example for logical organisation: title, statement of aims, introduction of the situation, traditional food, factors for changes, conclusion (NB: a minimum of two points must be mentioned)
OR
Use of title / (sub-)headings / statement of aims / clear layout / paragraphs (NB: a minimum of two points must be mentioned)
Example for the organisation features: title Changes in eating habits in Italy (line 1), sub-headings TRADITIONAL FOOD IN ITALY (line 5), FACTORS THAT HAVE INFLUENCED ITALIAN HABITS TOWARDS FOOD (line 12), statement of aims The aims of this report are to … (line 2), paragraphs paragraph 1 (lines 1-4) aims, paragraph 2 (lines 6-7) introduction of the situation; paragraph 3 (lines 8-11) traditional food; paragraph 4 (lines 13-19) factors for changes. (NB: not paragraph 5 lines 20-22)
• Accuracy of grammar
Accurate use of complex clauses / use of linkers/discourse markers (and following grammatical pattern)
Example for complex clauses Although it is known … (lines 6-7), In order to have a good
result … (lines 10-11), Even if the 80% of people still prefer … (lines 13-14), Although Italian habits… (lines 21-22)
Example for linkers Although (line 6, 21), In order to (line 10), Even if (line 13), Another factor is (line 16), Moreover (line 18)
• Accuracy of grammar
Accurate use of passives
Example it is known (line 6), to be cooked (line 8), Preservatives and colourants are not used (line 9), are fully taken (line 9), it has also been revieled (line 20)
•Accuracy of grammar
Good control of present simple with the present perfect simple (NB: candidates need to mention both verb forms)
Example Even if the 80%of people still prefer their tradition food, it has emerged (lines13-14), It
has been also revieled that fast food has … this king of food is available (lines 20-21),Although Italian habits have changed towards the food they eat(lines 21-22)
•Range of lexis
Collocations / fixed expressions / lexical chunks / set phrases / food / topic related lexis
Example preservatives(line 9), colourants (line 9),ingredients(line 10),a considerable amount(line 8),a totally different(line 14),get the message that ‘food is fun’ across to the people (line 15),allude to (line 16),due to (their job responsibilities)(line 17),traditional recipes(line 18),I don’t totally agree with (line 22)
Key weaknesses
•Organisation
Wrongly paragraphed conclusion
Example: conclusion should begin at line 21-22
• Accuracy of grammar
Incorrectword order
Example: are remarkably changing (line 7),It has been also reviled(line 20),grandparents do not teach any more their traditional recipes (line 18)
• Accuracy of lexis
Misuse of collocations/fixed expressions/lexical chunks/set phrases
Example: take pround of (line 6), to obtain for a totally different option (line 14), thrown by big companies(line 15), job responsibilities(line 17), the family lost its worth (lines 18-19)
• Accuracy of lexis
Inaccurate spelling
Example: pround (line 6), remarcably(line 7), Tipical(line 8), ammount(line 8), wheras(line 9), byological (line 9), test (line 11), advertaisments (line 14), responsabilities (line 17), revieled (line 20), costumers (line 20)
The choice of text was good and discriminated well between stronger candidates who could analyse strengths and weaknesses of a written student-generated text and those who could not. The average mark achieved was 13 which was in line with previous sessions and showed a marked improvement on June 2014 when candidates struggled to analyse the phonological features of a spoken text. Very few candidates did not attempt this task or failed to complete it which suggests that they understood the importance of allocating an appropriate amount of time to complete the task. A large number of them answered the task first or second in the examination which was a good strategy as it allowed them to maximise the number of marks they were able to gain, as long as their language awareness was accurate. Some candidates outlined more than four strengths and weaknesses which was not a productive use of time as only the first four can be considered. A few evaluated the text in terms of criteria which were not listed in the rubric, particularly in terms of task achievement. Another key problem was that some candidates included more than one specific point of grammar under the heading of Accuracy of grammar. They appeared to think that this meant that they were outlining one strength or weakness but in fact each different grammatical area was counted as one feature. For example, if the candidate included use of the passive, linkers and articles as strengths under Accuracy of Grammar, this was marked as three features (two correct, one incorrect) which meant that the candidate’s next point (a weakness) would be the fourth one and the Examiner would then ignore any other features cited in the answer. Another problem in this session was exemplification because the majority of candidates included more than one example of each strength or weakness cited. This meant that if the first example was incorrect but the second one was correct, no marks could be allocated. Layout of answers was problematic at times, particularly where the candidate had chosen to organise their answer in two columns or two lists which were headed strengths and weaknesses. This meant that the Examiners had to mark one strength, then one weakness and so on to ensure that the candidate had the potential to gain marks for at least one strength and one weakness in their answer which is now a requirement of this task.
The inaccurate/imprecise points listed below were frequently identified:
the learner’s use of individual lexical items was a strength or a weakness (candidates had to mention that it was the learners’ use of collocations or topic related lexis (not individual items) which was a strength or weakness
the learner was good at using the present simple or the present perfect simple (it was the fact that the learner could use both verb forms together which was the strength of the text)
the learner’s use of articles was accurate (this was a minor strength)
some candidates lost marks for exemplification because the example was inaccurate or they had not included one
some candidates mentioned the over-arching criteria (e.g. accuracy of grammar without then specifying the precise feature (e.g. incorrect word order)
some candidates continued to explain the reason for choosing the strengths and reasons which is not required and is not a productive use of time
a large number of candidates included more than four strengths/weaknesses in their answer
some candidates only listed strengths or weaknesses
a few candidates included an example without explicitly stating what the strength or weakness was, which meant that no marks could be awarded.
Candidates are recommended to:
- read the rubric carefully and only discuss the criteria included in it
- only discuss a total of four key strengths and weaknesses (Examiners will only mark the first four mentioned)
- give a minimum of one strength or weakness
- avoid going through each criterion in the rubric listing strengths and weaknesses for each one as only the first four points mentioned will be marked
- only give one example for each strength and each weakness
- be careful with their choice of example so that they are sure that it is accurate
- bear in mind the learner’s level when commenting on the text’s strengths and weaknesses, e.g. C1 learners would be expected to have good control of the present simple
- use a bullet point layout for the strengths and weaknesses
- organise their answer by outlining a strength first and then a weakness to ensure that they comply with the rubric by including one of each in their answer. Then they can cover two more points which may both be strengths, weaknesses or one of each
• clearly signpost to the Examiner if the point that they are making is a strength of a weakness, e.g. Strength – criterion from rubric – point – example,
Strength – Accuracy of Grammar – good use of the passive – Example – it is known (line 6).
6.3.1 The following sample answer gained full marks for this task
Strengths
Organisation
Clear aims at the beginning “The aims of this report” that reflect the structures of the report, and helped by subheadings “Traditional food in Italy” followed by “Factors that have influenced…habits…”
Grammar
Good use of passive to achieve a formal style + accurate.
“it is known that” “time to be cooked.”
Range of lexis
Good use of collocation + specific vocabulary for the topic
“traditional recipes” “preservatives and colourants”
Weaknesses
Accuracy of spelling of lexis, particularly confusion with vowels / y+i
“byological” “Tipical” “revield”
Examiner’s comments on sample answer
The answer is focused on the criteria outlined in the rubric. It clearly cites three key strengths and one key weakness of the text (i.e. the required four strengths/weaknesses) and gives a clear example for each one identified. As strengths, the candidate identifies the fact that the organisation is appropriate for a report; there is good use of the passive; and there is a good range of collocations and topic related lexis used. Regarding a weakness of the text, he cites inaccurate spelling. In terms of exemplification, he provides two examples for each feature where only one is required. This is not problematic for this candidate because all of the first examples that he provides are accurate. However, it is not a productive use of time. The answer has the benefits of being succinct in its expression, clearly organised with an appropriate use of underlining to highlight the criteria. It would be helpful for the Examiner if the candidate numbered the points.
7 Paper 1 Task 5
a The text is the short biography of a writer included for information in one of his books. Identify five features of the text that are characteristic of its genre. Give one example of each feature you identify.
Do not include more than one feature of layout.
b Comment on the use of articles in the following extracts from the text.
• his father worked for the Civil Service (lines 1-2)
• an experience that inspired his first novel (line 5)
• contributed reviews (line 8)
• which brought him world-wide fame. (lines 22-23)
c i Comment on the form and meaning/use of the verbs in bold in the extracts below. Do not comment on the lexical meaning of the verbs.
• ERIC ARTHUR BLAIR (George Orwell) was born in 1903 in India (line 1)
• he also wrote for the Observer (lines 19-20)
• A few days before, Desmond MacCarthy had sent him a message of greeting (lines 24-25)
• ‘You have made an indelible mark on English literature’ (line 26)
ii Comment on the possible features of connected speech in the following extract. Do not comment on word or sentence stress.
• you are among the few memorable writers of your generation. (lines 26-27)
d Look at the following sentences taken from the text. Comment on the form and use of the words in bold as they are used in the text.
- Orwell entered Eton, where he contributed regularly to the various college magazines. (lines 3-4)
- He was admitted to a sanatorium in 1938 and from then on was never fully fit. (lines 14-15)
- He spent six months in Morocco and there wrote Coming Up for Air. (line 16)
- Desmond MacCarthy had sent him a message of greeting in which he wrote (line 25)
7.1 Guideline Answer
a Features of genre
Layout (only award one mark)
- Different font/italics for book titles, e.g. Animal Farm
- Capitalisation/upper case of author’s name initially, e.g. ERIC ARTHUR BLAIR
- Brackets for year of publication / author’s writing name, e.g. (George Orwell), (1937)
Content
• Names / dates of publications e.g. Burmese Days, 1934
• Factual details of life / names of places / organisations e.g. was born in India, died in London in January 1950
Organisation
• Chronological account e.g. his birth → work → death (NB: candidates need to mention 2 events)
• General comment/tribute/testimonial/quote ‘You have made an indelible mark on English literature … (lines 26-27)
Style
• Formal/semi-formal/neutral lexis / style e.g. he served in (line 4), contributed regularly (line 3), was admitted to (line 15)
Grammar / lexis
• Complex sentences / relative clauses e.g. Orwell entered Eton, where he … (lines 3-4), He lived in Paris for two years before … (lines 6-9), As literary editor… (lines 18-21)
• Passive e.g. in 1936 he was commissioned…
• Long noun phrases e.g. areas of mass unemployment (line 11), literary editor of the Tribune (line 18)
• Narrative tenses / past simple / past perfect e.g. The family moved to England (line 2), had sent him a message (line 25)
• Life story lexis e.g. was born (line 1), lived (line 6), worked (line 7), died (line 24)
• Lexis of writing e.g. contribute (line 19), novel (line 5), reviews (line 8), articles (line 9), periodicals (line 9), published (line 10), literary editor (line 18), regular page (line 19)
• Time / place adverbials/prepositions/linkers e.g. in 1903 (line 1), from 1941 to 1943 (line 18), in India (line 1), A few days before (line 24)
• Strong/positive/evaluative adjectives e.g. powerful (line 12), unique (line 21), world-wide (line 23)
b Use of articles in the following extracts from the text
his father worked for the Civil Service (lines 1-2)
• Definite article
• (Civil Service is) a singular noun
• (Civil Service is) a countable noun
• Only one Civil Service (in India) / assumes reader knows there’s only one / shared knowledge
• Definite article generally used with organisations
an experience that inspired his first novel (line 5)
• Indefinite article
• (Experience is) a singular noun
• (Experience is) a countable noun
• One experience referred to / Orwell had more than one experience
• Use of indefinite article an because of following initial vowel
…contributed reviews… (line 8)
• Zero article
• (Reviews is) a plural noun
• (Reviews is) a countable noun
• (Reviews are) referred to for the first time here
• (Reviews are) not post-modified/defined / are referred to in general / non-specific
which brought him world-wide fame. (lines 22-23)
• Zero article
• (Fame is) an uncountable noun
• (Fame is) not post-modified/defined / is referred to in general / non-specific
C i Form and meaning/use of the verbs in bold. Do not comment on the lexical meaning of the verbs
ERIC ARTHUR BLAIR (George Orwell) was born in 1903 in India (line 1) Form • Past (simple) (of be) • Auxiliary (was) • Passive • 3rd person singular (of be) • Irregular verb (bear) • Past participle (of bear)
Meaning/use
• Used as a lexical chunk/collocation/fixed phrase/expression
• Is a completed action
• Passive keeps person who was born as the subject/focus/theme / the agent is obvious/not important
• An event / activity in life story/biography
he also wrote for the Observer (lines19-20)
Form
• Past simple (of write)
• Irregular verb (write)
Meaning/use
• An event / activity in life story/biography
• Describes a past activity that is finished/completed
• Activity was repeated over a period of time
A few days before, Desmond MacCarthy had sent him a message of greeting (lines 24-25)
Form • Past perfect simple • Had is the (simple) past (of have) • Auxiliary (had) • Irregular verb (send) • Past participle of (send)
Meaning/use
• Shows that the sending took place before Orwell died / an action completed before another.
• The events are described out of sequence. Had sent precedes the verb in the previous sentence.
• This enables the writer to end with a summing up of Orwell’s contribution/avoids death being the
final point mentioned.
You have made an indelible mark on English literature’ (line 26)
Form • 2nd person singular • Present perfect simple • Auxiliary (have) • Irregular verb (make) • Past participle (of make)
Meaning/use
• Shows the present importance of Orwell’s work at the time that MacCarthy was writing i.e. when Orwell was still alive / shows the relationship between past and present / a significant achievement in the life of a living person
• There is no specific time reference
C ii Possible features of connected speech. Do not comment on word or sentence stress.
you are among the few memorable writers of your generation (lines 26-27)
- Weak forms/schwa you /ʊ/, are /ə/, of /əv/, your /jə/, the /ðə/
- Intrusive /w/ you‿are →/jʊwə/, /ju:wə/, /jʊwɑː/, /ju:wɑː/
- Linking ‘r’ / intrusive /r/ are‿among → /ərəmʌŋ/ /ɑːrəmʌŋ/
- Consonant + vowel linking / linking / liaison / catenation writers‿of →/raɪtəzəv/
- Possible contraction you are → you’re
D Form and use of the words in bold as they are used in the text
Orwell entered Eton, where he contributed regularly to the various college magazines. (lines 3-4)
Form
• Relative pronoun
• (Introduces) non-defining relative clause
• Needs a comma (before it as it is non-defining)
Use • Referring to a place (Eton) • Avoids repetition of Eton • Anaphoric reference to Eton • Gives extra/non-essential information (about Eton)
He was admitted to a sanatorium in 1938 and from then on was never fully fit. (lines 14-15)
Form • Adverbial (phrase) • Of time • (Semi-)fixed phrase / chunk / prefabricated phrase / lexical phrase / collocation • From is a preposition • Of time • Then is an adverb • Of time • On is an adverb
Use
• Then avoids repetition of / substitution for 1938 / the time he was admitted (to a sanatorium)
• Then is anaphoric reference to 1938 / the time he was admitted (to a sanatorium)
• Refers to time/period/continuance after 1938 / the time he was admitted (to a sanatorium)
R He spent six months in Morocco and there wrote Coming Up for Air. (line 16) Form • Adverb • Of place
Use
• Avoids repetition of in Morocco / substitution for in Morocco
• Anaphoric reference to Morocco
• The position/word order of there at the beginning of the second clause makes it closer to Morocco
• It is more formal to have there at the beginning of the clause rather than at the end
Desmond MacCarthy had sent him a message of greeting in which he wrote….. (line 25)
Form
• Relative pronoun (which)
• In is a preposition / in which is a prepositional phrase
• Of place
• (Introduces) defining relative clause
• No comma needed (because it’s defining)
Meaning/use
• Which is an anaphoric reference to message
• Which is used for things
• Which avoids repetition of message
• Formal style
• In locates the quote in the message / in which could be replaced by where
• Introduces essential information about the message
The following terms had to be spelt correctly for marks to be awarded for points made:
Adverbial, anaphoric, adjective, auxiliary, consonant, catenation, contraction, comma, countable/uncountable, definite/indefinite, defining/non-defining, ellipsis, infinitive, irregular, intrusive/intrusion, liaison, preposition, participle, particle, pronoun, possessive, relative, schwa, substitution
7.2 Candidate performance
The task was an appropriate length and the majority of candidates were able to attempt all four sections, often gaining a high number of marks. They often attempted this task first which was a good strategy as it now carries 50% of the marks for the whole paper. The fact that the other tasks in this paper are now quicker to answer also means that candidates have enough time to provide detailed answers and so can maximise the opportunity to gain as many marks as possible. These two factors are reflected in the average score achieved for this task which was 35 marks. As in previous sessions, the task continues to discriminate well between candidates whose language knowledge is good and those who are not close to Delta standard. Generally, candidates performed well on parts b and c (analysing the use of articles and the form and meaning/use of different verb forms) but generally struggled to identify features of connected speech in the second part of part (c) and analyse the form and use of the words in bold in part (d).
a
features of the text characteristic of a short biography of a writer included for information in
one of his books
Candidates generally performed well on this part of the task and did not waste time writing too much or providing more than the five features required. Exemplification continued to be the main reason why they did not maximise their marks: either they stated a feature but did not provide a full or clear example, e.g. when referring to the use of relative clauses, they provided a line number rather than a specific example from the text or they provided more than one example, the first of which was incorrect and so could not be awarded any marks as only the first example provided will be considered by the Examiner.
The most common features identified were:
different font size for book titles / use of capitalisation chronological account passive narrative tenses / simple past factual details of his life.
The least common features identified were:
long noun phrases
life story lexis
time/place adverbials/prepositions/linkers
strong/positive/evaluative adjectives.
The inaccurate/imprecise features listed below were frequently identified:
mention of two features of layout (only one could be credited as stated in the rubric)
use of two paragraphs (one long / one short) (this is only a feature of this particular text and not of such texts in general)
use of line numbers rather than a precise example from the text (so it was not clear that the candidate could identify the feature).
Candidates are recommended to:
• only state five features as only the first five provided will be marked by the Examiner
• avoid spending time saying why the features have been included as no marks are allocated for
this beyond what is stated in the Guideline Answer
• only give one example for each feature and be discriminating in their choice of a good example
as only the first example given will be credited
• provide an example from the text rather than a line number as the latter is not a clear example
and cannot be marked
• only state one feature of layout as only one will be credited.
b use of articles
Most candidates performed well on this part of the task and were able to identify points relating to the four items. All points were mentioned, apart from the fact that definite articles are generally used with organisations (the Civil Service) and reviews are referred to for the first time.
The inaccurate/imprecise points listed below were frequently identified:
definite/indefinite were misspelt as definate/indefinate
candidates referred to the zero article as no article and so gained no marks for this point
reviews was described as an uncountable plural with no mention of it being a noun
an experience was mis-described as anaphoric reference
some candidates became side-tracked into irrelevant discussions of relative clauses.
c form and use of verb forms: was born; wrote; had sent; have made
The focus on verb forms was accessible to all the candidates and they therefore often accrued a good number of points in this section. Those candidates who had been trained to provide a high level of detail in terms of form performed well. However, the phonological section continued to challenge a large number of the cohort. Stronger candidates used correct terminology,
e.g. intrusive /w/ and gave a clear example. All the points in the Guideline Answers were made, although the two listed below were rarely stated.
The least common points identified were:
in the sentence with had sent, the events were described out of sequence
the fact that had sent preceded the verb in the previous sentence enabled the writer to end with a summing up of Orwell’s contribution / avoided death being the final point mentioned.
The inaccurate/imprecise points listed below were frequently identified:
a key issue with a lot of candidates was that it was not always clear which words they were referring to, e.g. had sent was the past simple but it was had which was the past simple and sent was the past participle. Stronger candidates made it very clear which part of the verb form they were referring to
mention of whether the verb was transitive or intransitive which was not relevant
mention of cataphoric and anaphoric reference (e.g. him is anaphoric reference to George Orwell)
third person singular was described as third person with no mention of singular
third person singular was mentioned for wrote and had sent but this was not relevant as there is
no auxiliary verb for the simple past and the auxiliary in the past perfect does not change
imprecision in naming verb forms, e.g. present perfect rather than present perfect simple
some candidates ignored the instruction in the rubric do not comment on the lexical meaning of the verbs and provided the meaning for the verbs, e.g. wrote = contributed article to the Observer. Instead, they need to provide the use of the verb form, e.g. a finished past activity / an activity repeated over a period of time
some candidates did not know that the infinitive of born was bear and described it as being to birth, to bare and to born
misspelling of auxiliary, participle, schwa, liaison
misuse of ellipsis instead of elision
candidates lacked sufficient terminology to describe phonological features
inaccurately identified features, e.g. they cited the intrusive sound between you are as linking /j/ rather than linking /w/
points could not be awarded for the phonology because there was no use of phonemic script,
particularly for the schwa; the phonemic script was not written accurately or between slashes; the linking was not indicated clearly as in the GLAs
unnecessary discussion of sounds/features in individual words (the schwa in memorable) which was not required in the rubric as candidates were requested to identify features of connected speech, e.g. elision between words not within individual words, repetition of features, e.g. repeating the schwa five times with different examples. Each phonological feature could only be awarded one mark.
d form and use of the words in bold as used in the text: where; from then on; there; in which
This part of Task 4 proved to be the most challenging as candidates struggled to correctly identify the form and use of the four items. Most candidates were able to identify relative pronouns, prepositions and in a few cases, adverbs. They also identified features of the relative clauses and were better at commenting on the single word items where and there than the phrases from then on and in which. With these phrases, they lacked precision in describing referencing. Candidates should remember that referencing is a textual issue and state which word in a phrase is referencing exactly which word/phrase in the text, e.g. ‘then’ not ‘from then on’ is anaphoric referencing to 1938. All the points about the form and use of where were made and about the form of in which.
The least common points identified were:
from then on is an adverbial phrase of time
from is a preposition of time
then is an adverb of time
on is an adverb
there is an adverb
the position/word order of there at the beginning of the second clause makes it closer to Morocco
it is more formal to have there at the beginning of the clause than at the end
in locates the quote in the message / in which could be replaced by where
in which introduces essential information about the message.
The inaccurate/imprecise points listed below were frequently identified:
a key problem was imprecision in naming the part of speech of the particle, i.e. confusion as to whether it was an adverb or preposition
use of both terms, i.e. adverb and preposition, for the same particle which automatically meant that no mark was awarded
inability to correctly identify which words in the phrases were substituting, avoiding repetition or referring anaphorically to which word/words in the previous sentence – see the next 5 points
then avoids repetition of/substitution for 1938 (not from then on)
then is anaphoric reference to 1938 (not from then on)
there avoids repetition of in Morocco / is substitution for in Morocco (not just Morocco)
which is anaphoric reference to message (not in which)
which avoids repetition of message (not in which)
the term anaphoric was omitted / candidates only wrote reference to … (this was not sufficient)
the term anaphoric reference was used but what was being referred to was not stated so a point
could not be awarded, e.g. ‘which’ is anaphoric reference rather than ‘which’ is anaphoric reference to ‘message’
where was identified as introducing a defining rather than non-defining relative clause / in which was identified as introducing a non-defining rather than a defining relative clause
where was misidentified as a wh word, determiner, pronoun (without relative)
analysis of where and in which moved into a discussion of defining versus non-defining relative clauses.
In Parts (b) – (d), candidates are recommended to:
- make as many points as possible, as indicated in the Guideline Answer
- read the rubric carefully to see exactly what they are required to discuss
• pay attention to the words given in bold and only comment on them in the way required, not on
accompanying or surrounding words
- make sure they consistently provide the full information required, including giving examples when asked for
- make use of precise linguistic / technical terms rather than the more simplified terms they might use with students, e.g. past participle NOT third form of the verb
- spell these terms correctly: marks will not be awarded if terms are incorrectly spelt – see Guideline Answers for specific examples
- use the phonemic script / phonological symbols where appropriate: candidates will not be awarded marks if this is not used where required or used accurately
- only comment on pronunciation/phonology in sections where it is specifically mentioned in the rubric
• research the use of language items as well as the form
- lay out their answers in list form, and make it clear what part of the answer they are writing about
- use bullet points
• make it easy for the Examiners to locate their answers by using plenty of space/paper to write
out their answers, writing on every other line, and ensuring that they do not write in the
margins
- make as many points as possible in Task 5 as it carries half the marks available in Paper One
- allocate enough time for this task and attempt all parts of the task.
7.3.1 The following sample answer gained the maximum number of marks available for this task
5 a)
- organisation – chronologically ordered starting with early life ‘(Orwell) was born in 1903” progressing onto key works and life events “Orwell went to Spain” and finishing with the writer’s death “Orwell died in London”
- Factual information included about places + dates and written works that are important “there wrote “Coming up for Air” “admitted to a sanatorium in 1938”
- Time linkers to sequence life events + show duration “A few days before” “From 1922 to 1927”
- Lexis related to writing and books “Literary editor” “published”
- Past simple used to show finished events in the past at a specific time. “The family moved to
England.”
5 b) the Civil Service • definite article ‘the’ • precedes proper noun ‘Civil Service’ • only 1 Civil Service – known reference, shared knowledge
an experience
• indefinite article ‘an’
• precedes vowel sound so a + n
• referring to one experience of many
• anaphoric reference experience = serving with the police in India
• precedes countable singular noun ‘experience’
contributed reviews
• zero article
• precedes countable plural noun ‘reviews’
• unspecified reviews – general reference
worldwide fame
• zero article
• precedes uncountable abstract noun fame
• part of expression ‘worldwide fame’
Examiner’s comments on sample answer
Part a
The candidate gains full marks in this section by stating 5 features of the genre of this particular text with an accurate example for each one: it is chronologically ordered; contains factual details about places; includes names of publications; uses time linkers; and lexis of writing. The second and third features are contained under the same bullet point which meant that the final feature (the use of the past simple) was ignored by the Examiner. This was not problematic for this candidate as only five marks can be gained in this section but she would have been wise to number the features so that she could clearly see how many she had included. It was also not necessary for her to include two examples for the time linkers and lexis of writing as only the first example is considered. Again, this was not problematic for this candidate as her first examples were both accurate but if the first one had been inaccurate, she would not have gained a mark for it, even if the second one was accurate.
Part b
The candidate is detailed and accurate in this part of her answer and she makes 13 points out of a possible 18. In terms of the Civil Service, she does not define the kind of noun it is, i.e. singular and countable or state that the definite article is generally used with organisations – for this point she recognises that the Civil Service is a proper noun but not that it is an organisation. Her analysis of an experience is more robust as she makes all the points listed in the Guideline Answers. The same applies both for reviews where the only point that she does not make is that this is the first time that reviews are referred to, and for fame where she does not state that it is referred to in general. There are two points in the answer which are not accurate: that an experience is anaphoric reference to serving with the police in India; and that fame is part of the (fixed) expression worldwide fame. The layout of her answer is neat, her spelling of terminology is accurate and it is very helpful to the Examiner that she has used underlining to signal where she starts to analyse each item and bullet points.