EXAM questions EOG 100-300 Flashcards

1
Q

EOG 300.2.2.1 pg. 7 Engine company operations: Deploy hose lines for fire control is included under what tactical priority?

A. Life Safety

B. Incident stabilization

C. Property Conservation

D. Fire Attack

A

B. Incident stabilization.

Deploying hose line to protect avenues of egress falls under Life safety.

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2
Q

EOG 100.3.9 pg. 13

When division boundaries are established on the exterior of a structure or in nonstructural incidents (such as wild land fire) _______ shall be used.

A. Numerical designation

B. Letter designation

C. Descriptive designation

D. Function designation

A

B. letter designation.

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3
Q

EOG 11.3.12 pg. 15

A command post (CP) will be established on every incident. Which one of the following is correct about the command post?

A. Careful consideration should be given to the CP placement because after being established, the CP location should not be moved.

B. CP will be designated by the use of a green flashing light.

C. The command post should be in a location that will be safe and not have to move if the fire changes direction.

D. Command shall use clear text for all communications.

A

A. Careful consideration should be given to the CP placement because after being established, the CP location should not be moved.

C. is correct for wildland CP from EOG 300.

Note:CP will be designated by the use of a green flahsing light with a district Chief.

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4
Q

EOG 100.3.17 pg. 25

A member on scene during a hazmat incident for 15-30 minutes should consume how much hydrations?

A. 2-4 oz.

B. 6 oz.

C. 10 oz

D. 6-10 oz.

A

A. 2-4 oz.

minimum of 2-4 oz. of water for every:

  • 20 minutes during any type of fire fighting
  • 20 minutes during major medical or mass casualty incidents
  • 15-30 minutes during hazmat/special ops.
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5
Q

EOG. 100.3.18 pg. 29

Public information is a part of the emergency management process. The professional delivery of information to the media personnel at the scene is the responsiblity of whom:

A. Public Information Officer (PIO)

B. Incident Commander

C. District Chief

D. Company Officer

A

B. Incident commander.

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6
Q

EOG 300.2. Fire Response pg. 5

Apparatus should be positioned with the consideration of present fire conditions and an aggresive evaluation of fire spread potential. Apparatus placement at a fire scene is a critical step and dependant on many factors. What factor is correct for placement considerations?

A. Hydrant location and availability

B. Weather conditions

C. Exposure potential

D. Rescue profile

A

C.. Exposure potential.

Note: full list:

  • function of the apparatus
  • tactical positions based on visual fire conditions
  • wind conditions
  • possible rescue situations
  • watter supply requirements / availability
  • exposure potiential
  • terrain.
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7
Q

EOG 300.2.3.1.2.1 Life safety Ric. pg. 13

When faced with large or complex occupancies, the IC must make specific primary search assignments to ensure eht entire area is searched. The IC must assign other companies to cove the interior positions vacated by companies. Building such as hospitals, nursing homes and many high rises off the option to protect in place. When multiple groups are sheltered in place and the life safety benchmark is achieved, who will remain with the occupants.

A. one company to perform evacuation

B. two companies for each endangered floor.

C. One firefighter for each group

D. at least one company.

A

D. at least one company.

other answers are from high rise section

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8
Q

EOG 100.3.8 pg. 13

When multiple resources are assigned to perform tactical funtions in a specified geographic area, a division shall be established, to provide coordination and control of tactical operations. It is the division supervisors responsiblity to:

A. enter together, work together, exit together

B. assume the command, coordination and accountibility roles for their task group

C. provide coordination and control of tactical operations.

D. assign a RIC for their division.

A

D. assign a RIC for their division.

They are expected to assume the comand, coordination and accountibilty roles

the division is established to provide coordination and control of tactical operations.

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9
Q

EOG 300 pg. 115 Business Fire alarms.

A TFD company responds to a business fire alarm and perform a 360 survey with no indicators adn the representative has not arrived. TFD will return to service after. ______

A. 1 hour

B. 30 minutes

C. 20 minutes

D. after completing the 360 survey.

A

C. 20 minutes.

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10
Q

EOG. 100 pg. 12

_______ are the specific opeations that must be accomplished to achieve strategic goals.

A. Benchmark fire ground operations

B. Fire ground task

C. Assignments

D. Tactical objectives

A

Tactical objectives.

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11
Q

EOG 100 pg. 12

__________ are broad in nature and are achieved by the completion of tactical objectives.

A.strategic goals

B. strategies

C. Fire ground benchmarks

D. Strategic mode

A

Stategic goals.

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12
Q

EOG 100 pg. 11

________ starts with the arrival of the first unit and is constantly monitored and evaluated throughou the incident.

A. Size-up

B. Risk Mangagement plan (RMP)

C. Strategy

D. Strategic mode

A

C. Strategy

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13
Q

EOG. 300.2.3.5.6 pg. 45

The IC or operations may deem elevator use appropriate during a working fire. Before using a elevator the FF should attempt to:

A. inspect the fire alarm panel

B. Make sure elevator is equipped with ANSI

C. accurately determine the fire floor.

D. Check for smoke.

A

D. check for smoke.

The evevator must be check to insure that heat/fire have not damage the hoist mechanism. If smoke or fire is visible do not use the elevator.

next: accurately determine the fire floor, can be done by inspecting the fire panel.

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14
Q

EOG 100.3.17 pg. 27

Hazmat carry which of the follwing that Air and lights do not?

A. fan

B. tent

C. canopies

D. misters

A

B. tent.

all others are carried by both units for rehab purposes.

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15
Q

EOG 300 pg. 46

Lobby control is to record the destination, car and crew designation of each group that enters an elevator. No more than 6 fire fighters are to use the elevator at one time.

Before entering elevators firefighters need to:

A. check for smoke

B. inspect the alarm panel for multiple trips

C. Accurately dertermine the fire floor.

D. note the direction of the stairway and the distance to it.

A

D. note the direction of the stairway and the distance to it.

before using: check for smoke, then determine fire floor, and check alarm panel.

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16
Q

EOG 300.2.3.1.4.2 pg. 25

Class A foams work in several ways, but primarily they reduce the surface tension of water. TFD apparatus with electric foam injection systems default to _____ foam concentrate when set to A.

A. .01%

B. 0.3 %

C. 0.5 %

D. 1%

A

B. .3 %.

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17
Q

EOG 300 pg. 12

When multiple victims are threatened by fire the priority order of action is: What is the 3rd level of priority?

A. Largest number (group)

B. Those in exposed area

C. Most severly threatened

D. remainder in the fire area.

A

D. remainder in the fire area.

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18
Q

EOG 200.351 pg 9

The only cartridge/filter currently purchased by the TFD is a high-effiency, organic vapor and acid gas filter. The cartridge filter can be used in all situations except?

A. oxygen level above 19.5 %

B. no know or suspected chemical hazards

C. Atmosphere is not IDLH

D. exposure time is more than 20 minutes.

A

D. exposure time is more than 20 minutes.

Note: this cartridge may be used to filter nuisance dust and airborne fire debris.

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19
Q

EOG 300.2.4.2.1.1.

Between the hours of _____ and ____ the fire danger is normally the greatest when considering the ease of ignition an dspeed of flame fronts.

A. 10:00-18:00

B. 12:00-16:00

C. 10:00-16:00

D. 12:00- 18:00

A

B. 12:00-16:00

at this time a slight decrease in relative humidity will cause a significant increase in fire intensity.

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20
Q

EOG 300.2.3.4.2.2 pg. 38

What is the mimimum number of firefighters required for fire attack/investigation group on a high-rise fire?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 8

A

B. 5

two companies from the initial response (minimum of fire fire fighters) shall proceed to the area where the emergency exists.

21
Q

EOG 300 pg 127

The landing zone should be clear of people, vehicles, and obstructions such as tree, poles and wires. the landing zone required size is:

A. 70 x 70 feet

B. 75 x 75 feet

C. 100 x 100 feet

D. 120 x 120 feet.

A

A. 70 x 70

with not more than a 2% slope

approach angle of 45 degrees.

22
Q

EOG. 300 10.1.2.1 pg. 128

Requests for helicopters are to be made through the FAO by the IC. When marking a landing zone at night, vehicles need to be parked so:

A. headlights form a perimeter around the LZ

B. Headlights cross, vehicles facing with the wind

C. headlights cross, vehicles facing into the wind

D. Red lights should be used not to affect the pilots vision, keep all ground vehicles at least 70 ‘ away from the aircraft.

A

C. headlights cross vehicles facing into the wind.

bystanders remain at least 200’ away.

23
Q

EOG 300 pg. 25

TFD engines cith onboard foam carry 40 gallons of each Class A and Class B foam concentrate. (telesquirts carry 20 gallons of each) The Class B foam concentrate used by the TFD is mixed at a ______ concentration for any liquid fuel. (hydrocarbon or polar solvent)

A. 0.1 %

B. 1 %

C. 0.3 %

D. 3 %

A

D. 3 %.

this type of concentrate is called universal foam.

24
Q

EOG 100 100.3.17.5.2.3 pg. 28
Personal in the formal rehab area should place their arms into cool water as they are resting. All personnel should spend a minimum of 20 minutes resting in this area, and consume _______ ounces of water or other approved beverages while in this area.
A. 2-4
B. 6-10
C. 10 or more
D. 4-6

A

C. 10 or more.
item 2 personnel should consume a minimum of 10 ounces of water or approved beverages.

25
Q

EOG 100 pg. 27
The IC has the discretion to assign an appropriate person to the position of Rehab Group Supervior. When assigning this postion, the IC should consider the following personel: (5)

A

TFD EMS Officer
TFD Training Officer
TFD exercise physiologist
TFD chief officer or Company Officer
EMSA Supervisor.

26
Q

EOG 300 high rise
As resources are used from staging, request additoinal resources from ________.
A. Incident Command
B. Lobby Control
C. Resource management
D. Base.

A

D. Base
the base officer should choose an area that is at least 300 feet from the incident. that lends itself to parking apparatus and transporting personnel and equipment to the building.
Establish a safe corridor to lobby.

27
Q

EOG. 300.2.3.4.2.6 pg. 40
Assign number of companies necessary to conduct search and rescue, conduct evacuation, and shelter occupants in safe refuges. Recommended personnel: assign a minimum of ________ company/companies for each endangered floor to be seached.
A. 1
B. 2
C. Search and Rescue group
D. 3

A

B. 2 companies assigned to search and rescue of ENDANGERED floors

28
Q

EOG 300.2.1 pg 5
Apparatus placement at a fire scene is dependent on may factors. Which of the following is a placement factor?
A. Wind conditions
B. Ice on the Roadway
C. Staging
D. equipment needed.

A

A. wind conditions

Factors list:

  • function of the apparatus
  • tacitical positions based on visual fire conditions
  • wind conditions
  • possible rescue situations
  • water supply requirements/availability
  • exposure potential
  • terrain
29
Q

EOG. 300 pg. 68
Distribution lines are the most evident throughout the city. These lines will carry up to 34,500 volts. PSO has approximately _______ of their distribution lines below grade.
A. 30%
B. 35 %
C. 40 %
D. 45 %.

A

B. 35%

30
Q

EOG 200.5.6 pg. 18-19
The ISO should perform a 360 degree scene survey. The Safety Officer should evelatuate safety of operations. Which of the following is not part of the Evaluation:
A. Observe Tactical Assignments
B. Observe Rehab opperations
C. Check Exposure of Crews
D. Evaluate Applaratus Placement/exposure

A

B. observe Rehab opperations

31
Q

EOG 100.3.17.2 pg 25
The intent of rehab is to lessen the risk of injury that may result from extended field opperations under adverse conditions. During any type of firefighting for 20 minutes the minimum water for ongoing hydration should be:
A. 4 oz.
B. 6-10 ozs
C. 2-4 oz
D. 4-6 oz

A

C. 2-4 oz.

32
Q

EOG 300.2 high rise ops pg. 39
One company is assigned to take control of the lobby and manage the lobby area activities. One member of this company needs to be assigned to:
A. take control of the elevators
B. monitor fire control room
C. contact the building engineer
D. coordinate priority movement of personnel and equipment from base to staging.

A

B. monitor the fire control room.

33
Q

EOG 300.2.3.1.2.3 pg 17
When assigning personnel to loss control after they were assigned rescue and/or fire control you must:
A. Send them to Rehab
B. Change SCBA bottles
C. Evaulate their condition
D. Assign a different crew

A

C. evaluate their condition

34
Q

EOG 300 pg. 77
When a leak from a line or cyclinder is on the exterior of a structure, what should be done to disperse the vapors?
A. allow natural ventilation
B. Place a fan close to the building diverting vapors away
C. use a fog stream for hydrolic ventilation
D. Monitor the situation to protect exposure.

A

C. use a fog stream for hydrolic ventilation

35
Q

EOG 300.2.3.1.4.2 pg. 25
Class A foams work in several ways, but primarily they reduce the surface tension of water. TFD aaparatus with electric foam injection systems default to ______ foam concentrate when set to A.
A. .01%
B. 0.3 %
C. .5 %
D. 1%

A

B. 0.3%

36
Q

EOG 300.3.4.1 pg. 59
When TPD initiates “Operation Slick Streets”, they will not be responding to non-injury MVCs. You can advise the drivers to exchange information and pick up a form at:
A. Quick Trip and TPD district office
B. TPD Squad Station and Quick Trip
C. TPD Website, Quicktrip
D. TPD Website, Post Office

A

C. TPD Website, Quicktrip

37
Q

EOG. 200.3.4 pg 7
The minimum acceptable fit factor for negative pressure air purifying respirators is 100. The minimum accptable fit factor for full face pieces such as SCBA’s will be 500. This type of testing result falls under what type of testing method:
A. inspection testing
B. OSHA protocol testings
C. Qualitative testing
D. Quantative testing

A

D. quantative testing

38
Q

EOG 300 pg. 115 Business Fire Alarms
When a TFD company responds to a business fire alarms and performs a 360 survey with no indicators and the representative has not arrived TFD will return to service after ________
A. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. after completing the 360 survey

A

C. 20 minutes

39
Q

EOG 300 pg. 79
Response procedures on or Near RL Jones airport. During an alert 2 Tulsa fire companies should respond to:
A. Directly to the crash site after receiving clearance from the tower.
B. First engine responds to the crash site other apparatus stage at the Control Tower parking
C. Tulsa Fire companies respond to Cotrol Tower Parking
D. First engine responds to Control Tower, other responding apparatus respond to runway entrance point.

A

C. Tulsa Fire Companies respond to the control tower parking

40
Q

EOG 200.8 pg 24
The first rule of tool safety is:
A. get the right tool for the job
B. use the tool in the manner designed
C. follow the manufacturer instructions for use and maintenance.
D. Inspect the tool for damage before use

A

C. follow the manufacturer instructions for use and maintenance

2nd rule, get the right tool for the job.

41
Q

EOG 100.3.13.3.3 pg 19
When to call for PAR: A PAR will be conducted when?
A. after 20 minutes from dispatch
B. Every 20 minutes until benchmark of “under control” is reached.
C. Any catastropic event such as collapse, explosions
D. When prompted by the FAO

A

C. any catastrophic event such as collapse, explosions.

30 minutes after dispatch. every 20 minutes until under control.

  • transitions from offensive to defiensive
  • an catastrophic event
  • and other time deemed neccessary by the IC
42
Q

________ Starts with the arrival of the first unit and is constantly monitored and evaluated throughout the incident.

A. Size up
B. RMP Risk management plan
C. Strategy
D. Strategic mode

EOG 100 Pg 11

A

C. Strategy

43
Q

EOG 300 pg. 61

When a fire company sends one or more firefighters to assist EMSA on the way to the hospital, the company officer will determine the best method of retrieving the firefighters based on:

A. the ability of the company to stay in service and in district

B. The ability of the company to return to service.

C. The ability of the company to stay available

D. the ability for the company to remain available in their first in.

A

B. the ability of the company to return to service.

44
Q

EOG 300.6 pg. 110 the following zones should be established:

Hot zone- 100 feet in diameter from the ______

Warm zone - 100 feet beyond the hot zone

Crowd control line - 100 feet beyond the warm zone.

A. incident

B. collapse

C. Hazmat incident

D. Trench.

A

B. collapse.

45
Q

EOG 100 pg. 33

When personnal discove juvenile firesetters they will call for an on duty fire investigator. The forms will be collected and turn over to the JFSI officer who will make contact with the juveniles parents within:

A. 3 calendar days

B. 3 working days

C. 5 calendar days

C. 5 working days.

A

B. 3 working day.

46
Q

EOG 300.2.3.5 pg. 46

All crews entering an elevator are to be properly equiped with full PPE and SCBA, a prtable radio an da set of forcible ientry tools. If the evevator looses power, the crew can force its way out of the elevator or radio for assistance. All elevator care manufactured after 1991 must have:

A. Phase 1 operations

B. phase 2 operations

C. Call cancel button

D. Emergency stop button

A

C. call cancel button.

47
Q

EOG 300 pg. 51
The IC must be aware of constantly changing weather conditions. A wildland fire can create dangerous convection currents that cause erratic fire behavior and spot fires far in advance of the fire head. Companies with considerable brush fire potential should survey their area with regard to fuel, topography, and extent of exposure to structures. Particular attention should be paid to:
A. Water sources, and slope
B. Access points and water source
C. roads and natural fire breaks
D. brush fire potential, weather conditions.

A

C. roads and natural fire breaks

48
Q

EOG 200.3.5.3 pg. 11

What is the primary type of respiratory protection used by TFD?

A. N 95 Medical Masks

B. SCBA

C. Supplied Air Respirators

D. hald mask cartridge respirators.

A

B. SCBA

49
Q

EOG 200.4.1 pg. 12

FEO will be certified on specific types of apparatus. The __________ is responsible for this certification.

A. Training branch

B. Training Academy

C. Training Chief

D. Training Officers

A

A. Training Branch