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Exams 787 > Exam Questions A > Flashcards

Exam Questions A Flashcards

1
Q

For how long will a fully charged emergency lights system operate

A

At least 10 minutes

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2
Q

Which areas have fire detection systems

A

APU, cargo compartments, engines, lavatories, main gear wells, overhead rest compartments

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3
Q

Where can you monitor hydraulic quantity and pressure

A

STATUS page or hydraulic synoptic display

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4
Q

You have just started the right engine. With the APU running, what sources are powering the L1, L2, R1 and R2 main AC buses

A

The APU is powering the L1 and L2 buses, the right engine is powering R1 and R2 buses

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5
Q

What is the air source for the packs

A

Outside air

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6
Q

An ADF operates on the frequency of 1250.4. What do you type in the FMS - CDU scratchpad to tune it for BFO operations

A

1250.4B

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7
Q

What is the status of entry door to 2R (FADED grey outlined lozenge)

A

The door signal is invalid or unknown

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8
Q

Where do you enter the fuel freeze temperature

A

FMC CDU PERF INIT Page

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9
Q

When is the wheel to rudder crosstie function available

A

In the secondary and direct modes only

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10
Q

What is the first memory action required for Airspeed Unreliable

A

Autopilot Disc

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11
Q

As well as arming the extinguisher and closing the fuel valves, what other systems are affected if an engine fire switch is pulled

A

Trips the generators, closes anticing valves, depressurises the hydraulics, removes power to the thrust reverser isolation valve.

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12
Q

Which primary engine parameters are displayed on the EICAS

A

TPR, N1, EGT

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13
Q

Under which of the following conditions does the centre hydraulic demand pump operate

A

System low-pressure

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14
Q

Where are the locations of the external electric power receptacles

A

FWD EXT PWR on the left forward fuselage, AFT EXT on the left aft fuselage

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15
Q

How many CACs are required to provide sufficient air to a single pack in all modes

A

One

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16
Q

What primary groups of information are displayed on the five display units (DUs)

A

Primary flight display (PFD) with mini map, navigation display (ND), EICAS, auxiliary display (AUX) and multifunction displays (MFDs)

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17
Q

During pre-flight, the display below shows no red exceedance box, how can you be sure that this is the case

A

Push the CANC/RCL switch when the messages are not displayed

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18
Q

What is the maximum crosswind dry takeoff

A

35 kts

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19
Q

What flight control redundancy is available in case of total hydraulic failure

A

Electrically actuated stabiliser and two spoiler pairs

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20
Q

In HDG SEL mode with the Bank Limit Selector at AUTO what is the bank limit dependent on

A

TAS

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21
Q

The Autothrottle can be operated without using the autopilot or F/D. What modes are available in this situation

A

THR REF, SPD, HOLD, IDLE

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22
Q

What inputs does air/ground sensing system use to configure the aeroplane systems to the appropriate air or ground status

A

Air/ground logic signals from sensors located on each main landing gear beam

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23
Q

Following rapid cabin depressurisation, resulting in excessive cabin altitude, what is the first item on the checklist

A

Don the oxygen mask

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24
Q

Which section of the engine is de-iced

A

Engine inlet cowl and engine core

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25
Q

After power up, with the PFD/MFD selectors set to NORM, the displays are in what default configuration

A

D - AUX PFD, ND EICAS, ND (large), PFD AUX. Below is CDU CDU

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26
Q

How can the crew input data into the CDUs

A

By using the MFK or the Cursor Control Device (CCD)

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27
Q

What does the Amber line displayed on the TPR indicator mean

A

Maximum TPR

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28
Q

What does it mean if an EICAS message has a white hollow square next to it

A

Indicates that a checklist to be actioned

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29
Q

What hydraulic system powers the landing gear

A

The centre system

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30
Q

During an engine start, when does the green RUNNING indication above the N2 gauge come into view

A

When the fuel control switch is in the RUN position and engine is at or above idle

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31
Q

What is the maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component

A

15 kts

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32
Q

When in flight with wing anticing on, is the system powered

A

Any time TAT is below 25° C

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33
Q

What backup is available in case of complete loss of flight control signalling

A

Direct wiring from the flight deck to the stabiliser and one spoiler pair allows pilot control using control wheel and alternate pitch trim switches

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34
Q

During a go around with LNAV path available, at what radio altitude will LNAV automatically arm and activate when the autopilot is not engaged

A

Above 50’

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35
Q

For engine start, oil temperature must be greater

A

-40°C

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36
Q

On HUD takeoff operations, what is the maximum headwind

A

25kts

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37
Q

What is the maximum range at which weather radar turbulence returns can be displayed

A

40 nm

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38
Q

On the ground before engine start, which system page will display by default if the SYS switch is pushed

A

STAT page

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39
Q

Autostart fails to start an engine; what is your immediate action

A

Put the FUEL CONTROL switch to CUTOFF

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40
Q

How many pack control systems are there

A

Two systems

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41
Q

What electrical sources can be used for APU start

A

Forward external power, APU battery, or engine generated power

42
Q

Primary and secondary engine indications are provided only on the EICAS display. Which of the following TPR indications is not correct

A

Maximum TPR line: Red (should be amber)

43
Q

When do system menu buttons change to amber

A

Whenever an EICAS caution message associated with a synoptic is triggered

44
Q

For a HUD takeoff at LHR, what is the max crosswind limit

A

20kts

45
Q

What if anything can be done after a power interrupt causes an in-flight loss of alignment of an IRU

A

The IRU can be realigned to provide full nav capability with GPS data available

46
Q

After retraction, how is the gear held up

A

Mechanical uplocks

47
Q

When seleced to AUTO, do C1 and C2 hydraulic electrical pumps run continuously

A

No, the two pumps alternate as a primary pump and a demand pump

48
Q

How are the cabin air compressors (CACs) regulated during engine starts

A

All CACs are commanded off during initial engine start sequence

49
Q

What is initiated by selecting the battery switched it on

A

The Left CCR powers up

50
Q

If the FAIL light illuminates, what does this indicate (Flight control surfaces)

A

An associated control surface has not locked when the lock switch is in the LOCK position

51
Q

What are the primary sources of power for the ECCs

A

Two engine driven permanent magnet alternators (PMAs)

52
Q

In-flight the RAT deploys automatically under which of the following conditions

A

Loss of all electrical power to captain’s and f/o’s flight instruments

53
Q

What comprises the fire and overheat detection system within the engine nacelle

A

Multiple dual channel detector assemblies

54
Q

With flaps out of up an engine or wing anticing ON what happens to the stick shaker logic

A

Increases the stick shaker and minimum manoeuvering speed

55
Q

When the AIR DATA/ATT source selector is in AUTO, what is the automatic backup source of airspeed based on

A

AOA and inertial data

56
Q

How is the left CCR on line indicated

A

Captain’s inboard and lower display unit showing default formats

57
Q

How would you identify the individual lighting controls that operate with the master brightness control system

A

They all have a centre detent position identified by a white dot at the mid range adjustment position

58
Q

How many display units (DUs) are there

A

Five

59
Q

What is the EICAS indication that engine anticing is on? The EAI is displayed above the…

A

N1 Indicator

60
Q

Which statement is true when operating DIRECT flight control mode

A

Pilot inputs to the ACEs are sent directly to the PCUs

61
Q

What is the maximum headwind for an autoland

A

25 kts

62
Q

When are the EGT indications inhibited from changing to amber

A

During takeoff and go around for five minutes

63
Q

What is the first memory action item for ENG SURGE L/R

A

A/T ARM switch (affected side) - Confirm - OFF

64
Q

On the CDU displayed below, what is the significance of the “MOD RTE 1 LEGS” title line

A

Flightplan modification not yet executed

65
Q

WXR, TFC & TERR Map switches are located on the EFIS Control Panel. What alternative method is there to select these map indications

A

The drop down menu in the ND MAP mode

66
Q

With both engines running, where are the individual tank fuel quantities normally displayed?

A

On the fuel synoptic

67
Q

During alternate gear extension what releases the gear doors and uplocks

A

A dedicated DC powered electric hydraulic pump using centre system fluid

68
Q

It 121.5 MHz is tuned on VHF L on the captains TCP, what happens on the FO’s and observer’s ACP

A

Receiver lights on both FO’s and observer’s ACPs would illuminate and they would be able to monitor that radio

69
Q

What is used for vertical guidance for IAN approaches

A

An FMC computed glidepath

70
Q

When the battery switch is on and external power becomes available (AVAIL), which CCR would start up first?

A

The Left CCR

71
Q

What will cause the expanded fuel indications to appear

A

The balance system is active

72
Q

During an all engine autoland, when does the initial runway alignment manoeuvre begin

A

500’

73
Q

What is the maximum crosswind for a wet landing

A

33 knots

74
Q

Which displays are multifunction display is (MFDs)

A

Inboard DUs and the lower DU

75
Q

What are the indications of an engine overheat

A

The caution beeper sounds, the master caution lights illuminate, EICAS caution message OVERHEAT ENG L/R is displayed

76
Q

What is the maximum altitude for extending the flats

A

20,000’

77
Q

In the HUD below, what time critical warnings are displayed

A

WINDSHEAR and the filled in dot

78
Q

The CDU help Window can display

A

Error and help messages

79
Q

With RTO selected, when would the brakes be applied

A

Ground speed above 85 kts and both thrust levers at idle

80
Q

In the display below, what does the fuel imbalance pointer flashing amber indicate

A

The balance of crossfeed is going in the wrong direction

81
Q

With AUTO selected for the bulk cargo temperature, how is airflow increased

A

The bulk ventilation fan operates

82
Q

During ground starts, the autostart system monitors engine parameters and aborts the start for:

A

No N1 rotation

83
Q

How can the TOGA going to be terminated above 400 ‘

A

By selecting another pitch and roll mode

84
Q

How does the thrust asymmetry protection (TAP) function minimise a large thrust asymmetry during takeoff or go-around

A

Limiting thrust on the higher thrust engine

85
Q

After CCR power-up on battery only, what are the default displays

A

Captains Inboard DU and Lower DU

86
Q

The TCAS messages and traffic symbols are shown on which displays

A

PFD mini-map and NDs in MAP or MAP CTR mode

87
Q

What effect does the landing gear lever have on alternate gear extension

A

Gear lever has no effect

88
Q

How is it time critical warning announced

A

Must have warning lights, Voice alerts, PFD and HUD indications or stick shakers

89
Q

When the EEC is in normal mode, which parameter is used to control engine thrust

A

The EEC sets thrust by controlling TPR based on thrust lever position

90
Q

With no system messages, what supplies attitude, heading and rate information to the aircraft systems

A

Attitude and Heading Reference Unit (AHRU)

91
Q

What is the condition of number two wheel (Amber ASKID)

A

Antiskid fault

92
Q

What form does the stall warning take

A

Stick shakers

93
Q

If each pilot selects an ND into a window on the lower DU, a single full display ND is shown. Whose EFIS control panel will control that ND

A

The pilot that the first selected an ND on the lower DU

94
Q

What are the indications of an engine fire?

A

Fire bell sounds, master warning lights illuminate, EICAS message displayed, fire switch and fuel control switch lights illuminate

95
Q

What does the navigation performance scale (NPS) deviation pointer do if it migrates into the ANP bar area for more than five seconds?

A

Flashes for 10 seconds

96
Q

If engine overspeed protection fails, what does the EEC command the engine to do?

A

The EEC commands fuel shut-off to shutdown the engine

97
Q

What does the value of the TAMS depend on

A

Varies with weight and C of G

98
Q

During the pre-flight when a flight director is positioned to on, what do the FD bars command

A

Approximately 8° pitch up command, and wings level roll command

99
Q

When is the rudder pedal steering disconnect switch used

A

Used during a flight controls freedom of motion check to temporarily disable the rudder pedal inputs

100
Q

What is the turbulent air penetration speed at and above 25,000 feet

A

310 kts or .84 whichever is lower

Exams 787 (3 decks)

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