Exam Questions Flashcards
G0A01: What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?
A. It heats body tissue
B. It causes radiation poisoning
C. It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
D. It cools body tissue
A: Body tissues that are subjected to very high levels of RF energy may suffer heat damage. These effects depend on the frequency of the energy, the power density of the RF field that strikes the body, and even on factors such as the polarization of the wave. The thermal effects of RF energy should not be a major concern for most radio amateurs because of the relatively low RF power we normally use and the intermittent nature of most amateur transmissions. It is rare for amateurs to be subjected to RF fields strong enough to produce thermal effects unless they are fairly close to an energized antenna or unshielded power amplifier.
G0A02: Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)? A. Its duty cycle B. Its frequency C. Its power density D. All of these choices are correct
D: The body’s natural resonant frequencies affect how the body absorbs RF energy. For this reason, polarization, power density and the frequency of the radio signal are all important in estimating the effects of RF energy on body tissue.
G0A03: How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?
A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
B. By calculation based on computer modeling
C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
D.
D: You may use any of these three procedures to determine whether your station complies with the exposure guidelines. The simplest, by far, is to perform the calculations in FCC OET Bulletin 65. There are online and software tools to help you perform the calculations. In complex or unique situations, it may be required to model or measure the exposure. [97.13(c)(1)]
G0A04: What does “time averaging” mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?
A. The average time of day when the exposure occurs
B. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
C. The total time of the exposure
D: Time averaging, when applied to RF radiation exposure, takes into account the total RF exposure averaged over either a 6-minute or a 30-minute exposure time. Time averaging compensates for the transmit/receive time ratio during normal amateur communications. It takes into account that the body cools itself after a time of reduced or no RF radiation exposure.
G0A05: What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?
A. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
B. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with
A: Some of the things you can do to prevent human exposure to excessive RF radiation are to move your antennas farther away, restrict access to the areas where exposure would exceed the limits, or reduce power to reduce the field strengths in those areas.
G0A07: What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?
A. A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
B. A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
C. Low duty c
A: Since amateurs usually spend more time listening than transmitting, low duty cycles are common. Remember that including duty cycle in the exposure evaluation takes into account the reduced average transmitted power from not operating continuously at full power. This means greater short-term exposure levels can be permitted with low-duty-cycle emissions.
G0A08: Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in part 97.13?
A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97 in the station
B. Post a copy of OET Bulleti
C: Even if your station is exempt from the requirement, you may want to do a simple RF Radiation Exposure Evaluation. The results would demonstrate to yourself and possibly to your neighbors that your station is within the guidelines and is no cause for concern. None of the actions listed in the other answer choices would help to ensure that your station meets the FCC RF safety regulations.
G0A09: What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?
A. A receiver with an S meter
B. A calibrated field-strength meter with a calibrated antenna
C. A betascope with a dummy antenna calibrated at 50 ohms
D. An oscilloscope
B: You can use a calibrated field-strength meter and calibrated field-strength sensor (antenna) to accurately measure an RF field. Even if you have access to such an expensive laboratory-grade field-strength meter, several factors can upset the readings. Reflections from the ground and nearby conductors (power lines, other antennas, house wiring, etc.) can easily confuse field-strength readings. You must know the frequency response of the test equipment and probes, and use them only within the appropriate range. Even the orientation of the test probe with respect to the polarization of the antenna being tested is important.
G0A10: What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?
A. Change from horizontal polarization to vertical polarization
B. Ch
D: A simple way to ensure that you do not point your antenna toward a neighbor’s house while your are transmitting is to clearly mark your rotator control to remind you. Some rotator controls also have programmable “no go” regions that can prevent rotating the antenna to those directions.
G0A11: What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?
A. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed line radiation
B. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
C: You should locate any antenna (whether it is indoors or outdoors) as far away as practical from living spaces that will be occupied while you are operating. You should also perform a routine environmental evaluation to make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas.
G0A12: What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?
A. Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
B. Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
C. Wear a radiation badge
D. All of t
B: One way to be sure that no one can activate the transmitter while you are working on it is to turn off the transmitter power supply and disconnect the antenna feed line. If there is a chance of anyone entering the station, it is also a good idea to post a notice that you are working on the antenna.
G0A13: What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?
A. It should not be installed higher than you can reach
B. It should not be installed in a wet area
C. It should limited to 10 feet in height
D. It should be installe
D: No one should be near a transmitting antenna while it is in use. Install ground-mounted transmitting antennas well away from living areas so that people cannot come close enough to be exposed to more than the MPE limits. If there is a possibility of someone walking up to your antenna while you are transmitting, it may be a good idea to install a protective fence around the antenna.
G0B01: Which wire or wires in a four-conductor line cord should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240-VAC single-phase source? A. Only the hot wires B. Only the neutral wire C. Only the ground wire D. All wires
A: The hot wires are the only ones that should be fused. If fuses are installed in the neutral or ground lines, an overload will open the fuses or circuit breaker but will NOT remove voltage from any equipment connected to that circuit.
G0B02: What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current? A. AWG number 20 B. AWG number 16 C. AWG number 12 D. AWG number 8
C: AWG number 12 wire is required for a 20-ampere circuit.
G0B03: Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring? A. 100 amperes B. 60 amperes C. 30 amperes D. 15 amperes
D: AWG number 14 wiring should be protected by a 15-ampere fuse or circuit breaker.
G0B04: Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?
A. Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
B. Danger of engine over torque
C. Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
D. Lack of nitr
A: Carbon monoxide and other exhaust fumes can accumulate in your garage, basement or other confined living area, so ventilation is very important. Be sure not to place generators near air intakes or vents, as well.
G0B05: Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?
A. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
B. Current flowing from
B: A GFCI opens the circuit if it detects an imbalance in the currents flowing through the hot and neutral leads. The imbalance indicates that a leakage path exists from the hot connection to safety ground. That is a serious shock hazard and should be located and repaired.
G0B06: Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?
A. It prevents blowing of fuses in case of an internal short circuit
B. It prevents signal overload
C. It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D. It ensures t
D: Grounding the metal enclosure or chassis provides a path for current if there is a short circuit between the hot or neutral leads and the equipment enclosure. Without a ground connection, a shock hazard may exist if the chassis is touched.
G0B07: Which of the following should be observed for safety when climbing on a tower using a safety belt or harness?
A. Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight
B. Always attach the belt safety hook to the belt D-ring with the
B: When climbing, make sure that hooks and clips are fully latched before putting any weight on them. Then be sure that for spring-loaded devices, the gate of the hook or clip can not be opened by pressing against the tower or hardware. You might not notice that it has been accidentally unlatched!
G0B08: What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?
A. Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
B. Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are lock
B: Before climbing, remove power from any circuit that will not be used while you are on the tower. The best way is to remove fuses or open circuit breakers. Once the circuit is opened, lock the circuit breaker open, if possible, and tag the fuse block or breaker panel so that no one will reconnect the circuit.
G0B09: Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?
A. The resistance of solder is too high
B. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
C. Solder has too high a diel
D: When lightning strikes, the high current will melt the solder instantly and disconnect the ground wires. The proper way to bond ground wires to a tower is with a mechanical ground clamp.
G0B10: Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?
A. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling
B. High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
C. Tin in the solder can “cold flow” ca
A: Lead is a known toxin when ingested or inhaled. Although the amount of soldering done by most amateurs does not cause enough lead exposure to be a hazard, it is a good idea to wash your hands after soldering and not eat “at the bench.”
G0B11: Which of the following is good engineering practice for lightning protection grounds?
A. They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
B. Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
C. Lightning grounds mu
D: Lightning protection grounds must be tied to all other safety grounds in your home and shack. Having separate ground systems can expose equipment to damage from the lightning current surge jumping between ground systems.
G0B12: What is the purpose of a transmitter power supply interlock?
A. To prevent unauthorized access to a transmitter
B. To guarantee that you cannot accidentally transmit out of band
C. To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet
C: High voltages are often present inside transmitter and amplifier power supplies. The interlocks on those supplies prevent you from coming in contact with energized power supply components. Interlocks often short high voltage circuits to ground when activated, providing further safety measures. Do not defeat or bypass interlock circuits unless the repair instructions specifically require you to do so.
G0B13: What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?
A. Disconnect the incoming utility power feed
B. Insure that the generator is not grounded
C. Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
D. All of these choices
A: If you do not disconnect your home’s circuit breaker box from the incoming power line, called backfeeding, the power from your generator will flow back to the utility lines where it creates a shock hazard for utility workers. In addition, if utility power is restored with your generator connected to the power line, the generator may be damaged.
G0B14: Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?
A. Acceptable bandwidth limits
B. Acceptable modulation limits
C. Electrical safety inside the ham shack
D. RF exposure limits of the human body
C: The National Electrical Code covers the wiring of electrical devices,
G0B15: Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?
A. The generator should be located in a well ventilated area
B. The generator should be insulated from ground C. Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling
A: Carbon monoxide and other exhaust fumes can accumulate in your garage, basement or other confined living area, so ventilation is very important. Be sure not to place generators near air intakes or vents, as well.
G0B16: When might a lead acid storage battery give off explosive hydrogen gas? A. When stored for long periods of time B. When being discharged C. When being charged D. When not placed on a level surface
C: You need to keep your lead-acid battery charged at all times for use in an emergency. A by-product of charging your battery is the release of hydrogen gas that can explode if ignited by a spark. A well-ventilated area is essential.
G1A01: On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges? A. 60, 20, 17, and 12 meters B. 160, 80, 40, and 10 meters C. 160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters D. 160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
C: These are the bands on which the entire range of mode-restricted segments (such as phone or CW/data) are open to all license classes that have access to the band. Generals, Advanced, and Extra Class licensees all have access to the entire band. [97.301(d), 97.303(s)]
G1A02: On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited? A. 160 meters B. 30 meters C. 17 meters D. 12 meters
B: The 30 meter band is restricted to CW, RTTY and data transmissions only. [97.305]
G1A03: On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited? A. 160 meters B. 30 meters C. 20 meters D. 12 meters
B: The 30 meter band is restricted to CW, RTTY and data transmissions only. Image transmission is also prohibited on the 60 meter band. [97.305]
G1A04: Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges? A. 11 meters B. 12 meters C. 30 meters D. 60 meters
D: In the US, Amateur Radio is a secondary service to government stations on 60 meters. By limiting amateur operation to specific channels, it is easier for hams to tell when government stations are present and to avoid interfering with them. [97.303(s)]
G1A05: Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40 meter band? A. 7.250 MHz B. 7.500 MHz C. 40.200 MHz D. 40.500 MHz
A: General Class licensees have access to the following portions of the 40 meter band (f = 300 / 40 = 7.5 MHz): 7.025 - 7.125 MHz on CW/RTTY/data and from 7.175 - 7.300 MHz on CW/Phone/Image. [97.301(d)]
G1A06: Which of the following frequencies is in the 12 meter band? A. 3.940 MHz B. 12.940 MHz C. 17.940 MHz D. 24.940 MHz
D: Use the formula f = 300 / 12 = 25 MHz to get the approximate frequency range of the 12 meter band. [97.301(d)]
G1A07: Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75 meter phone band? A. 1875 kHz B. 3750 kHz C. 3900 kHz D. 4005 kHz
C: Although the 75 and 80 meter bands are part of a single amateur band, the difference in wavelength is enough for amateurs to make a distinction between 75 meters at the higher frequencies and 80 meters at the lower frequencies. General Class licensees have access to the following portions of the 75 meter band (f = 300 / 75 = 4.0 MHz): 3.800 - 4.000 MHz on CW/Phone/Image. [97.301(d)]
G1A08: Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20 meter phone band? A. 14005 kHz B. 14105 kHz C. 14305 kHz D. 14405 kHz
C: General Class licensees have access to the following portions of the 20 meter band (f = 300 / 20 = 15 MHz): 14.025 - 14.150 MHz on CW/Phone/image and from 14.225 - 14.350 MHz on CW/Phone/Image. [97.301(d)]
G1A09: Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80 meter band? A. 1855 kHz B. 2560 kHz C. 3560 kHz D. 3650 kHz
C: General Class licensees have access to the following portions of the 80 meter band (f = 300 / 80 = 3.75 MHz): 3.525 - 3.600 MHz on CW/RTTY/Data. [97.301(d)]
G1A10: Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15 meter band? A. 14250 kHz B. 18155 kHz C. 21300 kHz D. 24900 kHz
C: General Class licensees have access to the following portions of the 15 meter band (f = 300 / 15 = 20 MHz): 21.025 - 21.200 MHz on CW/RTTY/data and from 21.275 - 21.450 MHz on CW/Phone/Image. [97.301(d)]
G1A11: Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license? A. 28.020 MHz B. 28.350 MHz C. 28.550 MHz D. All of these choices are correct
D: The 28 MHz (10 meter) band is one of the bands on which the entire range of mode-restricted segments (such as phone or CW/data) are open to all license classes that have access to the band. Generals, Advanced, and Extra Class licensees all have access to the entire band. [97.301(d)]
G1A12: When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?
A. The lower frequency end
B. The upper frequency end
C. The lower frequen
B: If you look at the US Amateur Band chart available in the General Class License Manual or on the ARRL Web site at www.arrl.org/files/file/Hambands_color.pdf you will see that in the bands on which there are mode-restricted segments, such as 80 meters, General Class licensees have access to the higher frequencies of the segment. [97.301]
G1A13: Which, if any, amateur band is shared with the Citizens Radio Service? A. 10 meters B. 12 meters C. 15 meters D. None
D: Citizens Band operators may not operate on amateur bands or on any frequency not assigned to the Citizens Radio Service. [97.303]
G1A14: Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?
A. Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
C: You should always listen before you transmit. This is especially important on bands where Amateur Radio is a secondary service, such as the 30 or 60 meter band. Amateurs are only permitted to use these frequencies if they do not cause harmful interference to the primary users. If you hear a station in the primary service or receive interference from such a station you should immediately change frequencies. Otherwise you might be causing interference to the primary station. [97.303]
G1A15: What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30 or 60 meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?
A. Notify the FCC’s regional Engineer in Charge of the interference
B. Increase your transmitte
D: You should always listen before you transmit. This is especially important on bands where Amateur Radio is a secondary service, such as the 30 or 60 meter band. Amateurs are only permitted to use these frequencies if they do not cause harmful interference to the primary users. If you hear a station in the primary service or receive interference from such a station you should immediately change frequencies. Otherwise you might be causing interference to the primary station. [97.303]
G1B01: What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?
A. 50 feet
B. 100 feet
C. 200 fe
C: FCC regulations require approval if your antenna would be more than 200 feet above ground level at its site. This includes the antenna, the supports and anything else attached to the structure. (Additional FCC restrictions apply if the antenna is within about 4 miles of a public use airport or heliport.)[97.15(a)]
G1B02: With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?
A. A beacon station may not use automatic control
B. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
C. The frequency must be posted on the Internet or
D: A beacon station normally transmits a signal for operators to observe propagation and reception characteristics. For this purpose, FCC rules specifically allow an amateur beacon to transmit one-way communications. [97.203(b)]
G1B03: Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC Rules?
A. Observation of propagation and reception
B. Automatic identification of repeaters
C. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio lic
A: A beacon station normally transmits a signal for operators to observe propagation and reception characteristics. For this purpose, FCC rules specifically allow an amateur beacon to transmit one-way communications. [97.3(a)(9)]
G1B04: Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?
A. The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and
A: Amateurs are not allowed to be involved with any activity related to program production or news gathering for broadcasting to the general public unless it is directly related to an emergency involving an immediate life or property-threatening situation and there is no other method by which the information can be transmitted. If there is an alternative communication system available, even if it is slower, the amateur station may not transmit the information for a news broadcast or related program production. [97.113(b)]
G1B05: When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?
A. At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
B. When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
C. When it is transmitted on frequencies above
D: Normally, music may not be transmitted by an amateur station. This is to avoid infringing upon commercial broadcast activities. Music is often used in communications between ground control and the space shuttle or International Space Station (ISS) for such things as waking up the astronauts in the morning. In this case, since it is an incidental part of the transmission and not the primary purpose of it, the music can be retransmitted by the amateur station along with the rest of the space shuttle transmission, as long as the Amateur station has NASA’s permission to retransmit the Shuttle (or ISS) audio. [97.113(a)(5), 97.113(e)]
G1B06: When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?
A. During a declared communications emergency
B. To control a space station
C. Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature
D. Only with Special Temporary Authoriz
B: An amateur station may never transmit in such a manner as to obscure the meaning of two-way communication. The use of standard abbreviations does not violate this rule, since their meaning is well known. The exception is space telecommand operations where the commands and data may be coded. (This helps prevent unauthorized stations from transmitting telecommand messages to the spacecraft.) When controlling a satellite from a ground station, the transmissions may consist of specially coded messages intended to facilitate communications or related to the function of the spacecraft. Telecommand is not two-way communication, however; it is one-way communication. [97.113(a)(4), 97.207(f)]
G1B07: What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?
A. Only “Q” codes are permitted
B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
C. They are not permitted
D. Only “10 co
B: The use of common abbreviations and procedural signals is standard practice and does not obscure the meaning of a message because their meaning is well known. Any use of abbreviations or codes for the purpose of obscuring the meaning of a communication is prohibited. [97.113(a)(4)]
G1B08: When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?
A. Review FCC Part 97 Rules regarding permitted frequencies and emissions
B. Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio co
D: Choosing a frequency is straightforward: Be sure the frequency is authorized to General class licensees, follow the band plan under normal circumstances, and listen to the frequency to avoid interfering with ongoing communications.
G1B09: When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?
A. When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such act
A: In general, amateurs are forbidden to receive any kind of compensation, financial or otherwise, for conducting communications on amateur frequencies. Amateurs are, however, permitted to conduct a limited amount of personal business, such as participating in “swap-and-shop” nets conducted on amateur frequencies for local amateurs to buy, sell and trade amateur equipment. [97.113(a)(3)]
G1B10: What is the power limit for beacon stations? A. 10 watts PEP output B. 20 watts PEP output C. 100 watts PEP output D. 200 watts PEP output
C: 100 watts of output power is a good compromise, enabling a beacon station to transmit a signal strong enough to be heard when propagation isn’t the best. Similarly, when propagation is good, a 100-watt signal is not so strong as to cause interference to stations on nearby frequencies. [97.203(c)]
G1B11: How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?
A. In conformance with the rules of the IARU
B. In conformance with Amateur Radio custom
C. In conformance with good eng
C: The FCC Rules grant amateurs a lot freedom in the ways they choose to operate, more than in any other service. It is impossible for the service’s broad rules and regulations to cover every situation that might possibly arise. You are expected to use common sense in those situations where an exact rule does not apply. Your station and its operation should always follow good engineering design and good amateur practice. [97.101(a)]
G1B12: Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules? A. The FCC B. The Control Operator C. The IEEE D. The ITU
A: The FCC does not publish a list of what constitutes “good engineering and good amateur practice” because the state of the radio art is continually improving. Nevertheless, when questions arise, the FCC is the agency that determines what standards should be applied. [97.101(a)][97.101(a)]
G1C01: What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz? A. 200 watts PEP output B. 1000 watts PEP output C. 1500 watts PEP output D. 2000 watts PEP output
A: The general rule is that maximum power is limited to 1500 watts PEP output, although there are exceptions where less power is allowed. One such exception is the 30 meter band, 10.100 - 10.150 MHz, where the maximum power for US hams is 200 watts. (These frequencies are just above the short-wave time broadcasts of WWV and WWVH at 10.0 MHz.) [97.313(c)(1)]
G1C02: What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12 meter band?
A. 1500 watts PEP output, except for 200 watts PEP output in the Novice portion
B. 200 watts PEP output
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. An effective radiate
C: The maximum power allowed is 1500 watts PEP output from 24.890 - 24.990 MHz. [97.313(a), 97.313(b)]
G1C03: What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations when transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60 meter band? A. 2.8 kHz B. 5.6 kHz C. 1.8 kHz D. 3 kHz
A: The FCC Rules for operating on the amateur 60 meter band tell us that “Amateur stations must ensure that their transmission occupies only the 2.8 kHz centered around each” of the operating channels. So the maximum transmitted bandwidth of your upper sideband signal (the only operating mode allowed on this band) is 2.8 kHz. A properly adjusted SSB transmitter normally has a bandwidth of 2.5 to 2.8 kHz. [97.303(s)]
G1C04: Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 14 MHz band?
A. Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
B. Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MH
A: Although the maximum power allowed is 1500 watts PEP output, amateurs should use only the power level needed to carry out communications. [97.313(a)]
G1C05: Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band? A. 100 watts PEP output B. 1000 watts PEP output C. 1500 watts PEP output D. 2000 watts PEP output
C: The maximum power allowed is 1500 watts PEP output on the entire band. [97.313(b)]
G1C06: Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band? A. 200 watts PEP output B. 1000 watts PEP output C. 1200 watts PEP output D. 1500 watts PEP output
D: The maximum power allowed is 1500 watts PEP output on the entire band. [97.313(b)]
G1C07: What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20 meter band? A. 56 kilobaud B. 19.6 kilobaud C. 1200 baud D. 300 baud
D: The symbol rate of digital signals is restricted to make sure they do not consume too much bandwidth at the expense of other modes. Table G1-1 shows the limits by band. [97.305(c), 97.307(f)(3)] {br/}{br/}{image src=’Table G1-1.png’}
G1C08: What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz? A. 56 kilobaud B. 19.6 kilobaud C. 1200 baud D. 300 baud
D: The symbol rate of digital signals is restricted to make sure they do not consume too much bandwidth at the expense of other modes. Table G1-1 shows the limits by band. [97.307(f)(3)] {br/}{br/}{image src=’Table G1-1.png’}
G1C09: What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25 meter and 70 centimeter bands? A. 56 kilobaud B. 19.6 kilobaud C. 1200 baud D. 300 baud
A: The symbol rate of digital signals is restricted to make sure they do not consume too much bandwidth at the expense of other modes. Table G1-1 shows the limits by band. [97.305(c), 97.307(f)(5)] {br/}{br/}{image src=’Table G1-1.png’}
G1C10: What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10 meter band? A. 56 kilobaud B. 19.6 kilobaud C. 1200 baud D. 300 baud
C: The symbol rate of digital signals is restricted to make sure they do not consume too much bandwidth at the expense of other modes. Table G1-1 shows the limits by band. [97.305(c), 97.307(f)(4)] {br/}{br/}{image src=’Table G1-1.png’}
G1C11: What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2 meter band? A. 56 kilobaud B. 19.6 kilobaud C. 1200 baud D. 300 baud
B: The symbol rate of digital signals is restricted to make sure they do not consume too much bandwidth at the expense of other modes. Table G1-1 shows the limits by band. [97.305(c), 97.307(f)(5)] {br/}{br/}{image src=’Table G1-1.png’}
G1D01: Which of the following is a proper way to identify when transmitting using phone on General Class frequencies if you have a CSCE for the required elements but your upgrade from Technician has not appeared in the FCC database?
A. Give your call si
C: You must add a “temporary identifier” to your call sign so that stations receiving your transmissions can verify that you are authorized to transmit on that frequency. If a temporary identifier was not used between the time you pass your exam and the time at which your new privileges appear in the FCC database, it would appear that you were transmitting on a frequency for which you were not authorized. When you upgrade to Extra class, you’ll append “temporary AE” to your call sign. [97.119(f)(2)]
G1D02: What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license? A. General and Technician B. General only C. Technician only D. Extra, General and Technician
C: Holders of a General class operator license may only administer examinations for license levels below theirs: Technician. General class licensees may participate as a VE in any exam session, but they may not be the primary VEs administrating the General or Extra class exams. [97.509(b)(3)(i)]
G1D03: On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?
A. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted on the FCC database
B. Only on the Te
C: You may begin using the General class privileges immediately on receiving your CSCE, but you must append the identifier “temporary AG” or “/AG” to indicate that you passed the General class exam. [97.9(b)]
G1D04: Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class operator examination?
A. At least three VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present
B. At least two VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be p
A: All license exams are administered through the Volunteer Examiner Coordinator (VEC) system. VEs (Volunteer Examiners) must be accredited by a VEC. There must be three VEC-accredited VEs present at every exam session. Technician exams are administered by General class or higher VEs. [97.509(a), 97.509(b)]
G1D05: Which of the following is sufficient for you to be an administering VE for a Technician Class operator license examination?
A. Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
B. Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
C. Possession of
D: All license exams are administered through the Volunteer Examiner Coordinator (VEC) system. VEs (Volunteer Examiners) must be accredited by a VEC. There must be three VEC-accredited VEs present at every exam session. Technician exams are administered by General class or higher VEs. As soon as the FCC issues your General class license (meaning that it has appeared in the FCC database) and you receive your accreditation from a VEC, you can participate in exam sessions for Technician license exams. [97.509(b)(3)(i)]
G1D06: When must you add the special identifier “AG” after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its Web site?
A. Whenever you operate
A: You must add a “temporary identifier” to your call sign so that stations receiving your transmissions can verify that you are authorized to transmit on that frequency. If a temporary identifier was not used, between the time you pass your exam and the time at which your new privileges appear in the FCC data base, it would appear that you were transmitting on a frequency for which you were not authorized. When you upgrade to Extra class, you’ll append “temporary AE” to your call sign. [97.119(f)(2)]
G1D07: Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?
A. The Federal Communications Commission
B. The Universal Licensing System
C. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
D. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
C: A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator (VEC) organization is responsible for certifying Volunteer Examiners and evaluating the results of all exam sessions administered by them. VECs also process all of the license application paperwork and submit it to the FCC. [97.509(b)(1)]
G1D08: Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
A. The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
B. The person must hold an FCC-granted Amateur Radio license of Gen
B: A VE’s citizenship does not matter, only whether the individual has demonstrated adequate knowledge of the US Amateur Service rules by passing the appropriate license exams. [97.509(b)(3)]
G1D09: How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?
A. 30 days
B. 180 days
C. 365 days
D. For as long as your current license is valid
C: Although your new license class should appear in the FCC database within a few days of passing your examination, should there be a delay, remember that the CSCE is only good for 365 days. After that time, you’ll have to re-take the examination! [97.9(b)]
G1D10: What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner? A. 12 years B. 18 years C. 21 years D. There is no age limit
B: 18 years old was determined to be an appropriate age to properly manage an amateur examination session. [97.509(b)(2)]
G1E01: Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?
A. The third party’s amateur license had ever been revoked
B. The third party is not a U.S. citizen
C. The third party is a
A: Third-party communication is available to anyone except someone with a revoked amateur license from any country. This prevents someone whose ability to make use of Amateur Radio was taken away from regaining access to amateur frequencies under the guise of third party communications. [97.115(b)(2)]
G1E02: When may a 10 meter repeater retransmit the 2 meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?
A. Under no circumstances
B. Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing su
D: FCC rules allow any holder of an amateur license to be the control operator of a repeater. The control operator of the repeater must have privileges on the frequency on which the repeater is transmitting, however. A 10 meter repeater must have a General class or higher control operator because Technician and Novice licensees don’t have privileges on the 10 meter repeater band. A 10 meter repeater may retransmit the 2 meter signal from a Technician class operator because the 10 meter control operator holds at least a General class license. (Of course the operator transmitting to the repeater must have privileges on the frequency on which he or she is transmitting.)[97.205(a)]
G1E03: In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC-issued General Class license? A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Region 3 D. All three regions
B: Amateur allocations vary between the different ITU regions of the world. FCC Rule 97.301 contains a complete listing of allocations for U.S. hams. Parts (a) and (d) of that section contain the Region 2 frequency allocations that apply to General class amateurs operating from the US. [97.301(d)]
G1E04: Which of the following conditions require an Amateur Radio station licensee to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?
A. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
B. When using a band w
D: Aside from the general requirement to avoid causing harmful interference to other licensed stations and primary service licensees, there are several specific instances in which amateurs must take extra steps to avoid interference. FCC Monitoring Stations require an environment free of strong or spurious signals that can cause interference. The location of monitoring stations can be determined from a regional FCC office. Spread spectrum (SS) transmissions, because of their nature, have the potential to interfere with fixed frequency stations, so SS users should be sure their transmissions will not cause interference. [97.13(b), 97.311(b), 97.303]
G1E05: What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?
A. Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
B. Only messages for other licensed amateurs
C. Only messages relating to Amateu
C: The FCC and other licensing authorities want to be very sure that the Amateur Service is not abused to provide communications that should properly be conducted through commercial or government services. As a result, third-party communication is restricted to the types of messages in answer C. [97.115(a)(2), 97.117]
G1E06: Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?
A. The licensee of the non-coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
B. The licensee of
A: The FCC considers repeater frequency coordination to be “good engineering and amateur practice.” As such, amateurs are expected to use frequency coordination methods whenever the potential for interference exists. As a consequence, the burden of resolving interference between a coordinated and non-coordinated repeater system falls on the operator of the non-coordinated system. [97.205(c)]
G1E07: With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?
A. Countries in ITU Region 2
B. Countries in ITU Region 1
C. Every foreign country, unless t
C: The general rule is that third-party traffic with amateurs in any country outside the US is prohibited unless specifically permitted by a third-party agreement between the United States and that country. Don’t assume that it is permitted. Check Table G1-2 which lists countries having third-party agreements with the United States. If the country is not listed, you may not exchange third-party traffic with amateurs operating in that country. [97.115(a)(2)] {br/}{br/}{image src=’TableG1-2.png’}
G1E08: Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from an FCC-granted license at which a licensed control operator is present?
A. Information must be exchanged in English
B. Th
B: The non-licensed person is, by definition, a third-party and any messages you allow them to send or send on their behalf are third-party traffic. The non-licensed person can not have had an amateur license revoked as discussed in question G1E01. [97.115(a), 97.115(b)]
G1E09: What language must you use when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?
A. The language being used for the contact
B. Any language if the US has a third party agreement w
C: Identification by all US-licensed stations when using phone transmissions must be performed in English. [97.119(b)(2)]
G1E10: What portion of the 10 meter band is available for repeater use?
A. The entire band
B. The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
C. The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
D. The portion above 29.5 MHz
D: The only HF authorization for repeater stations is on the 10 meter band between 29.5 and 29.7 MHz. [97.205(b)]
G2A01: Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher? A. Upper sideband B. Lower sideband C. Vestigial sideband D. Double sideband
A: Single-sideband (SSB) modulation removes the carrier and one sideband from an AM signal to conserve spectrum and for improved power efficiency. Amateurs normally use the upper sideband for 20 meter phone operation. Whether the upper or lower sideband is used is strictly a matter of convention and not of regulation, except on 60 meters where USB is required. The convention to use the lower sideband on the bands below 9 MHz and the upper sideband on the higher-frequency bands developed from the design requirements of early SSB transmitters. Although modern amateur SSB equipment is more flexible, the convention persists. If everyone else on a particular band is using a certain sideband, you will need to use the same one in order to be able to communicate.
G2A02: Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160, 75, and 40 meter bands? A. Upper sideband B. Lower sideband C. Vestigial sideband D. Double sideband
B: Amateurs normally use the lower sideband for 160, 75 and 40 meter phone operation. Whether the upper or lower sideband is used is strictly a matter of convention, and not of regulation, except on 60 meters where USB is required. The convention to use the lower sideband on the bands below 9 MHz and the upper sideband on the higher-frequency bands developed from the design requirements of early SSB transmitters. Although modern amateur SSB equipment is more flexible, the convention persists. If everyone else on a particular band is using a certain sideband, you will need to use the same one in order to be able to communicate.
G2A03: Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands? A. Upper sideband B. Lower sideband C. Vestigial sideband D. Double sideband
A: Amateurs normally use the upper sideband for VHF and UHF phone operation. Whether the upper or lower sideband is used is strictly a matter of convention, and not of regulation, except on 60 meters where USB is required. The convention to use the lower sideband on the bands below 9 MHz and the upper sideband on the higher-frequency bands developed from the design requirements of early SSB transmitters. Although modern amateur SSB equipment is more flexible, the convention persists. If everyone else on a particular band is using a certain sideband, you will need to use the same one in order to be able to communicate.
G2A04: Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17 and 12 meter bands? A. Upper sideband B. Lower sideband C. Vestigial sideband D. Double sideband
A: Amateurs normally use the upper sideband for 17 and 12 meter phone operation. Whether the upper or lower sideband is used is strictly a matter of convention, and not of regulation, except on 60 meters where USB is required. The convention to use the lower sideband on the bands below 9 MHz and the upper sideband on the higher-frequency bands developed from the design requirements of early SSB transmitters. Although modern amateur SSB equipment is more flexible, the convention persists. If everyone else on a particular band is using a certain sideband, you will need to use the same one in order to be able to communicate.
G2A05: Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the high frequency amateur bands? A. Frequency modulation B. Double sideband C. Single sideband D. Phase modulation
C: Most amateurs who use voice communications on the high frequency bands use single sideband (SSB) voice. There are some operators who prefer the high-fidelity audio of double-sideband full-carrier amplitude modulation (AM). AM requires more than twice the bandwidth of an SSB signal, however. There is also some frequency modulated (FM) and phase modulated (PM) voice operation on the 10 meter band, but that mode also requires a much wider bandwidth than SSB. Some amateurs are beginning to experiment with digitally encoded voice communications, but SSB is the most common HF voice mode.
G2A06: Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?
A. Very high fidelity voice modulation
B. Less bandwidth used and higher power efficiency
C. Ease of tuning on
B: Single sideband (SSB) voice communication is used much more frequently than other voice modes on the HF bands because it uses less spectrum space. The RF carrier is not transmitted with an SSB signal. That means SSB transmissions are more power efficient, since the full transmitter power can be used to transmit the one sideband rather than being divided between the two sidebands and the carrier as it would be for AM.
G2A07: Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband (SSB) voice mode?
A. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are su
B: Single sideband (SSB) voice transmissions are identified by which sideband is used. If the sideband with a frequency lower than the RF carrier frequency is used, then the signal is known as a lower sideband (LSB) transmission. If the sideband with a frequency higher than the RF carrier frequency is used, then the signal is known as an upper sideband (USB) transmission. In both cases the opposite sideband is suppressed. Amateurs normally use lower sideband on the 160, 75/80 and 40 meter bands, and upper sideband on the 20, 17, 15, 12 and 10 meter bands. This is not a requirement of the FCC Rules in Part 97, though. It is simply by common agreement. FCC Rules do, however, require amateurs to use USB on the five channels of the 60 meter band.
G2A08: Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?
A. Say “QRZ” several times followed by your call sign
B. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations
C. Say “Break, Break, Break” and wait for a response
D. Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
B: To break into a conversation, you will have to wait until both stations are listening so that your signal will be heard. In order that your transmissions be identified during this brief period, simply state your call sign. No “over” or “break” is required, nor do you have to give either of the transmitting station’s call signs.
G2A09: Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160, 75 and 40 meter bands?
A. Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B. Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
C. Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D. Current Amateur practice is to use the lower sideband on these frequency bands
D: Whether the upper or lower sideband is used is strictly a matter of convention, and not of regulation, except on 60 meters where USB is required. The convention to use the lower sideband on the bands below 9 MHz and the upper sideband on the higher-frequency bands developed from the design requirements of early SSB transmitters. Although modern amateur SSB equipment is more flexible, the convention persists. If everyone else on a particular band is using a certain sideband, you will need to use the same one in order to be able to communicate.
G2A10: Which of the following statements is true of SSB VOX operation?
A. The received signal is more natural sounding
B. VOX allows “hands free” operation
C. Frequency spectrum is conserved
D. Provides more power output
B: The purpose of a voice operated transmit (VOX) circuit is to provide automatic transmit/receive (TR) switching within an amateur station. By simply speaking into the microphone, the antenna is connected to transmitter, the receiver is muted and the transmitter is activated. When you stop speaking, the VOX circuit switches everything back to receive. Using VOX allows hands-free operation.
G2A11: What does the expression “CQ DX” usually indicate?
A. A general call for any station
B. The caller is listening for a station in Germany
C. The caller is looking for any station outside their own country
D. A distress call
C: DX means “distant stations” in ham jargon, so combining CQ which means “I am calling any station” with DX means “I am calling any distant station.” You may also hear stations making targeted calls by combining CQ with some other description, such as “CQ mobile stations” or “CQ California.” It is polite to avoid responding if you are not of the type of station being called.
G2B01: Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?
A. Nets always have priority
B. QSO’s in process always have priority
C. No one has priority access to frequencies, common courtesy should be a guide
D. Contest operations must
C: Except when the FCC has declared there to be a communications emergency and designated specific frequencies for emergency communications, no single or group of amateurs has priority on any amateur frequency. Good operating practice is to use the flexibility of the amateur service to avoid interference and minimize any interference from your operation.
G2B02: What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?
A. Continue your communication because you were on frequency first
B. Acknowledge the station in distress and d
B: Whenever you hear a station in distress (where there is immediate threat to human life or property), you should take whatever action is necessary to determine what assistance that station needs and attempt to provide it. Don’t assume that some other station will handle the emergency; you may be the only station receiving the distress signal. If you do hear a station in distress, the first thing you should do is to acknowledge that you heard the station, and then ask the operator where they are located and what assistance they need.
G2B03: If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?
A. Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
B. Report the interference to your local Amate
C: Good operating practice suggests that whoever can most easily resolve an interference problem be the one to do so. If you begin to have interference from other activity on the same frequency, moving your contact to another frequency may be the simplest thing to do. Switching antennas or rotating a beam antenna may also achieve the same results.
G2B04: When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation should you allow in order to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies? A. 5 to 50 Hz B. 150 to 500 Hz C. 1 to 3 kHz D. 3 to 6 kHz
B: The more bandwidth occupied by a signal, the more frequency separation you will need from a contact currently in progress to avoid interference. CW emissions require the least bandwidth and need the least frequency separation. Most radios use narrow filters for CW reception, so you should be able to select an operating frequency within about 150 to 500 Hz from another CW station without causing interference.
G2B05: What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions? A. Between 150 and 500 Hz B. Approximately 3 kHz C. Approximately 6 kHz D. Approximately 10 kHz
B: The more bandwidth occupied by a signal, the more frequency separation you will need from a contact currently in progress to avoid interference. Single-sideband (SSB) signals require considerably more bandwidth than CW and therefore much more frequency separation between contacts. You will need approximately 3 kHz of separation from another contact under normal conditions to avoid causing interference.
G2B06: What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when selecting a frequency to call CQ on CW or phone?
A. Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
B. List
A: After listening for a short period of time, if you do not hear another station transmitting on the frequency, it is good practice to make a short transmission asking if the frequency is in use. It may be that due to propagation you are unable to hear the transmitting station, but the listening station can hear you. On CQ, the Q-signal “QRL?”, and on phone, “Is the frequency in use?” followed by your call sign give the opportunity for another station to respond.
G2B07: Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?
A. Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
B. Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 t
C: Under normal conditions, following the voluntary band plan in Table G2B07 is a good way to choose a frequency compatible with your planned type of operating. Very crowded bands or special operating events require that you be flexible in your frequency choices. {br/}{br/}{image src=’TabG2B07.png’}
G2B08: What is the “DX window” in a voluntary band plan?
A. A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
B. An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United St
A: Outside the United States, particularly in ITU Regions 1 and 3, amateurs share the 160 and 80 meter band with government and commercial stations. They may have very limited allocations, as well. The DX window is a section of the band where these stations may be contacted without their having to compete with stronger domestic signals. DX windows are also generally used only for contacts with stations outside the contiguous United States and Canada.
G2B09: Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?
A. Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
B. Only a RACES net control operator
C. A person holdin
A: The control operator of a RACES station must have an FCC-issued amateur operator license and be certified by a civil defense organization as a member. [97.407(a)]
G2B10: When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?
A. When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency
B. When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
C. Only w
D: If the War Emergency Powers have been activated, RACES stations are restricted to operations in the frequency ranges listed in §97.407(b). [97.407(b)]
G2B11: What frequency should be used to send a distress call?
A. Whatever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
B. Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
C. Only frequencies that are within your operatin
A: When normal communications are not available and the immediate safety of human life or protection of property is involved, all of the normal rules for an amateur station are suspended so that you can obtain assistance. This means that any method of communication, on any frequency, and at any power output, may be used to communicate and resolve the emergency. It doesn’t matter if the distress is personal to the station or a general disaster. Just be sure you have a real emergency![97.405]
G2B12: When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?
A. Only when transmitting in RACES
B. At any time when transmitting in an organized net
C. At any time during an actual emergency
D.
C: No FCC rule prevents an amateur station from using any means of radiocommunications at its disposal to assist a station in distress. [97.405(b)]
G2C01: Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?
A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
B. Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switc
D: Full break-in telegraphy allows you to receive signals between your transmitted Morse code dots and dashes and between words. The advantage is that if you are sending a long message, the receiving station can send back to you (break in) and stop you for repeats of missed words. QSK is the Q signal used to describe this type of operation.
G2C02: What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"? A. Send slower B. Change frequency C. Increase your power D. Repeat everything twice
A: QRS is the Q-signal that means “Send slower”. To ask if you should send slower, send QRS? Conversely, to increase speed, QRQ is used.
G2C03: What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?
A. Listening for novice stations
B. Operating full break-in
C. Listening only for a specific station or stations
D. Closing station now
C: KN is an example of a CW prosign, procedural signals that help coordinate the exchange of messages and the beginning and ending of transmissions. The patterns of dots and dashes that make up prosigns are described by a pair of regular letters that, if sent together without a pause, are equivalent to the prosign. (Prosigns are often written with a line over the letters to indicate they are sent with no spaces between them as a single character.)
G2C04: What does it mean when a CW operator sends “CL” at the end of a transmission?
A. Keep frequency clear
B. Operating full break-in
C. Listening only for a specific station or stations
D. Closing station
D: CL is an example of a CW prosign, procedural signals that help coordinate the exchange of messages and the beginning and ending of transmissions. The patterns of dots and dashes that make up prosigns are described by a pair of regular letters that, if sent together without a pause, are equivalent to the prosign. (Prosigns are often written with a line over the letters to indicate they are sent with no spaces between them as a single character.)
G2C05: What is the best speed to use answering a CQ in Morse Code?
A. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
B. The speed at which the CQ was sent
C. A slow speed until contact is established
D. 5 wpm, as all operators licensed to
B: An operator calling CQ is assumed to be sending at a speed at which he or she feels comfortable receiving. Responding at a significantly higher speed is impolite and may be embarrassing to the other operator if they are unable to copy your response. If you are uncomfortable responding at the sending station’s speed, send at the highest rate at which you are comfortable receiving. It is good practice to respond to calling stations at their sending speed, if it is significantly slower.
G2C06: What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?
A. Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
C. Sending without error
D. Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a
D: Zero beat means to match the frequency of the transmitting station. When separate receivers and transmitters were the norm, a transmitter’s frequency had to be adjusted to match the received signal’s frequency. This was done by spotting – turning on the transmitter’s low power stages and listening for that signal in the receiver. When the beat frequency between the desired signal and the transmitter’s spotting signal reached zero frequency or zero beat, the transmitter signal and the received signal were on matching frequencies.
G2C07: When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?
A. Chirpy or unstable signal
B. Report was read from S meter reading rather than estimated
C. 100 percent copy
D. Key clicks
A: An RST with “C” appended, such as 579C, indicates that the signal is being received with chirp, a short frequency shift as the transmitter stabilizes after keying. It’s a very distinctive sound and is caused by the transmitter’s oscillator changing frequency when the key is closed. This can be due to oscillator circuit design or poor regulation of the transmitter power supply.
G2C08: What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW? A. SK B. BK C. AR D. KN
C: The ARRL National Traffic System has established specific procedures for passing formal written messages by Amateur Radio. Even if you don’t participate in traffic nets, it is a good idea to be familiar with the procedures for handling such messages. It can be especially helpful in an emergency for a number of reasons. By following the standard procedures it is more likely that an emergency message will be transmitted (and received) correctly. When sending formal messages using Morse code (CW), you send the message preamble, the address, message body and signature. To indicate that this is the end of the message, send the CW procedural signal (prosign) “AR” to show clearly that all the information has been sent. When the receiving station has accurately recorded the entire message, they will acknowledge receipt of the message by sending “QSL” or simply “R” for “received.”
G2C09: What does the Q signal "QSL" mean? A. Send slower B. We have already confirmed by card C. I acknowledge receipt D. We have worked before
C: QSL is the Q-signal that means “I acknowledge receipt”. Informally, it is often used to indicate that a transmission was received and understood. QSL cards are exchanged to confirm that a contact was made.
G2C10: What does the Q signal "QRQ" mean? A. Slow down B. Send faster C. Zero beat my signal D. Quitting operation
B: QRQ is the Q-signal that means “Send faster.” To ask if you should send faster, send QRQ? Conversely, to decrease speed, QRS is used.
G2C11: What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?
A. You are sending too fast
B. There is interference on the frequency
C. I am quitting for the day
D. I am ready to receive messages
D: QRV is the Q-signal that means “I am ready to copy” and indicates that the station with the message may begin transmitting. QRV is used whether the message is formal traffic or just regular conversation.
G2D01: What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?
A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequenc
A: The purpose of the Amateur Auxiliary is to help ensure amateur self-regulation and see that amateurs follow the FCC rules properly. The Amateur Auxiliary volunteers deal only with amateur-to-amateur interference and improper operation. The other answer choices describe other Amateur Radio activities. Amateur volunteers who conduct licensing examinations are called Volunteer Examiners (VEs). Amateurs in charge of frequency coordination for repeaters are called Frequency Coordinators. Amateurs who help civil defense organizations in times of emergency are members of the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES).
G2D02: What of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?
A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
B. To encourage amateur self regulation and compliance with the rules
C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient an
B: The purpose of the Amateur Auxiliary is to help ensure amateur self-regulation and see that amateurs follow the FCC rules properly. The Amateur Auxiliary volunteers deal only with amateur-to-amateur interference and improper operation. The other answer choices describe other Amateur Radio activities. Amateur volunteers who conduct licensing examinations are called Volunteer Examiners (VEs). Amateurs in charge of frequency coordination for repeaters are called Frequency Coordinators. Amateurs who help civil defense organizations in times of emergency are members of the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES). Many amateurs also volunteer to help provide emergency and public safety communications as members of ARRL’s Amateur Radio Emergency Service (ARES).
G2D03: What skills learned during “hidden transmitter hunts” are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?
A. Identification of out of band operation
B. Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
C. Identification of different call signs
B: Friendly competitions to locate hidden transmitters, sometimes called “fox hunts” or “bunny hunts”, allow participants to practice their radio direction-finding skills which are useful in locating harmful interference sources. The Amateur Auxiliary can use “Fox Hunters” to document interference cases and report them to the proper enforcement bureau. Fox hunts also make everyone aware that there is a plan in place to find and eliminate an interference source.
G2D04: Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?
A. A world map that shows accurate land masses
B. A world map projection centered on a particular location
C. A world map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses
B: An azimuthal map, or azimuthal-equidistant projection map, is also called a great circle map. When this type of map is centered on your location, a straight line is equivalent to stretching a string between two points on a globe, and will give you the shortest distance between two points. This type of map is used for determining the direction to point your antenna for short-path communications. (A compass bearing 180 degrees different from the short-path direction will indicate the direction to point your antenna for long-path communications.) {br/}{br/}{image src=’Fig G2-01.png’}
G2D05: When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?
A. Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC
B. When the
B: U.S. amateurs are permitted to contact amateurs in any other country. There have been a very few instances in which a government has prohibited contact between its amateurs and those of a particular country. [97.111(a)(1)]
G2D06: How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?
A. Toward the rising Sun
B. Along the gray line
C. 180 degrees from its short-path heading
D. Toward the north
C: The shortest direct route, or great-circle path between two points, is called the short-path. If a directional antenna is pointed in exactly the opposite direction, 180 degrees different from the short-path direction, communications can be attempted on the long-path. Long-path communication may be available when the more direct short path is closed. Because of the higher number of hops required, long path often works best when the path is across the ocean, a good reflector of HF signals. {br/}{br/}{image src=’Fig G2-02.png’}
G2D07: Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60 meter band?
A. If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
B. You must keep a log of the date, time, frequency, po
A: The FCC Rules for operating on the amateur 60 meter band are quite different from the rules for any other amateur band. One significant difference is the requirement to transmit with no more than 50 watts effective radiated power (ERP). ERP is a measurement of power as compared to that radiated from a dipole. If you are using a half-wavelength dipole antenna, you can use up to 50 W PEP from your transmitter on that band. If you are using an antenna that has some gain compared to a dipole, then you will have to reduce your transmitter power accordingly. If the antenna has a gain of 3 dBd (3 dB compared to a dipole) then you would have to reduce transmitter power by half (to 25 W PEP). The FCC requires you to keep a record of your antenna gain, if it is more than a dipole. This record can either be from the manufacturer’s data, from calculations of the gain or from gain measurements. [97.303(s)]
G2D08: Why do many amateurs keep a log even though the FCC doesn’t require it?
A. The ITU requires a log of all international contacts
B. The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic
C. The log provides evidence of operation neede
D: While useful, the FCC does not require you to keep a record (log) of your transmissions. It can be fun to keep a log, though, and then look back years later at the contacts you made. A log can also help document when your station was on the air and who was the control operator. You must give permission before a visiting amateur may operate your station. If you designate another amateur to be the control operator of your station, you both share the responsibility for the proper operation of the station. Unless your station records (log) show otherwise, the FCC will assume you were the control operator any time your station was operated as stated in FCC rule 97.103(b).
G2D09: What information is traditionally contained in a station log?
A. Date and time of contact
B. Band and/or frequency of the contact
C. Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
D. All of these choices are correct
D: You can keep any information in your log that you would like to remember later. At a minimum, most amateurs keep a record of the date and time of each contact as well as the frequency or band of the contact. The station call sign, mode, and the RST signal report given and received are also normally recorded. Many amateurs also record the name of the other operator as well as his or her location.
G2D10: What is QRP operation? A. Remote piloted model control B. Low power transmit operation C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol D. Traffic relay procedure net operation
B: QRP is a Q signal that means “lower your transmitter power.” Many amateurs enjoy using low power levels for the challenge, the relative simplicity of the equipment, and sometimes to reduce interference. The generally accepted level for “QRP” power is 5 watts of transmitter output on CW and 10 W PEP output on phone.
G2D11: Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference? A. A quarter wave vertical antenna B. An isotropic antenna C. A unidirectional antenna D. An omnidirectional antenna
C: Most of the time we think about using a beam antenna to send more of our transmitted power toward the desired station. A beam antenna can also be an effective tool for fighting received interference. For example, you might be having a conversation with another amateur but a strong signal from another station on a nearby frequency is causing a bit of interference. With a beam antenna you might be able to turn the antenna so the interfering station is off the side or back of your antenna. In that case the antenna will not receive as strong a signal from the interfering station. Ideally, you would have an antenna that sends and receives signals in only one direction, rejecting signals in all other directions. This is called a unidirectional antenna. Most Yagi antennas send and receive some signal off the back and sides of the antenna but it is significantly less than the amount that is sent and received from the front.
G2E01: Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter? A. USB B. DSB C. CW D. LSB
D: Lower sideband (LSB) is used by convention for RTTY signals on all bands. There is no technical reason why LSB is preferred over USB for RTTY signals.
G2E02: How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character? A. The number varies B. 5 C. 7 D. 8
A: One of the interesting properties of the PSK31 radioteletype mode is that it uses a character code called Varicode. Developed by Peter Martinez, G3PLX, Varicode uses shorter character lengths for the more common characters and longer codes for less common characters. (Morse code also uses variable length characters.) Thus, the number of data bits per character depends on which character is being sent. This is quite different from other digital modes that use fixed-length codes. For example, all RTTY Baudot code characters have five data bits.
G2E03: What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information? A. Directory B. Preamble C. Header D. Footer
C: Packet radio gets its name from the concept of breaking the information to be transmitted into small pieces, called packets. Each packet can be transmitted and make its way through the network independently. The entire message is then reassembled at the receiving station. Each packet begins with a header that contains several sets (fields) of information about the packet. The address field of the header contains information about the station for which the message is intended, the sending station and possibly specific relay stations. A control field contains information about the type of data being sent. A frame number allows the receiving station reassemble the entire message in order. The data field of the packet contains the actual data being sent. After the data field there is a frame check sequence (FCS) or cyclic redundancy check (CRC) field that is used for error detection.
G2E04: What segment of the 20 meter band is most often used for data transmissions? A. 14.000 - 14.050 MHz B. 14.070 - 14.100 MHz C. 14.150 - 14.225 MHz D. 14.275 - 14.350 MHz
B: The FCC’s rules specify where RTTY and data transmissions allowed, but the band plans tell you where such signals are usually found. The band plan in Table G2E04 calls for RTTY and data operation from 14.070 to 14.100 MHz on 20 meters. {br/}{br/}{image src=’Table G2E04.png’}
G2E05: Which of the following describes Baudot code?
A. A 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits
B. A code using error detection and correction
C. A 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits
D. A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
C: The Baudot code used for radioteletype (RTTY) has five data bits per character. This means there are only 32 possible character combinations. The code only transmits upper case letters. “LTRS” and “FIGS” characters select the alphabet table or a numbers and punctuation table to provide additional characters. RTTY is an asynchronous communications mode, so each character must also include a start and a stop bit.
G2E06: What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands? A. 85 Hz B. 170 Hz C. 425 Hz D. 850 Hz
B: RTTY operation on the HF bands uses frequency-shift keying (FSK) to convey the information. The transmitted signal shifts between two frequencies, called the MARK and SPACE frequencies. The two frequencies used are normally 170 Hz apart for HF communications.
G2E07: What does the abbreviation “RTTY” stand for?
A. Returning to you
B. Radioteletype
C. A general call to all digital stations
D. Repeater transmission type
B: RTTY stands for radioteletype. The FCC’s name for RTTY emissions is narrow-band, direct printing telegraphy.
G2E08: What segment of the 80 meter band is most commonly used for data transmissions? A. 3570 – 3600 kHz B. 3500 – 3525 kHz C. 3700 – 3750 kHz D. 3775 – 3825 kHz
A: The FCC’s rules specify where RTTY and data transmissions allowed, but the band plans tell you where such signals are usually found. Table G2E04 gives the band plan calls for RTTY operation as from 3570 to 3600 kHz on 80 meters. {br/}{br/}{image src=’Table G2E04.png’}
G2E09: In what segment of the 20 meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?
A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
B. At the top of the SSB phone segment near 14.325 MHz
C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.10
D: PSK signals are generally found in the vicinity of 14.070 MHz on the 20 meter band at the bottom of the RTTY area listed in Table G2E04. {br/}{br/}{image src=’Table G2E04.png’}
G2E10: What is a major advantage of MFSK16 compared to other digital modes?
A. It is much higher speed than RTTY
B. It is much narrower bandwidth than most digital modes
C. It has built-in error correction
D. It offers good performance in weak sig
D: MFSK16 stands for Multi-Frequency Shift Keying with 16 different tones being transmitted. On the air, an MFSK16 signals sounds like a set of whistles all being played simultaneously in a narrow bandwidth. By carefully shaping the signal and controlling how the tones are turned on and off, MFSK16 modulation is able to better withstand the fading and distortion associated with sky-wave signals.
G2E11: What does the abbreviation “MFSK” stand for?
A. Manual Frequency Shift Keying
B. Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Shift Keying
C. Manual Frequency Sideband Keying
D. Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Sideband Keying
B: MFSK16 stands for Multi-Frequency Shift Keying with 16 different tones being transmitted. On the air, an MFSK16 signals sounds like a set of whistles all being played simultaneously in a narrow bandwidth. By carefully shaping the signal and controlling how the tones are turned on and off, MFSK16 modulation is able to better withstand the fading and distortion associated with sky-wave signals.
G2E12: How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?
A. Terminates the contact
B. Requests the packet be retransmitted
C. Sends the packet back to the transmitting station
D. Requests a change in transmitting
B: ARQ stands for Automatic Repeat Request. In an ARQ digital mode, if a transmitted packet is received with errors, the receiving station may request a re-transmission of the packet automatically.
G2E13: In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?
A. The receiver is requesting the packet be re-transmitted
B. The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
C. The receiver is busy decoding t
A: PACTOR is an ARQ (Automatic Repeat Request) digital mode in which the receiving station sends a response to the transmitting station indicating whether the data was received correctly or not. An ACK (Acknowledge) response means the data was received correctly. A NAK (Not Acknowledge) response means that errors were detected in the received data.
G3A01: What is the sunspot number?
A. A measure of solar activity based on counting sunspots and sunspot groups
B. A 3 digit identifier which is used to track individual sunspots
C. A measure of the radio flux from the Sun measured at 10.7 cm
D. A
A: A number of observatories around the world measure solar activity. A weighted average of this data is used to determine the International Sunspot Number (ISN) for each day. These daily sunspot counts are used to produce monthly and yearly average values. The average values are used to see trends and patterns in the measurements. {br/}{br/}{image src=’Fig G3-02.png’}
G3A02: What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?
A. It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
B. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
B: A sudden ionospheric disturbance (SID) is often the result of solar flares that release large amounts of radiation. Ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from the Sun travels at the speed of light, reaching the Earth in about eight minutes. When this radiation reaches the Earth, the level of ionization in the ionosphere increases rapidly. This causes D-layer absorption of radio waves to increase significantly. Absorption of radio signals in the D-layer is always stronger at lower frequencies, affecting lower frequency signals more than higher frequency signals. {br/}{br/}{image src=’Fig G3-02.png’}
G3A03: Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth? A. 28 days B. 1 to 2 hours C. 8 minutes D. 20 to 40 hours
C: Ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from the Sun travels at the speed of light, reaching the Earth in about eight minutes.
G3A04: Which of the following amateur radio HF frequencies are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar activity? A. 3.5 MHz and lower B. 7 MHz C. 10 MHz D. 21 MHz and higher
D: The higher the frequency, the more ionization is needed in the ionosphere in order to refract (bend) the radio signal back to the Earth. When solar activity is low, the higher frequencies will pass through the ionosphere into space instead of being refracted back to Earth. During periods of low solar activity, the 15 meter (21 MHz), 12 meter (24.9 MHz) and 10 meter (28 MHz) bands are the least reliable HF bands for long distance communication.
G3A05: What is the solar-flux index?
A. A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth
B. A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions
C. Another name for the American sunspo
D: Solar flux is the radio energy coming from the Sun. High levels of solar energy produce greater ionization in the ionosphere. The solar flux measurement is taken daily by measuring radio energy from the Sun at 2800 MHz which is a wavelength of 10.7 cm. The measurement is then converted into the solar flux index. Higher values of the solar flux index correspond to higher values of solar flux. The solar-flux measurement may be taken under any weather conditions–the Sun does not have to be visible, as for determining the sunspot number. The radio energy measurement is converted to an open-ended numeric index with a minimum value of 65 (for the minimum amount of energy). Higher values of the solar flux index indicate higher levels of solar activity.
G3A06: What is a geomagnetic storm?
A. A sudden drop in the solar-flux index
B. A thunderstorm which affects radio propagation
C. Ripples in the ionosphere
D. A temporary disturbance in the Earth’s magnetosphere
D: Geomagnetic disturbances result when charged particles from a solar flare reach the Earth. When these charged particles reach the Earth’s magnetic field, they are deflected toward the North and South poles. Radio communications along higher-latitude paths (latitudes greater than about 45 degrees) will be more affected than paths closer to the equator. The charged particles from the Sun may make the F-region seem to disappear or seem to split into many layers, degrading or completely blacking out long-distance radio communications.
G3A07: At what point in the solar cycle does the 20 meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
A. At the summer solstice
B. Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
C. Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
D
D: Even at the minimum point of the solar cycle, world-wide propagation is usually possible on the 20 meter band. As solar activity increases, the band will remain open for longer periods and with stronger signal strengths. For this reason, 20 meters is a favorite band for “DXers”.
G3A08: Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio-wave propagation?
A. Improved high-latitude HF propagation
B. Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
C. Improved ground-wave propagation
D. Improved chances of UHF ducting
B: Geomagnetic disturbances result when charged particles from a solar flare reach the Earth. When these charged particles reach the Earth’s magnetic field, they are deflected toward the North and South poles. Radio communications along higher-latitude paths (latitudes greater than about 45 degrees) will be more affected than paths closer to the equator. The charged particles from the Sun may make the F-region seem to disappear or seem to split into many layers, degrading or completely blacking out long-distance radio communications.
G3A09: What effect do high sunspot numbers have on radio communications?
A. High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
B. Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication
C. Long-distance communication in the upper
C: When sunspot numbers are high, there is a significant amount of solar activity and there will be more ionization of the ionosphere. The more the ionosphere is ionized, the higher the frequency of radio signals that may be used for long-distance communication. During the peak of a sunspot cycle, the 20 meter (14 MHz) band will be open around the world even through the night. During an unusually good sunspot cycle, even the 6 meter (50 MHz) band can become usable for long-distance communication.
G3A10: What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28-day cycle?
A. Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
B. Cyclic variation in the Earth’s radiation belts
C. The Sun’s rotation on its axis
D. The position of the Moon
C: It takes approximately 28 days for the Sun to rotate on its axis. Since active areas on the Sun may persist for more than one rotation, you can expect good propagation conditions to recur approximately every 28 days.
G3A11: Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle? A. 8 minutes B. 40 hours C. 28 days D. 11 years
D: The internal dynamics of the Sun cause its activity to vary in a cycle lasting approximately 11 years. Sunspots are one indication of solar activity and since they were the earliest phenomenon observed on the Sun, the cycle is called the sunspot cycle.
G3A12: What does the K-index indicate?
A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B. The short term stability of the Earth’s magnetic field
C. The stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colora
B: The K-index represents readings of the Earth’s geomagnetic field, updated every three hours at Boulder, Colorado. K-index values indicate the stability of the Earth’s geomagnetic field. Steady values indicate a stable geomagnetic field, while rising values indicate an active geomagnetic field. The K-index trends are important indicators of changing propagation conditions. Rising K-index values are generally bad news for HF propagation, especially for propagation paths involving latitudes above 30° north. Values of 4 and rising warn of conditions associated with auroras and degraded HF propagation.
G3A13: What does the A-index indicate?
A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
B. The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
C. The long term stability of the Earth’s geomagnetic field
D. The solar radio flux at
C: The A-index is a daily figure for the state of activity of the Earth’s magnetic field. The A-index tells you mainly about yesterday’s conditions, but it is very revealing when charted regularly, because geomagnetic disturbances nearly always recur at four-week intervals. (It takes the Sun 28 days to rotate once on its axis.)
G3A14: How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes? A. HF communications are improved B. HF communications are disturbed C. VHF/UHF ducting is improved D. VHF/UHF ducting is
B: The corona is the Sun’s outer layer. Temperatures in the corona are typically about two million degrees Celsius, but can be more than four million degrees Celsius above an active sunspot region. A coronal hole is an area of somewhat lower temperature. Matter ejected through such a “hole” is in the form of plasma, a highly ionized gas made up of electrons, protons and neutral particles. The plasma travels at speeds up to two million miles per hour, and if the “jet” of material is directed toward the Earth it can result in a geomagnetic storm on Earth, disrupting HF communications.
G3A15: How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth? A. 28 days B. 14 days C. 4 to 8 minutes D. 20 to 40 hours
D: The corona is the Sun’s outer layer. Temperatures in the corona are typically about two million degrees Celsius, but can be more than four million degrees Celsius above an active sunspot region. Matter ejected from the corona is in the form of plasma, a highly ionized gas made up of electrons, protons and neutral particles. The plasma travels at speeds of two million miles per hour or more, so it can take about 20 to 40 hours for the plasma to travel the 93 million miles to Earth.
G3A16: What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?
A. Aurora that can reflect VHF signals
B. Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
C. Improved HF long path
A: When the plasma, or charged particles, from a coronal mass ejection reaches the Earth it interacts with the Earth’s magnetic field. The charged particles follow magnetic field lines into the Earth’s atmosphere near the North and South magnetic poles, producing visible aurora borealis at northern latitudes and aurora australis in the south. VHF operators look forward to such conditions because radio signals can be reflected from auroral “patches,” making long-distance contacts possible.
G3B01: How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?
A. Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
B. Signal strength increased by 3 dB
C. The signal might be cancelled causing sev
D: Normally, you will expect radio signals to arrive at your station by following the shortest possible path between you and the transmitting station. This is called short-path propagation. Signals that might have arrived from the opposite direction, 180 degrees different from the short-path signals are normally so weak that you would probably not hear them. Signals that arrive 180 degrees from the short path are called long-path signals. When propagation conditions are suitable, the long-path signals may be strong enough to support communication. In fact, there are times when the long-path propagation may be even better than the short-path propagation. Stations with directional antennas can point their antennas directly away from each other to communicate. (This is not simply communicating using signal radiated “off the back” of the antennas.) If you are listening to signals on your receiver and you hear a well-defined echo, even if it is a weak echo, the chances are you are hearing signals arrive at your station over the long path. The slightly longer time it takes the signals to travel the longer distance around the Earth results in a slight delay when compared to the direct, short-path signals. This is a good indication that you may be able to point your antenna directly away from the received station to communicate.
G3B02: Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6 meter band?
A. Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10 meter band
B. Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10 meter band
C. Severe attenuation of
A: As the maximum usable frequency (MUF) for a given path increases, the ionosphere also supports shorter single-hop distance at lower frequencies. Suppose you are operating on the 10 meter band, and are contacting stations that are 800 to 1000 miles away. After making a few more contacts you start to notice that you are contacting stations only about 500 miles away, and then you notice that you are contacting stations even closer, perhaps only out to a few hundred miles. This can be an excellent indication that the MUF for the longer-path stations has moved up to a higher frequency, perhaps even above 50 MHz. It is a good time to check for a band opening on 6 meters!
G3B03: Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?
A. Select a frequency just below the MUF
B. Select a frequency just above the LUF
C. Select a frequency just below the critical frequenc
A: Ionospheric absorption (attenuation) is lowest just below the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF), the highest frequency that will allow the radio wave to reach its desired destination using E or F-region propagation. Use a frequency just below the MUF for the highest received signal strength.
G3B04: What is a reliable way to determine if the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?
A. Listen for signals from an international bea
A: Beacon stations transmit signals so that amateur operators can evaluate propagation conditions. By listening for beacon stations from Western Europe, you will be able to determine if the MUF is high enough for 10 meter communications to that area.
G3B05: What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) and above the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF) when they are sent into the ionosphere?
A. They are bent back to the Earth
B. They pass through the ionosp
A: The Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) and Lowest Useable Freuqency (LUF) relate to a particular desired destination. The MUF is the highest frequency that will allow the radio wave to reach its desired destination using E or F-region propagation. The LUF is the lowest frequency at which ionospheric absorption is low enough to allow a signal to reach the desired destination. There is no single MUF or LUF for a given transmitter location; it will vary depending on the direction and distance to the station you are attempting to contact. Signals with frequencies above the LUF and lower than the MUF are generally bent back to Earth and at frequencies higher than the MUF will pass through the ionosphere instead of being bent back to the Earth. {br/}{br/}{image src=’Fig G3-03.png’}
G3B06: What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF)?
A. They are bent back to the Earth
B. They pass through the ionosphere
C. They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
D. They are bent and trap
C: The Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF) is the frequency below which ionospheric absorption attenuates the radio signals to below the atmospheric noise levels. Since absorption increases with decreasing frequency, signals at frequencies below the LUF can not be received via sky-wave communication.
G3B07: What does LUF stand for?
A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B. The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
C. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D. The Longest Univ
A: The Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF) is the frequency below which ionospheric absorption attenuates the radio signals to below the atmospheric noise levels. Since absorption increases with decreasing frequency, signals at frequencies below the LUF can not be received via sky-wave communication.
G3B08: What does MUF stand for?
A. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D. The Maximum Usab
B: The Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) relates to a particular desired destination. The MUF is the highest frequency that will allow the radio wave to reach its desired destination using E or F-region propagation. There is no single MUF for a given transmitter location; it will vary depending on the direction and distance to the station you are attempting to contact. Signals with frequencies lower than the MUF are generally bent back to Earth and at higher than the MUF will pass through the ionosphere instead of being bent back to the Earth.
G3B09: What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region? A. 180 miles B. 1,200 miles C C. 2,500 miles D. 12,000 miles
C: Layers in the F region form and decay in correlation with the daily passage of the sun. The F1 and F2 layers form when the F region splits into two parts due to high radiation from the Sun, recombining into a single F layer at night. The more solar radiation the F region receives, the more it is ionized so it reaches maximum ionization shortly after noon during the summertime. The ionization tapers off very gradually towards sunset and the F2 layer remains usable into the night. The F2 region is the highest of the ionosphere, reaching as high as 300 miles at noon in the summertime. Because it is the highest, it is the region mainly responsible for long-distance communications. A one-hop transmission can travel a maximum distance of about 2,500 miles using F2 propagation. {br/}{br/}{image src=’Fig G3-04.png’}
G3B10: What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region? A. 180 miles B. 1,200 miles C. 2,500 miles D. 12,000 miles
B: The E region of the ionosphere is the second lowest, just above the D region. The E layer forms at an altitude of about 70 miles above the Earth. The E region ionizes during the daytime, but does not stay ionized very long after sunset. Ionization in the E region is at a maximum around midday. During the daytime, a radio signal can travel a maximum distance of about 1,200 miles in one hop using E-region propagation. {br/}{br/}{image src=’Fig G3-04.png’}
G3B11: What happens to HF propagation when the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF) exceeds the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)?
A. No HF radio frequency will support ordinary skywave communications over the path
B. HF communications over the path are enhance
A: Signals at frequencies below the LUF will be absorbed in the ionosphere rather than returning to Earth. Occasionally the LUF may be higher than the maximum usable frequency (MUF). This means that for the highest possible frequency that will propagate through the ionosphere for that path, the signal absorption is so large that even signals at the MUF are absorbed. Under these conditions it is impossible to establish sky-wave communication between those two points no matter what frequency is used! (Communications between either location and other locations may be possible, since the LUF and MUF depend on the end points of the communication path.)
G3B12: What factors affect the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)?
A. Path distance and location
B. Time of day and season
C. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
D. All of these choices are correct
D: The Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) is the highest frequency that will provide sky-wave propagation between two specific locations. For example, suppose you live in Illinois and want to communicate with another amateur in Ecuador. You might find that the MUF for this contact is about 18 MHz at 14:00 UTC. You may also find that the MUF to communicate with a station in Spain at that same time is 12 MHz. Different communications path distances and directions will often result in very different MUF values. The MUF depends on conditions in the ionosphere, and those conditions will vary by time of day as well as the season of the year. The amount of solar radiation striking the ionosphere varies significantly depending on the timing of the 11-year sunspot cycle. Any solar flares, coronal-mass ejections and other disturbances on the Sun can also result in ionospheric disturbances that will affect the MUF. Answer choices A, B and C all describe factors that will affect the MUF for a given sky-wave propagation path, so answer choice D is correct.
G3C01: Which of the following ionospheric layers is closest to the surface of the Earth? A. The D layer B. The E layer C. The F1 layer D. The F2 layer
A: The D region of the ionosphere is the lowest, forming the D layer at a height of 30 to 60 miles. Because it is the lowest, it is also the densest and its ionization disappears by dark. {br/}{br/}{image src=’Fig G3-05.png’}
G3C02: Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?
A. Where the Sun is overhead
B. Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
C. Where the Sun is rising
D. Where the Sun has just set
A: The F region forms and decays in correlation with the daily passage of the Sun. The F1 and F2 layers form when the F region splits into two parts due to receiving high radiation from the Sun, recombining into a single F region at night. The more solar radiation the F region receives, the more it is ionized so it reaches maximum ionization shortly after noon during the summertime. The ionization tapers off very gradually towards sunset and the F2 region remains usable into the night. The F2 region is the highest of the ionosphere, reaching as high as 300 miles at noon in the summertime. {br/}{br/}{image src=’Fig G3-05.png’}
G3C03: Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?
A. Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
B. Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
C. Because it is the highes
C: Because the F2 region is the highest ionospheric region, it is the region mainly responsible for long-distance communications. A one-hop transmission can travel a maximum distance of about 2500 miles using the F2 region. {br/}{br/}{image src=’Fig G3-04.png’}
G3C04: What does the term “critical angle” mean as used in radio wave propagation?
A. The long path azimuth of a distant station
B. The short path azimuth of a distant station
C. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth un
D: At each frequency there is a maximum angle at which the radio wave can leave the antenna and still be refracted back to Earth by the ionosphere instead of simply passing through it and proceeding out into space. The critical angle changes depending on the ionization of the ionosphere. {br/}{br/}{image src=’Fig G3-06.png’}
G3C05: Why is long distance communication on the 40, 60, 80 and 160 meter bands more difficult during the day?
A. The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
B. The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
C. The D layer
C: Think of the D region as the “Darned Daylight” region. Instead of bending high frequency signals back to Earth, it absorbs energy from them. Signals at lower frequencies (longer wavelengths such as 160, 80, 60 and 40 meters) are absorbed more than at higher frequencies. The ionization created by the sunlight does not last very long in the D region, disappearing by sunset. {br/}{br/}{image src=’Fig G3-07.png’}
G3C06: What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
A. They have high intelligibility
B. They have a wavering sound
C. They have very large swings in signal strength
D. All of these choices are correct
B: The area between the farthest reach of ground-wave propagation and the point where signals are refracted back from the ionosphere (sky-wave propagation) is called the skip zone. Since some of the transmitted signal is scattered in the atmosphere or from ground reflections, communication may be possible in the skip zone by the use of scatter signals. The amount of signal scattered in the atmosphere will be quite small and the signal received in the skip zone will arrive from several radio-wave paths. This tends to produce a weak, distorted signal with a fluttering or wavering sound. {br/}{br/}{image src=’Fig G3-08.png’}
G3C07: What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
A. The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
B. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
C. The E-region is not present
D. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several dif
D: The amount of signal scattered back towards the transmitting station from the ionosphere or ground will be quite small. The signal received in the skip zone will also arrive from several radio-wave paths. This tends to produce a weak, distorted signal with a fluttering or wavering sound. {br/}{br/}{image src=’Fig G3-08.png’}
G3C08: Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?
A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
B. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
C. Propagation is through ground
A: The amount of signal scattered back towards the transmitting station from the ionosphere or ground will be quite small. The signal received in the skip zone will also arrive from several radio-wave paths. This tends to produce a weak, distorted signal with a fluttering or wavering sound. {br/}{br/}{image src=’Fig G3-08.png’}
G3C09: What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation? A. Faraday rotation B. Scatter C. Sporadic-E skip D. Short-path skip
B: The area between the farthest reach of ground-wave propagation and the point where signals are refracted back from the ionosphere (sky-wave propagation) is called the skip zone. Since some of the transmitted signal is scattered in the atmosphere, communication may be possible in the skip zone by the use of scatter signals. {br/}{br/}{image src=’Fig G3-08.png’}
G3C10: Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?
A. The communication is during a sunspot maximum B. The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance C. The s
D: Frequencies above the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) normally pass through the ionosphere out into space rather than being bent back, although atmospheric scatter from the ionosphere will sometimes allow communication on these frequencies. Amateurs trying to communicate on frequencies that seem to be above the MUF may notice that they can communicate using these scattered signals. Had they been using a frequency below the MUF they may not have noticed any scattered signals. {br/}{br/}{image src=’Fig G3-08.png’}
