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Steamfitting systems 3 Exam D.S. 70% portion > Exam Questions > Flashcards

Exam Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Gas Piping and Fittings: Medium Gas Pressure is:

A) 25-50 PSIG
B)12-40 PSIG
C)2-60 PSIG

A

C) 2 to 60 PSIG

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2
Q

Pipe fitting for natural gas must conform to the _______ regulations

A)C.G.A
B)T.S.S.A
C)U.L.
D)A.N.S.I

A

A)C.G.A

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3
Q

Which piping material is not used in natural gas piping?

A)Steel
B)H.D.P.E
C) copper
D) galvanized

A

D) galvanized

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4
Q

Type M&L, copper can be used above ground to convey natural gas. True or false?

A

False

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5
Q

Take off for gas appliances should be taken off the gas line at the ________ whenever possible.

A)Top
B)Side
C)Bottom

A

A) Top

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6
Q

Gas piping underground should be buried to a depth of _______ minimum

A) 12”
B) 15”
C) 24”

A

B) 15”

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7
Q

The method for joining a 3” Natural Gas Line should be:

A)welded
B)grooved
C)threaded
D)flared

A

A)welded

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8
Q

The minimum depth of a drip pocket should be:

A) 2”
B) 3”
C) 4”
D) 5”

A

B) 3”

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9
Q

If the flu gas temperature is below the dewpoint you will create:

A) Carbon dioxide vapour
B) condensation
C) Mountain Dew

A

B) condensation

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10
Q

The percentage of natural gas required at the burner for peak efficiency:

A) 2 to 12%
B) 3 to 13%
C) 4 to 14%
D) 5 to 15%

A

C) 4 to 14%

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11
Q

Name the two types of air used in the process of complete combustion:

A) intake and exhaust
B) primary and secondary
C) nitrogen, and carbon dioxide

A

B) primary and secondary

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12
Q

What agency test, new designs of appliances to ensure that carbon monoxide levels are kept extremely low?

A)CGA
B)TSSA
C)ULC
D)both a and C are correct

A

D) both a and c are correct

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13
Q

True or false, the main purpose of venting gas appliances is to keep condensation from forming in the burner area

A

False

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14
Q

Name material for type A vents:

A) double wall metal
B) masonry
C) oval, double wall material
D) single wall metal 18 gauge

A

B) masonry

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15
Q

Aldehyde usually accompanies White as an indicator of incomplete combustion?:

A) carbon dioxide
B) carbon monoxide
C) nitrogen
D) acetylene

A

B) carbon monoxide

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16
Q

Air for combustion (air, gas ratio) is how many cubic feet of air to one cubic foot of natural gas?

A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 25

A

A)10

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17
Q

Which inert gas can be used for testing?

A) oxygen
B) nitrogen
C) acetylene
D) carbon monoxide

A

B) nitrogen

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18
Q

What is the test pressure of gas main? That’s working pressure is 20 PSIG:

A) 25 psiG for half hour
B) 12 psiG for 12 hrs
C) 50 psiG for 12 hrs
D) 50 psiG for 24 hrs

A

D) 50 psiG for 24 hrs

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19
Q

What is the test pressure for gas less than 1/2 psi and less than 100ft?
A) 25 psiG for 1/2 hr
B) 12 psiG for 12 hrs
C) 50 psiG for 12 hrs
D) 50 psiG for 24 hrs

A

A) 25 psiG for 1/2 hr

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20
Q

Testing procedures and conditions are found in the Canadian gas association installation code:

A) B1941
B) B1497
C) B4191
D) B1491

A

D) B-149-1

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21
Q

Pressure gauges should be calibrated and certified every?

A) three months
B) six months
C) yearly

A

C) yearly

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22
Q

Piping used for purging Shall be reduced to ______ NPS at the outdoor purging point.

A)1”
B) 3/4”
C)1/2”
D)3/8”

A

C)1/2”

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23
Q

Gas piping should be purged using the appliance_______ from the meter:

A) closest
B) furthest
C) approximate
D) middle of the centre drop Line

A

B) furthest

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24
Q

Testing of gas piping systems use what method?

A) hydrostatic
B) pneumatic
C) Rockwell
D) sharpe

A

B) pneumatic

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25
Q

True or false, a major concern for public health, when working in plants that produce commodities for public consumption is product tampering

A

False

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26
Q

Which piece of equipment provides pressure balance for PWR cooling system

A)PRV
B) pressurization chamber
C) pasteurization chamber
D) perceptualizing chamber

A

B) pressurization chamber

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27
Q

The material used to shield against the escape of radiation from the reactor containment building is;

A) thick plates of stainless steel
B) thick walls of sand
C) thick layers of concrete
D) thick layers of sheet aluminum

A

C) thick layers of concrete

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28
Q

True or false, 1/2” welded steel plate, is used to seal the reactor contaminant buildings from the escape of radioactive vapour

A

False

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29
Q

Steam is produced for driving the turbine in a PWR nuclear plant by;

A) steam generator as a part of the primary loop
B) steam generator as a part of the secondary loop
C) the steam generated from the main reactor
D) steam from a third-party power plant

A

B) steam generator as a part of the secondary loop

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30
Q

True or false, a NO.3 finish on the pipes interior is required for the product contact surface of equipment in a dairy operation

A

False

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31
Q

What safety hazard can be expected from exposure to untreated water in a cooling tower
A) salmonella
B) Ecoli
C) pink eye
D) Legion Ella

A

D) Legion Ella

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32
Q

What safety hazard could be expected, if hydrogen gas is able to escape from pressurized containment, in an uncontrolled manner:

A) asphyxiation
B) loss of profit
C) possible combustion
D) contamination

A

C) possible combustion

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33
Q

True or false, the range of combustion for hydrogen gas is from 6% to 76% atmospheric pressure

A

False

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34
Q

The byproduct of caustic soda attack on some software metallic substances is:

A) nitrogen
B) hydrogen
C) estrogen
D) oxygen

A

B) hydrogen

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35
Q

True or false, the two primary products from caustic chemical plants are hydrogen and caustic chlorine

A

False

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36
Q

True or false, the NACDU nuclear power plant uses natural uranium as fuel for the reactor

A

False

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37
Q

What is the energy potential of 1 kg of uranium compared to coal fuel oil?

A) 1kg to 10-20k kg
B) 1kg to 20-30k kg
C) 1kg to 20-40k kg
D) 1 kg to 10-30k kg

A

A) 1kg to 10-20k kg

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38
Q

True or false, exhaust gas is passed through a duct burner to raise exhaust temperature to 1250°F and then to the firebox of a water tube boiler to produce steam for implant processes

A

False

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39
Q

What are the environmental concerns for thermal generation of electricity through the combustion of coal:

A) atmospheric pollution
B) thermal pollution of waterways
C) atmospheric, and thermal pollution of waterways
D) land, pollution, and thermal pollution of waterways

A

C) atmospheric, and thermal pollution of waterways

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40
Q

True or false, seawater is the source of heavy hydrogen

A

True

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41
Q

What component is used to prevent damage to piping and equipment in an emergency shut down of a high head hydroelectric generating plant:

A) cooling tower
B) tank farm
C) cushion tank
D) surge tower

A

D) surge tower

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42
Q

What is the purpose for using heavy water in a nuclear plant?

A)for flushing contaminants
B)cooling
C)a reactant to the fuel
D)fuel storage

A

B) cooling

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43
Q

True or false, Hydrothermal is the plant that uses the earth as heat energy

A

False

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44
Q

True or false a propeller type turbine drive with arrangement to adjust the pitch of the blades is the type of turbine most likely used in a low hydroelectric generating plant

A

True

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45
Q

True or false, class two cabinets have two valves and are intended to be used by the building occupants

A

False

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46
Q

Class B fires are caused by:

A) flammable, waste and debris
B) flammable liquids
C) electrical equipment
D) flammable clothing

A

Flammable liquids

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47
Q

Class I standpipe systems would be used by:

A) building occupants
B) fire department
C) fire department, and trained personnel
D) trained personnel

A

Fire department and trained personnel

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48
Q

True or false, Class III hose cabinets have 2 1/4” connections with an adaptor or one 1 1/2” connection, and one 2 1/2” connection.

A

False

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49
Q

Standpipe systems are used for;

A) class a fires
B) class B fires
C) class c fires

A

Class a fires

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50
Q

True or false, water storage facilities must have sufficient water for 45 minutes using one fire hose fully open

A

False

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51
Q

Ball drips are installed between the;

A) OS&Y valve and the pump
B) pump, and the Siamese connection
C) Siamese connection and the OS&Y valve
D) Siamese connection, and the check valve

A

Siamese connection and the check valve

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52
Q

Class I fire hose cabinet has;

A) 1 2 1/4” valve
B) 2 2 1/2” valves
C) 1 2 1/2” valve
D) 2 2 1/4” valves

A

1 2 1/2” valve

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53
Q

A fire hose cabinet that has two valves in it is classified as a;

A) class I
B) class II
C) class III
D) standpipe

A

Class III

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54
Q

Standpipe systems that contain glycol require;

A) trained employees
B) freezing temperatures outdoors
C) approved maintenance schedule
D) approved, backflow prevention device

A

Approved backflow prevention device

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55
Q

OS&Y gate valves are the most common used for fire protection system, because;

A) they can be operated by building occupants
B) position of valve clearly visible to firefighter
C) position of valve is rapidly operated
D) easily operated by trained personnel

A

Position of valve clearly visible to firefighters

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56
Q

Water storage reservoirs must be capable of holding a _________ minute, water supply:

A) 45
B) 20
C) 35
D) 30

A

30

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57
Q

True or false the drip valve is installed upstream of the Siamese connection

A

False

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58
Q

Siamese connections are fastened with;

A) one 2 1/4 inch connection
B) two 2 1/2 inch connections
C) one 2 1/2 inch connection
D) two 2 1/4 inch connections

A

2 1/2 inch connections

59
Q

True or false, Siamese connections require reverse, thread, connectors

A

False

60
Q

Halon extinguishing systems are no longer being installed, and existing systems are being changed to an alternative system due;

A) prone to asphyxiation hazards to the occupants
B) not being cost efficient
C) classed as a CFR
D) classed as a CFC

A

Classed as a CFC

61
Q

What is the purpose of the foam extinguishing system other than to smother out a fire?

A) to protect electrical equipment
B) to extinguish material fires
C) to mix with a flammable liquids
D) to lay on the surface of flammable liquids

A

To lay on the surface of flammable liquids

62
Q

True or false, deluge systems are
Pressured with air for fast acting response

A

False

63
Q

True or false, dry pipe systems are not charged with air and use HADs to open a main water valve

A

False

64
Q

The NFPA is an abbreviation for the national fire prevention association

A

False

65
Q

What type of attemperator would be used if the plant feedwater is not pure enough to inject directly into the superheated steam?

A) flashing
B) condensing
C) high-pressure pressure
D) is it low pressure

A

C) condensing

66
Q

What are the two purposes blowdown tanks are used for?

A) to condense and separate steam
B) to act as a cushion tank and to separate steam
C) to act as a flash steam vessel to cool the condensate
D) to act as a cushion tank and a cool steam

A

To act as a flash steam vessel, and a condensate

67
Q

What might be the consequence be from an overflow of hazardous material from a spill container?

A) full scale remodel of the offices
B) full scale, removal of the workforce
C) full scale, removal of soil
D) full scale, removal of the hazardous container

A

C) full scale, removal of soil

68
Q

True or false, the tappings at the bottom of the feed water storage tank is where the probes to collect samples of the feed water and chemical injection are installed

A

True

69
Q

What device is employed to ensure a minimum flow of water through a continuous running pump?

A) feed water pump
B) pressure, relief or backpressure valve
C) basket strainer
D) drip line

A

Pressure relief or backpressure valve

70
Q

Where is the desuperheater located relative to the plant piping system

A) at the outlet of the reheater
B) ahead of the steam supply lines
C) between the primary and secondary superheaters
D) between the steam drum and the turbine

A

Ahead of the steam supply lines

71
Q

Where would you expect to install in-line boiler water circulating pumps

A) at the bottom of the deaerator storage drum
B) the condensate tank pump, discharge lines
C) only on high temperature hot water boilers
D) on large water boilers with a low rate of gravity circulation

A

On large water boilers with a low rate of gravity circulation

72
Q

How often would the furnace wall in an oil fired boiler need to be cleaned of ash?

A) once each 24 hour.
B) annually
C) at the end of each shift
D) oil is clean burning, so there is no need to clean it

A

Annually

73
Q

From what point in the boiler feedwater system is the water drawn to feed the attemperator?

A) at the outlet of the economizer
B) at the inlet of the attemperator
C) from the outlet of the turbine
D) at the inlet to the boiler feedwater pumps

A

At the outlet of the economizer

74
Q

Why does the control valve on the overflow line from a liquid mover Have to operate on a time delay when the tank is being vented

A) to reduce the velocity of the steam to the vent
B) to prevent buildup of pressure in the condensate return lines
C) to prevent flashing of the condensate as the check valve on the condensate line opens
D) to prevent steam from venting into the mechanical room

A

To prevent steam from venting into the mechanical room

75
Q

What is another name for a flash tank?

A) flash condensate separator
B) flash separator
C) flash steam separator
D) condensate separator

A

Flash steam separator

76
Q

What is the max. Working pressure for an LP boiler:

A)25 psiG
B)15 psiG
C)30 psiG
D)35 psiG

A

15psig

77
Q

Where do temp. For HTHW systems usually operate?

A)155-210 degrees Celsius
B)145-200 degrees Celsius
C)177-232 degrees Celsius
D)165-225 degrees Celsius

A

177-232 degrees Celsius

78
Q

Fired pressure vessels, obtain heat source in what form?

A)indirect
B)direct
C)semi direct
D) Semi indirect

A

Direct

79
Q

What pressure applies to HTHW boilers?

A)160 psiG
B)135 psiG
C)145 psiG
D)155 psiG

A

160 psiG

80
Q

What type of pressure vessel gets heat from an indirect source

A)fired
B)unfired
C)horizontal
D)vertical

A

Unfired

81
Q

What AMSE codes cover piping systems

A)B33.1 and B31.3
B)B31.3 and B31.4
C)B31.1 and B31.3
D)B33.1 and B31.1

A

B31.1 and B31.3

82
Q

True or false, HP boilers are designed for process only

A

False

83
Q

What is a pressure relief device designed to do

A) remain open after operation
B) open rapidly during operation
C) open proportionally after operation
D) re-close after operation

A

Reclose after operation

84
Q

Where does flash steam get heat from?

A)HP condensate
B)LP steam
C)HP steam
D)LP condensate

A

HP condensate

85
Q

Which direction does heat always travel?

A) towards a radiant heated object
B) from warm objects to colder objects
C) downward by convection currents
D) from one solid object to another

A

From warm objects to colder objects

86
Q

What is not considered when calculating heat loss

A) interior walls
B) windows on outside walls
C) concrete slab on grade
D) exterior walls

A

Interior walls

87
Q

ODT is an acronym for

A) outdoor designated temperature
B) occupants, design temperature
C) over designed temperature
D) outdoor design temperature

A

outdoor design temperature

88
Q

True or false, The designed temperature difference refers to the outdoor temperature minus the floor temperature

A

False

89
Q

True or false, the recommended practice for determining room dimensions is to round measurements up to the nearest 1/16”

A

False

90
Q

True or false, the type of heat loss, resulting in cool air, being drawn in through poor construction, cracks around the windows and doors is transmission loss

A

False

91
Q

Which of the following heat loss types transfers heat through a ceiling

A) transmission loss
B) capillary loss
C) infiltration loss
D)Anaerobic loss

A

Transmission loss

92
Q

Fin baseboard, heating capacity is expressed in

A) kilo newtons per foot
B) cubic feet of heat per hour
C) gallons per minute
D) BTU per hour per linear foot

A

BTU per hour per linear foot

93
Q

True or false, The three major components of a thin baseboard are the radiant fins, housing, and supply line

A

True

94
Q

What is the procedure for calculating the amount of thin baseboards required in each space

A) divide the baseboard output by the wall area
B) multiply the area of the space being heated by the output of the baseboard
C) divide the space loss by the output rating of the baseboards selected
D) divide the length of the outside wall by the output of the baseboard selected

A

Divide the space heat loss by the output rating of the baseboard selected

95
Q

True or false, by design, boiler supply and return. Temperatures are two factors that determine the output of a finned baseboard.

A

False

96
Q

True or false, the total amount of baseboard required to heat the space must be known to properly size a boiler

A

False

97
Q

Which of the following should be followed to ensure proper boiler start up
A) the gas code
B) the Plumbing code
C) the general contractor
D) the boiler manufacturer

A

The boiler manufacturer

98
Q

Flow rate, temperature, drop, and pressure drop are used to size

A) the size of the space
B) the size of the boiler
C ) the size of the piping
D) the baseboard rad length

A

The size of the piping

99
Q

True or false, feet of head and equivalent length are required to properly size the pump for hydronic heating system

A

False

100
Q

True or false the main function of an expansion handling device is to prevent the expansion of water when the temperature rises

A

False

101
Q

How do diaphragm tanks differ from standard closed expansion tanks?

A) diaphragm tanks are much larger
B) diaphragm tanks must be placed 4 feet above the highest rad
C) diaphragm tanks have a zinc coating
D) diaphragm tanks, have a bladder that separates the air from water

A

Diaphragm tanks have a bladder that separate the air from water

102
Q

True or false, HTUs must be selected prior to installing the Rough in piping

A

True

103
Q

What is the best location for installing baseboard fins

A) on warm interior walls
B) 2 feet higher than the floor
C) on interior walls, directed to the centre of the room
D) on exterior walls with or without windows

A

On exterior walls with or without windows

104
Q

True or false, making making a detailed drawing, showing piping materials and parts is good practice prior to doing the material list

A

True

105
Q

The refrigerant, that is most environmental and human compatible is:

A)R-22
B)R-717
C)R-718
D)r-134a

A

R-718

106
Q

The evaporators principal function is to

A) condensed gases
B) lower pressure
C) absorb heat
D) reject heat

A

Absorb heat

107
Q

Convection currents of liquid and gases are based on

A) buoyancy law
B) Charles and Boyles law
C) Pascal’s principal
D) laws of thermodynamics

A

Buoyancy laws

108
Q

The code committee that decided to number all refrigerants is

A)ASTM
B)AWWA
C)ASME
D)ASHRAE

A

ASHRAE

109
Q

The chemical component found in refrigerants that contribute to the depletion of the ozone is

A) bromine
B) chlorine
C) ammonia
D) carbon dioxide

A

Chlorine

110
Q

The code that identifies refrigerants and places them into six groups is

A) CSA B52
B)CSA B51
C) ASME B31.3
D)ASME B31.5

A

CSA B52

111
Q

Traps and separators are required to

A) return noncondensible gases back to the purge valve
B) maintain a low pressure side of the system
C) return oil back to the crank case
D) return oil back to the compressor

A

Return oil back to the crank case

112
Q

True or false, the pressure/temperature relationship between the refrigerant, and the evaporator is based on the size of the piping system, type of refrigerant and type of refrigeration system

A

True

113
Q

The new refrigerant use ______ oil
A) fresh
B) full synthetic
C) polyester
D) semi synthetic

A

Polyester

114
Q

Refrigeration is the science of producing and maintaining temperatures below that of the surrounding _______ by transferring heat from one place to another

A) floor space
B) main floor
C) atmosphere
D) basement

A

Atmosphere

115
Q

True or false, The flame of a halide torch will turn, dense blue when detecting a large leak

A

True

116
Q

The most common type of fan or blower used on a furnace or an RTU is the

A) vane, axial fan
B) squirrel cage, fan
C) tube, axial fan
D) backward curve fan

A

Squirrel cage fan

117
Q

The type of filter that can be reused and regenerated using an oil based substance is

A) viscous impingement type
B) electronic type
C) dry type
D) bag, type

A

Viscous impingement type

118
Q

The type of air-conditioning equipment that requires the most service is the

A) central air handlers
B)RTUs
C) floor units
D) split units

A

RTUs

119
Q

The type of ducting designed for high velocity ducting is

A) welded duct
B) seemed duct
C) round duct
D) square duct

A

Round duct

120
Q

True or false, an essential item required on a steam heating coil with an automatic control valve is a vacuum breaker

A

True

121
Q

The most common energy source for heat pump is

A) water source
B) ground source
C) air source
D) solar source

A

Air source

122
Q

True or false, icing of the evaporator is caused by a low, refrigerant pressure in the evaporator

A

True

123
Q

A variable heat pump system will have

A) two evaporators
B) two metering valves
C) two four-way mixing valves
D) two condensers

A

Two metering valves

124
Q

True or false, small, self-contained, air-conditioning systems are classified as unitary

A

True

125
Q

What force besides pressure thrust imposes a load against the anchors

A) elasticity of the material
B) deflection of the support steel
C) torque on the elbows at the expansion loop
D) friction between the pipe and the support system

A

Friction between the pipe and the support system

126
Q

Why would you install rollers under the pipe or pipe shoes?

A) to reduce the number of guides required
B) to allow more space between the pipe supports
C) to reduce the friction load imposed on the anchors
D) to enable easier removal of the piping

A

C) to reduce the friction load impose on the anchors

127
Q

Which type of joint imposed the least amount of thrust against the anchors

A) universal Bellows expansion joints
B) hairpin, or Lyre loops
C) sleeve type expansion joints
D) ball, hinged, and gimbal joints

A

Ball, hinged, and gimbal joints

128
Q

True or false, an angle iron clip guide, is designed to act as an anchor against side thrust, as well as to maintain the axial alignment of the pipe

A

True

129
Q

What type of pipeline movement occurs where all motion is in a straight line

A) lateral offset
B) axial movement
C) angular rotation
D) torque

A

Axial movement

130
Q

What determines the number of corrugations required in a Bellows type expansion joint?

A) amount of expansion to be absorbed
B) brittleness of material
C) elastic limit of the pipe
D) amount of torque to be accommodated

A

Amount of expansion to be absorbed

131
Q

Who’s job is it to ensure that the anchor points required for the piping are strong enough to withstand the forces acting against them

A) structural engineer
B) construction supervisor
C) piping designer
D) owner

A

Structural engineer

132
Q

True or false, Anchoring and hydrotesting at the design installation temperature should be done before removing the shipping bars from a bellows type expension joint

A

True

133
Q

What needs to be determined before an expansion or contraction compensation device is installed in a system

A) anchor, thrust load
B) direction and amount the pipe will move after installation
C) size of support steel
D) accessibility of the device for installation and maintenance

A

Direction and amount the pipe will move after installation

134
Q

What should be done before anchoring the lines when ambient temperature is radically different than the temperature range specified for installation?

A) consult the piping engineer for the proper procedure to follow
B) Coldspring the joint to compensate for the shorter dimensions between the anchor points
C) wait until the weather moderates to comply with specified temperature range
D) relocate the anchor to match structural steel dimension

A

A) consult the piping engineer for the proper procedure to follow

135
Q

True or false, passive, solar heating, can NOT move, heat energy without mechanical equipment

A

False

136
Q

True or false, deciduous trees, provide shade of summer and light in the winter

A

True

137
Q

What best describes passive solar heating?

A) putting this energy to use through pumps and piping throughout the entire building
B) is putting this energy to use without depending on any mechanical equipment
C) is sunlight allowed to pass through windows facing north
D) putting this energy to use through mechanical equipment throughout parts of the building

A

Is putting this energy to use without depending on any mechanical equipment

138
Q

True or false, Alberta receives 20% less sunlight than Florida

A

True

139
Q

_________ is radiation scattered by the atmosphere

A)direct
B)Albedo
C)diffuse

A

Diffuse

140
Q

True or false, active solar, and liquid active solar do not require backup systems

A

False

141
Q

In a heat of fusion system, Latent heat is used to _______ heat to the storage mass

A) replace
B) store
C) reduce
D) transfer

A

Transfer

142
Q

True or false, active solar systems for heating domestic hot water are more economically attractive compared to those providing space heating

A

True

143
Q

Solar energy in the winter is only _____% of that received on a summer day

A) 35%
B) 25%
C) 15%
D) 45%

A

25%

144
Q

An active solar system requires the collectors to be mounted on a roof facing

A) South
B) north
C) west
D) east

A

South

Steamfitting systems 3 Exam D.S. 70% portion (1 decks)

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