Exam Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

Describe how a sample of chloroplasts could be isolates from leaves

A

Break open cells and filter
In cold, isotonic and buffered solution
Centrifuge and remove nuclei
Centrifuge at higher speeds chloroplasts settle out

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2
Q

Describe how acetylcoenzyme A is formed in the link reaction

A

Oxidation/hydrogen removed from pyruvate and carbon dioxide released
Addition of co enzyme A

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3
Q

Purification ponds only work efficiently when they are shallow and warm. Explain why

A

Sufficient light for photosynthesis
Warm leads to faster enzyme activity, so faster bacterial respiration and decomposition
So faster photoynthesis ( as respiration by bacteria produces CO2 used in photosynthesis)
Increased growth

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4
Q

Explain the advantage of having both algae and bacteria in a purification pond

A

Breakdown organic matter by enzymes from bacteria
Ammonia used by algae to make proteins
Algae photosynthesise
Bacterial respiration uses O2
Respiration allows for growth of bacteria

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5
Q

Explain why a statistical test should be applied to the data obtained in this investigation

A

To determine the probability of results being due to chance

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6
Q

Give 2 types of factors that cause PHENOTYPIC variation

A

Environment
Mutation/meiosis/alleles

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7
Q

What is Allopatric speciaton

A

New species form from different populations
In different areas/isolated populations

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8
Q

What is sympatric speciation

A

Formation of new species/reproductive isolation
From a population in the same area/ without geographical isolation

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9
Q

Describe one way which scientists could find out whether organisms from 2 diff populations belong to same species

A

Breed together
If fertile offspring then same species

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10
Q

Explain how sympatric speciation may have occured (in relation to question)

A

Mutation occurs

Correct e.g. of isolating mechanism
e.g.
temporal − different breeding seasons / feeding times /
ecological / behavioural − different courtship displays / different niches / habitats / feeding areas /
mechanical − mismatch of reproductive parts /
gamete incompatibility − sperm killed in female’s reproductive tract /
hybrid inviability / hybrid infertility;
Ignore references to “genetic isolation” or “reproductive isolation”
Different selection pressures operate / changes in allele frequency / divergence of gene

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11
Q

Explain the advantage of presenting the results as a ratio

A

•allows for comparison
• sample sizes may vary

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12
Q

Viruses infect only one species. Suggest and explain how the viruses became able to infect other species of frog

A

Mutation in Viral dna
Altered tertiary structure
Allows attachment proteins to bind to other species

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13
Q

Name techniques scientists use when analysing viral DNA to determine viruses were closely related

A

Genetic Dna fingerprinting
Gel electrophoresis
Dna sequencing
Polymerase chain reaction

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14
Q

Determining genome of viruses allows scientists to develop vaccine. How?

A

Scientists could identify proteins
Then identify potential antigens

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15
Q

Describe how B lymphocytes respond to vaccination against virus
Dont include cellular response

A

B cell divides by mitosis
To produce plasma cells which produce antibodies
B cells also produce memory cells

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16
Q

Genome

A

All the DNA in an organism

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17
Q

Explain why antibody binds to transcription factor

A

It has a specific binding site
Complementary to Transcription factor

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18
Q

Suggest how single stranded cDNA could prevent transcription of the question gene

A

Bind to promoter region

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19
Q

Describe roles of 2 enzymes used to insert DNA fragments into plasmids

A

DNA LIGASE
joins vector DNA and foreign DNA forming phosphodiester bonds

RESTRICTION endonuclease cut plasmid/ hydrolyse dna?

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20
Q

Suggest 2 features of the structure of different proteins that enable them to be separated by electrophoresis

A

Primary structure/tertiary structure
R groups

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21
Q

Dna probe

A

Short single stranded DNA with complementary base sequence to target DNA (radioactive labelled by a fluorescent molecule)

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22
Q

Fertillised egg cell (zygote) is made up of what and what else do they do

A

Totipotent stem cells
They divide rapidly by mitosis producing genetically identical daughter cells
Can also produce any type of body cells BECAUSE they translate part of their Dna

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23
Q

Which types of cells are vital for growth and repair of damaged tissues

A

Multipotent and unipotent (1) stem cells

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24
Q

Which types of cells are the only ones which can divide by mitosis

A

STEM CELLS

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25
Q

Production of IPS

A

Laboratory grown pluripotent cells produced from human somatic cells using certain protein transcription factors.
Not identical to pluripotent stem cells but capable of self renewal- providing limitless supply in medical research and removes ethical issues of using embryonic stem cells in medical research

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26
Q

Doninant characteristic rules

A

Affected offspring must have at least one affected parent
Unaffected parents only have unaffected offspring
If both parents are affected and produce an unaffected offspring, both parents must be heterozygous

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27
Q

Suggest how a mutation can spread

A

Founder effect/migration/interbreeding

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28
Q

DESCRIBE how alterations to tumour suppressor genes can lead to the development of tumours

A

Increased methylation
Mutation in tumour suppressor genes
Tumour suppressor genes are not transcribed/expressed
Results in uncontrollable cell division

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29
Q

Explain advantage of growing plants in tissue culture

A

Will be clones and have desired characteristics

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30
Q

Suggest how these type of stem cells( related to the question) can cause harm

A

Might divide uncontrollably
Leads to formation of a tumour/cancer

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31
Q

What does a large SD suggest (a very wide range)

A

Not much increase, no better than control

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32
Q

Describe method to find mean number of () per mm2

A

Measure diameter, calculate area
Using micrometer eyepiece graticule
Count number of () and calculate mean

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33
Q

Epigenetics

A

Heritable changes to gene function
Without changes to the base sequence of DNA

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34
Q

Explain how increased methylation could lead to cancer

A

Methyl groups added to tumour suppressor gene
Transcription of tumour suppressor gene is inhibited
Leading to uncontrolled cell division

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35
Q

Give one way in which benign tumours differ from malignant tumours

A

Cells of benign tumours cannot spread to other parts of the body/metastasise
Whereas cells of malignant tumours can

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36
Q

Codominant alleles

A

Both alleles expressed within the phenotype

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37
Q

Phenotype

A

Expression of its genetic constitution and its interaction with its environment

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38
Q

Explain why males are more likely than females to show a phenotype produced by a recessive allele carried on X chromosomes

A

Males have one allele
Females need two recessive alleles must be homozygous recessive

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39
Q

Sex linked gene

A

Gene located on the X chromosome

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40
Q

Genes that are linked are on the same chromosome

A
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41
Q

Describe how behaviour can result in sympatric speciation

If related to a question also talk about

A

Not geographically isolated
Leads to reproductive isolation
Separate gene pools
Change in allelic frequencies
Cannot breed to produce fertile offspring

(Occurring in the same area)
Mutations causes (whatever question gives e.g diff breeding times/ occupy diff habitat/courtship)
Reproductive isolation

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42
Q

Gene pool

A

All the alleles in a population

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43
Q

Suggest one reason why DNA replication stops in the polymerase chain reaction

A

Limited number of nucleotides
Dna polymerase also eventually denatures

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44
Q

Describe two ways in which both types of tumour may cause harm to the body

A

May damage organ concerned
May cause blockage

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45
Q

Explain the link between sunbathing and skin cancer

A

Suns radiation contains ultra violet radiation
Which causes mutation of genes which control cell division

46
Q

Suggest why fair skinned people are at a greater risk if skin cancer than darker skinned people when bathinf

A

Fair skin has less melanin which protects against ultraviolet radiation

47
Q

Suggest why people with a family of history of cancer are at a greater risk of cancer than those with no family history of cancer

A

Because cancer has genetic component + gene which gives predisposition to cause cancer

48
Q

Describe how altered DNA may lead to cancer

A

Dna altered by mutation
Mutation changes base sequence of gene controlling cell growth
Change in primary structure producing non functional protein
Tumour surpressor genes produce proteins that inhibit cell division
Uncontrolled cell division leads to malignant tumour

49
Q

Correlation coefficient

A

Allows to see correlation between two variables

50
Q

Give two reasons why bacteria are able to use human DNA to produce human proteins

A

Genetic code is universal
Translation is universal
Transcription is universal

51
Q

Suggest and explain one reason why bacteria might not produce every human protein

A

Bacteria cannot remove introns

52
Q

Explain the purpose of a marker gene

A

Allows detection of genetically modified cells

53
Q

Describe how this Dna could be screened for all known mutations in both genes

A

Use of PCR to amplify sample
Use restriction endonuclease to cut DNA
Separate DNA fragments using electrophoresis
addition of DNA probe and binds
Mutation identified by fluorescence/radioactivity

54
Q

Describe how HIV is replicated once inside helper T cells

A

RNA converted into DNA using reverse transcriptase
DNA inserted into helper tcell
DNA transcribed into HIV mRNA
HIV mRNA translated into HIV proteins

55
Q

Give one example of using monoclonal antibodies in a medical treatment

A

Targets drugs

56
Q

Describe role of antibodies in producing a positive result in an ELISA test

A

First antibody binds to antigen as they are complementary
Second antibody with enzyme attached is added
Second antibody attaches to antigen
Substrate added and colour change

57
Q

Explain how HIV affects production of antibodies when AIDS develops in a person

A

LESS antibody produces
because HIV destroys Thelper cells
So less B cells activated
Less B cells divide by mitosis into plasma cells

58
Q

Use your knowledge of antigen antibody complexes to suggest how monoclonal antibodies prevent [ } damaging other cells

A

Monoclonal antibody forms antigen-antibody complex so none of the [anti-antibody can bind watever in the question] can bind
Monoclonal antibody does not damage the cell

59
Q

Explain why antibody only damages specific cells

A

Has a specific tertiary structure
Which is complementary to one antigen
Antigen to this antibody only found on [specific cells in question]

60
Q

Suggest practical method to test for memory cells

A

Inject vaccine
Memory cells would product antibody faster/immune response is quicker

61
Q

Suggest 2 advantages of simple reflex arcs

A

Rapid
Protect against damage from body tissues
Does not have to be learnt
Help escape from predators
Enable homeostatic control

62
Q

Taxis

A

Moves towards or away from directional stimuli

63
Q

Kinesis

A

Movement is random

64
Q

Stimulus

A

Detectable change in environment. External (light intensity,temp,pressure) or internal(change in pH,glucose conc)

65
Q

IAA in the shoots

A

Promotes cell elongation
IAA synthesises in the shoot tips and diffuses into the growing regions
Light causes movement of IAA from the light side to shaded side
Higher conc of IAA on the shaded side
Causes directional growth as there is greater cell elongation on shaded side
Shaded side grows faster and causes shoot to bend towards the light

66
Q

IAA in the roots

A

Inhibits cell elongation
IAA synthesised in the root tips ans then diffuses into the growing regions
Light causes movement of IAA from light side to shaded side and towards gravity
Higher conc of IAA on the shaded side
Cell elongation inhibited on shaded side
Results in directional growth away from light and towards gravity

67
Q

Simple reflex arc

A

Only involves 3 neurones

68
Q

Synapses ensure that nerve impulses only travel in one direction
How

A

Neurotransmitters only stored in the pre-synaptic neurone
Neurotransmitter receptors only on post synaptic membrane

69
Q

Features of axons that conduct impulses faster and why

A

Myelinated
Show saltatory conduction/ jumping of nerve impulses
Larger diameter so larger surface area of channel proteins
Less resistance of flow of ions

70
Q

Explain how a resting potential is maintained across the axon membrane in a neurone

A

Higher conc of potassium ions inside and higher conc of sodium ions inside
Membrane more permeable to potassium ions
Sodium ions actively transported out and potassium
Ions in

71
Q

Explain why the speed of transmission of impulses is faster along a myelinated axon than along a non-myelinated axon

A

Myelinated axon provides electrical insulation and saltatory conduction
Depolarisation only occurs at the nodes of ranvier
However in non-myelinated axon depolarisation occurs along whole length of axon

72
Q

Resting potential -70mv to 0mv after adding respiratory inhibitor
Why

A

Respiratory inhibitor so no atp produced
No active transport of ions
No net movement of sodium and potassium ions

73
Q

Types of stimuli eye receptors might respond to

A

Light
Pressure
Touch
Temperature
Chemicals
Noise
Smell

74
Q

Student did not draw a line of best fit
Why

A

Not possible to predict intermediate values
No mean values

75
Q

Student did not carry our repeats but was still able to carry our statistical test
Why

A

Collected paired data

76
Q

Channel proteins on presynaptic neurones are involved in reflex responses.
Explain how

A

Allow calcium ions in
At end of presynaptic neurone
Causing the release of a neurotransmitter

77
Q

After exercise some atp used to re-establish resting potential.
Explain how

A

Sodium potassium pump
Sodium out potassium in

78
Q

Describe how the resting potential is established in an axon by the movement of ions across the membrane

A

Pump of sodium ions out
Diffusion of potassium ions out of axon/little diffusion of sodium ions into axon

79
Q

Sodium and potassium ions can only cross the axon membrane through proteins
Why

A

Cannot pass through phospholipid bilayer
Because not lipid soluble/charged

80
Q

Production of action potential=depolarisation?

A
81
Q

Damage to myelin sheath of neurones can lead to problems controlling contraction of muscles.
Suggest why

A

Action potentials travel slower
So muscles contract slower

82
Q

What happens when calcium ion channel proteins close

A

Less diffusion of calcium ions into the synaptic knob of presynaptic neurone
Synaptic vesiclss dont fuse with the presynaptic neurone membrane so dont release neurotransmitter
So neurotransmitter doesn’t diffuse across the synapse and bind to receptor on post synaptic membrane
No action potential
No depolarisation as sodium ion channels do not open

83
Q

Other than temperature give 2 factors that affect the speed of nerve impulses

A

Myelination
Axon diamater

84
Q

As a neurone transmits an impulse its rate of oxygen consumption increases
Why

A

Atp required for active transport

85
Q

Describe how a resting potential is maintained in a neurone

A

Active transport/pumping out of sodium ions
Out of neurone
Different permeabillity to sodium and potassium ions
Membrane more permeable to potassium ions
Diffusion of potassium ions out

86
Q

Potential across the membrane is reversed when an action potential is produced.
How

A

Sodium ion channel proteins open
Sodium ions diffuse in

87
Q

SYNAPSE:
describe the events leading to the release of acetylcholine and binding to post synaptic membrane

A

Depolarisation of presynaptic membrane
Calcium ion channel proteins open and calcium ions enter the synaptic knob via facilitated diffusion
Calcium ions activate enzymes which cause synaptic vesicles to fuse with presynaptic membrane and release acetylcholine neurotransmitter
Acetylcholine diffuses across the synaptic cleft
Acetylcholine binds to receptors on post synaptic membrane
Sodium ions enter leading to depolarisation

88
Q

Binding of GABA causes chloride ions to enter post synaptic neurones
Explain how this inhibits transmission of nerve impulses

A

Neurone becomes more negative
More sodium ions required to reach threshold
For action potential/depolarisation

89
Q

Myelination affects rate of conduction of nerve impulse
How

A

Depolarisation only at node of ranvier
Fewer jumps

90
Q

Describe how inhibition of acetylcholineesterase affects action of synpases

A

Acetylcholine not broken doen
Sodium ions continue to enter

91
Q

Refractory period

A

Limits number of impulses per second
Period of time between threshold and resting membrane potential
When maximum frequency reached, no further increase in information
Time taken to restore resting potential

92
Q

How is a control group treated

A

Given the thing that theyre tested in the question
Otherwise treated exactly the same

93
Q

Suggest how you could determine the dry mass of plant material

A

Heat at 100 degrees celcius
Weigh and heat until no further change in mass

94
Q

Advantage of using dry mass and not fresh mass to compare yield of plants

A

Water content variable
Will not affect dry mass

95
Q

Downsides of monoculture

A

Diseases and insects can spread from plant to plant quickly
Reducing biodiversity through loss of niches reduction in variety of food sources

96
Q

Why cant most organisms use atmospheric nitrogen gas

A

Chemically inert

97
Q

Whats erosion

A

Once rock has been weakened and broken by weathering it can be moved to another place by ice wind or gravity

98
Q

Phosphorus cycle

A

Phospholipids, RNA + DNA from dead organisms into phosphate ions
Decomposed by saprobionts
Phosphate ions also found in waste and remains e.g bones
Phosphate ions transported by streams rivers and lakes
Form sedimentary rock
Weathering and erosion of rocks helps phosphate ions dissolve in ocean+lakes+soils
Phosphate becomes ready for absorption by plans to incorporate into new biomass

99
Q

How is the energy of light converted into chemical energy in LDR

A

Electrons excited
Use of electron carriers
Production of ATP

100
Q
  • if scientists conduct an experiment and increase variable but products/results stay the same, something else LF
A
101
Q

Suitable units for measuring rate of photosynthesis

A

Co2 used
Per unit of time

102
Q

Why would reducing light intensity reduce oxygen released

A

Light intensity limiting factor
Fewer electrons released from chlorophyll
Less photolysis so less oxygen

103
Q

Evaluate suggestion that increase in temp will not affect oxygen released

A

No affect because photolysis does not require an enzyme
May affect because increased temperature increased respiration
Respiration uses oxygen

104
Q

Describe how NADP is reduced in the LDR

A

Electrons
from chlorophyll

105
Q

Aerobic respiration produces more ATP per molecule of glucose than anaerobic respiration
Why

A

Oxygen final electron acceptor
Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in Aerobic respiration
Anaerobic respiration only glycolysis no KC/LR

106
Q

How pyruvate transported into the mitochondrial matrix

A

Actively

107
Q

Natural vs agricultural ecosystems

A

Natural ecosystems recycle their inorganic ions but agricultural the crops are harvested/removed so less recycling of inorganic ions
*nitrogen required to produce proteins and DNA foe growth so less growth

108
Q

Environmental impact of using fertilisers

A

Reduced species diversity- plants which are adapted to souls with high in nitrate concentrations outcompete other species

Environmental issues- in agricultural ecosystems crops are removed and less decomposition so less nitrate/phosphate returned to soil. *issue fixed with fertillisers

Leaching- inorganic fertiliser sometimes leads to more ions being applied to the soil than taken up by the plants. The ions dissolve in the water and are washed from soil into streams rivers and lakes

109
Q

What measurements required to calculate rate of CO2 production

A

Volume of CO2 given off
From known area
In a set time

110
Q

Units for gross productivity

A

Unit of energy per area

111
Q

How can net productivity show little increase

A

Net productivity= gross productivity - respiratory losses
Increase in respiration
Or
Decrease in gross productivity

112
Q

Reason for conserving woodlands

A

Conserving habitats/niches
Increases biodiversity
Tourism
Reduces erosion/eutrophication