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Chall 350 Systems exam- Do Not Share > Exam Q’s > Flashcards

Exam Q’s Flashcards

1
Q

During takeoff, most non-essential CAS messages are inhibited ..

A

From 80 knots up to 400 AGL or 60 seconds.

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2
Q

What is the max altitude at which APU can be used for pressurization?

A

20,000’.

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3
Q

What is the purpose of the Aux Hyd system?

A

Provides hydraulic pressure to the lower rudder PCU in the event of a right hydraulic system failure.

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4
Q

Which manifold provides bleed air for wing anti-ice?

A

HP manifold.

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5
Q

Which landing gear have WOW proximity sensors?

A

Both MLG and NLG.

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6
Q

Takeoff power of the HTF7000 and HTF7350 are flat rated up to what temperature?

A

ISA +15 C.

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7
Q

What is the rated thrust of the HTF 7000 and HTF 7350 at sea level and ISA +15 C

A

6826 lbs

7323 lbs.

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8
Q

What is the purpose of the pressurization safety valves?

A

Open to prevent over or under pressurization of the cabin.

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9
Q

How is rain removal from the windshields accomplished?

A

Special coating applied to both the windshields and side cockpit windows.

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10
Q

What assists the collector tanks in maintaining a full level of fuel?

A

Respective scavenge ejectors.

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11
Q

What does the color magenta represent in the Challenger 300 and Challenger 350 radar respectively?

A

Heavy rain and turbulence.

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12
Q

What is the maximum altitude and airspeed at which the APU can be started?

A

30,000’, 285 knots.

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13
Q

What is the Mmo with the Mach Trim inoperative and the autopilot engaged?

A

Mach 0.83

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14
Q

What statement is true regarding trim air provided for pressurization?

A. Supplied for right high pressure manifold?
B. Mind with Ram air.
C. Pre-cooled with Ram Air.
D. Only available from the Rt. engine..

A

C. Pre-cooled with Ram Air.

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15
Q

Which statement is most correct concerning APU bleed air?

A. Always available when APU is running?
B. Protected by a check valve and funneled into the high pressure bleed manifold?
C. Modulated by the APU load control valve and directed into the right intermediate pressure bleed manifold.
D. Only intended for engine starting.

A

C. Modulated by the APU load control valve and directed into the right intermediate pressure bleed manifold.

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16
Q

Which statement is true regarding operation of the Roll disconnect?

A. Gives control of the roll spoilers to the left pilot.
B. Gives control of the ailerons to the right pilot.
C. Disconnects the autopilot
D. All of the above are correct.

A

D. All of the above are correct.

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17
Q

What is the result of pulling and locking the pitch disconnect handle?

A. Does not cause a takeoff configuration warning.
B. Isolates the left and right elevator systems.
C. Does not disconnect the autopilot.
D. Causes the pilot to disconnect from the aileron system

A

B. Isolates the left and right elevator systems.

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18
Q

What flight control systems are locked with the gust lock?

A

Ailerons.

19
Q

When using the Future Air Navigation System (FANS)CPDLC, what message is displayed on the Crew alerting system (CAS) to indicate a message has been received?

A. (amber) FANS CPLDC MESSAGE
B. (red) MESSAGE
C. (cyan) DATA LINK CPDLC FANS
D. (white) YOU’VE GOT MAIL

A

C. (cyan) DATA LINK CPDLC FANS

20
Q

What component(s) does the Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA) on each engine provide electrical power for?

A

On side FADEC.

21
Q

What approximate angle on the AOA does the stick shaker activate? Stick pusher?

A

Shaker 0.85

Pusher 1.0

22
Q

What happens when the landing gear PULL handle is raised in flight?

A. The landing gear unlocks mechanically release.
B. Both the runaround and dump valves close.
C. PTU pressurizes the landing gear extension circuit.
D. Left DCMP comes on if the switch is in Auto..

A

A. The landing gear unlocks mechanically release.

23
Q

What electrical busses are powered on the ground with aircraft batteries turned ON?

A. MAIN busses, ESS busses and AUX busses.
B. MAIN busses and ESS busses
C. Only the AUX busses.
D. Only the ESS busses.

A

A. MAIN busses, ESS busses and AUX busses.

24
Q

In the automatic mode of pressurization, the amber CABIN ALTITUDE caution CAS indicates a cabin altitude above what value?

A. 6280
B. 8500
C. 7850
D. 9400

A

B. 8500

25
Q

Where are the oxygen bottles located?

A

Ina cabinet in the right side of the lavatory.

26
Q

When landing on a grooved runway, taking all company and aircraft limitations into consideration, to which type of surface conditions does the maximum tailwind component of 10 knots apply?

A. Wet
B. Dry
C. Wet and dry
D. Wet, dry and contaminated

A

C. Wet and dry

27
Q

What is the maximum altitude with the yaw damper inoperative?

A

31,000’.

28
Q

Which of the following computers monitor ECS and can post a PACK FAIL CAS message.

A. IAPS
B. ADC
C. IASC
D. SECU

A

C. IASC

29
Q

When armed, what will trigger automatic activation of the emergency lighting system.

A

Loss of power to the Right Main Bus

30
Q

What is the proper condition for checking the brake wear indicator pins during preflight?

A

Hydraulic system pressurized and parking brake set.

31
Q

Which is part of the procedure for landing with partial flaps (FLAPS FAIL) CAS?

A. HYD pumps are selected ON.
B. TAWS TERRAIN override should be engaged
C. Approach will be flown at a normal VREF
D. Brakes be applied prior to touchdown

A

A. HYD pumps are selected ON.

32
Q
  1. What is the horizontal and vertical flight director guidance when TO /TO is selected for takeoff?

A. Selected heading ±5° and a fixed 10° of pitch
B. Aircraft heading at rotation with bank limited to 5° and a fixed 10° of pitch
C. Aircraft heading at rotation with bank limited to 5° and pitch calculated from V-speed and number of engines running.
D. Selected heading ±5 ° and pitch for V2 at max gross weight.

A

C. Aircraft heading at rotation with bank limited to 5° and pitch calculated from V-speed and number of engines running.

33
Q

What approach minimum category is applied to the Challenger 300/350 during circling approaches?

A

Category C.

34
Q

Which statement is true regarding the Honeywell Laserref VI internal reference unit?

A. Normally, initialization is automatic.
B. IRU uses latitude and longitude provided by onside GNSS.
C. Stationary alignment time is approximately 5-10 minutes.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

35
Q

Which computer system controls the ATT/HDG system on the Challenger 300 Advanced Avionics and Challenger 350 aircraft.

A. GURU
B. IRS
C. Compass
D. AHRS

A

B. IRS

36
Q

You may dispatch with an FMS Control Display Unit(CDU) inoperative, provided what?

A. FMS #2 is selected for landing altitude
B. Left FMC/CDU is operative
C. Adaptive Flight Displays are operative
D. Both B & C are correct

A

D. Both B & C are correct

37
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature for takeoff?

A. 15°C provided a fuel system icing inhibitor is used
B. 27°C
C. 100°C
D. Both A & B are correct

A

D. Both A & B are correct

38
Q

While conducting a walkaround, you notice the left main landing gear door is missing. Which remark or exemption must you observe?

A. Add 5.1 to the CDL index for every door missing on CAFM calculation or a weight reduction per door from operating weights
B. Cruise fuel used must be increased by 2.1% per door
C. Airspeed and altitude must be limited to 250 KIAS and 25,000 ft, respectively
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

39
Q

Determine the Challenger 350 and Challenger 300 single-engine drift down airspeed at FL410 and 36,000 lbs. respectively?

A. 180 kt., 186 kt.
B. 175 kt., 191 kt.
C. 200 kt., 200 kt.
D. 186 kt., 175 kt.

A

A. 180 kt., 186 kt.

40
Q

What is the purpose of the Power Transfer Unit (PTU)?

A. Lower the gear when executing the HYD PRESS LOW (CAS) checklist procedure
B. Provides landing flaps through the alternate flap system
C. Provides hydraulic pressure to raise the landing gear in the event of left engine driven pump loss.
D. Provides pressure to raise the landing gear in the event of total fluid loss in the right hydraulic system

A

C. Provides hydraulic pressure to raise the landing gear in the event of left engine driven pump loss.

41
Q

When navigating in the terminal area on the Challenger 350 and 300 respectively, what
indication is shown on the PFD?

A. RNP ARM, NO APPR
B. 1.0, TERM
C. LPV APPR, GPS APP ARMED
D. .3, LPV ARM

A

B. 1.0, TERM

42
Q

The single engine enroute climb speed (Venr) for a 36,000 lbs takeoff weight and climb to MSA of 14,000 ft for a Challenger 300 and Challenger 350 respectively is?
A) 170kt, 154 kt
B) 148 kt, 148 kt
C) 170 kt for both aircraft
D) V2+15 kt, V2+25 kt

A

A) 170kt, 154 kt

43
Q

What is the minimum altitude at which the Autoplilot may be engaged during a Category 1 ILS with glideslope angles between 3.5 degrees and 4.5 degrees
A) 80 ft AGL
B) 100 ft AGL
C) 200 ft AGL
D) 160 ft AGL

A

D) 160 ft AGL

Chall 350 Systems exam- Do Not Share (1 decks)

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