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Solutions Architect Associate > Exam Pro Cheat Sheets > Flashcards

Exam Pro Cheat Sheets Flashcards

1
Q

How does S3 provide high availability?

A

Replicate data across at least 3 AZs

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2
Q

What size can S3 objects be?

A

Between 0 Bytes and 5 Terraytes

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3
Q

True or False; S3 Bucket names must be unique across all accounts?

A

True

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4
Q

What is used to automatically move S3 objects between storage classes and automatically delete based on a schedule?

A

Lifecycle Managment

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5
Q

True or False; S3 MFA delete requires versioning to be turned on?

A

True

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6
Q

True or False; you can turn off versioning on S3?

A

False; once versioning is turned on it cannot be turned off, only suspended

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7
Q

True or False; all new S3 Buckets are private by default?

A

True

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8
Q

Two ways access is controlled in S3 Buckets?

A
  • Bucket Policies
  • Access Control Lists (ACL) (LEGACY)
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9
Q

How are Bucket Policies defined?

A

Using JSON documents

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10
Q

What is security in transit (S3)?

A

Uploading files over SSL

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11
Q

What does SSE stand for?

A

Server Side Encryption

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12
Q

What are the 3 options for S3 server side encryption?

A
  • SSE-AES
  • SSE-KMS
  • SSE-C
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13
Q

True or False; for CRR in S3, you must have versioning turned on in the source and destination bucket?

A

True

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14
Q

True or False; using CRR in S3, you can replicate to a bucket in another AWS account?

A

True

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15
Q

What S3 option provides faster and secure uploads from anywhere in the world using a distinct URL and an Edge Location?

A

Transfer Acceleration

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16
Q

What are commonly used to access private S3 objects?

A

Presigned URLs

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17
Q

What 2 ways can you use to generate S3 presigned URLs?

A
  • AWS CLI
  • AWS SDK
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18
Q

What provides temporary access to write or download object data in S3

A

Presigned URLs

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19
Q

6 different S3 storage classes

A
  • Standard
  • Intelligent Tiering
  • Standard Infrequent Access
  • Infrequent Access One Zone
  • Glacier
  • Glacier Deep Archive
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20
Q

Which S3 tier should you use if you access your files less than once a month?

A

Standard Infrequently Accessed

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21
Q

What availability is S3 One Zone IA?

A

99.5%

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22
Q

How long is data retrieval for Glacier?

A

Minutes to hours

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23
Q

How long is data retrieval for Glacier Deep Archive?

A

12 hours

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24
Q

What size does Snowballs come in?

A
  • 50TB
  • 80TB
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25
Q

What size does Snow Edges come in?

A
  • 100TB
  • 100TB clustered
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26
Q

What size does a Snowmobile come in?

A

100PB

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27
Q

True or False; You can use Snowballs or Snowmobiles to both export and import data?

A

True

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28
Q

Which member of the Snow family can undertake local processing and edge-computing workloads?

A

Snowball Edge

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29
Q

3 Snowball Edge device configurations:

A
  • Storage optimised (24 vCPUs)
  • Compute optimised (54 vCPUs)
  • GPU (54 vCPUs)
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30
Q

Which service helps keep traffic between AWS services within the AWS network?

A

VPC Endpoints

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31
Q

What are the 2 types of VPC Endpoints?

A
  • Interface Endpoint
  • Gateway Endpoint
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32
Q

True or False; Interface Endpoints are free?

A

False

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33
Q

True or False; Gateway Endpoints are free?

A

True

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34
Q

Which type of VPC Endpoint uses an Elastic Network Interface (ENI) with Private IP?

A

Interface Endpoint

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35
Q

Which type of VPC Endpoint is a target for a specific route in your route table?

A

Gateway Endpoint

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36
Q

True or False; Interface Endpoints support many AWS Services?

A

True

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37
Q

True or False; Gateway Endpoints support many AWS Services?

A

False, Gateway Endpoints only support S3 and DynamoDB

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38
Q

Which VPC service monitors the in-and-out traffic of your Network Interfaces within your VPC?

A

VPC Flow Logs

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39
Q

At which 3 levels can you utilise VPC Flow Logs

A
  • VPC
  • Subnet
  • Network Interface
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40
Q

True or False; you can change the configuration of a flow log after it’s created?

A

False

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41
Q

True or False; you cannot enable flow logs for VPCs which are peered with your VPC?

A

True, unless it is in the same account

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42
Q

Where can VPC Flow Logs be delivered to?

A
  • S3
  • CloudWatch Logs
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43
Q

What two pieces of information are contained in VPC Flow Logs?

A
  • Source IP address
  • Destination IP address
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44
Q

Which pieces of instance traffic are not monitored by VPC Flow Logs (5)?

A
  • Instance traffic generated by contacting the AWS DNS servers
  • Windows license activation traffic
  • Traffic between instance metadata address (169.254.169.254_
  • DHCP Traffic
  • Any traffic to the reserved IP address of the default VPC router
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45
Q

What does NACL stand for?

A

Network Access Control List

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46
Q

What rules are automatically given to the default NACL?

A
  • Allow all outbound and inbound traffic
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47
Q

True or False; each subnet within a VPC must be associated with a NACL?

A

True

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48
Q

True or False; subnets can only be associated with 1 NACL at a time?

A

True, associating a subnet with a new NACL will remove the previous association

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49
Q

True or False; NACLs have inbound and outbound rules?

A

True

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50
Q

True or False; NACLs can either allow or deny traffic?

A

True

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51
Q

True or False; NACLs are stateful?

A

False, NACLs are stateless

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52
Q

What does stateless mean?

A

Responses to outbound traffic are not automatically allowed, they’re subject to inbound traffic rules. And Vice versa.

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53
Q

What does statefull mean?

A

Response to outbound / inbound traffic are automatically allowed

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54
Q

True or False; when you create a NACL it will deny all traffic by default?

A

True

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55
Q

True or False; NACLs contain a numbered list of rules that gets evaluated in order from lowest to highest?

A

True

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56
Q

True or False; NACLs can be used to block a single IP address?

A

True, NACLs have both allow and deny rules

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57
Q

What acts as a firewall at the instance level?

A

Security Groups

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58
Q

True or False; in security groups all inbound traffic is allowed by default?

A

False, inbound traffic is blocked by default

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59
Q

True or False; in security groups all outbound traffic is allowed by default?

A

True

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60
Q

Security Groups are stateful or stateless?

A

Security Groups are statefull

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61
Q

True or False; EC2 instances can belong to multiple security groups?

A

True

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62
Q

True or False; security groups can contain multiple EC2 instances?

A

True

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63
Q

True or False; you can block specific IP addresses using Security Groups?

A

False, you would need to use NACLs to do this

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64
Q

How many Security Groups can you have per region?

A

10,000 (default 2,500)

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65
Q

How many rules can you have per Security Group?

A

60 inbound and 60 outbound

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66
Q

How many security groups can be associated with an ENI?

A

16 (default is 5)

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67
Q

Which AWS service connects on-premise storage to cloud storage?

A

Storage Gateway

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68
Q

3 types of storage gateways:

A
  • File Gateway
  • Volume Gateway
  • Tape Gateway
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69
Q

Which type of storage gateway acts as a local file system using NFS or SMB, extending your local hard drive to S3?

A

File Gateway

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70
Q

Which type of storage gateway is used for backups?

A

Volume Gateway

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71
Q

What are the two types of Volume Gateway?

A
  • Stored Volume Gateway
  • Cached Volume Gateway
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72
Q

Which type of Volume Gateway has the primary data on-premise?

A

Stored Volume Gateway

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73
Q

Which type of Volume Gateway continuously backs up local storage to S3 as EBS Snapshots?

A

Stored Volume Gateway

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74
Q

Which type of Volume Gateway has the primary stored on S3?

A

Cached Volume Gateway

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75
Q

Which type of Volume Gateway cached the frequently used files on-premise?

A

Cached volume Gateway

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76
Q

How big are stored volumes for Volume Storage Gateway?

A

1GB to 16TB

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77
Q

How big are cached volumes for Cached Volume Gateway?

A

1GB to 32GB

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78
Q

Which type of storage gateway backs up virtual tapes to S3 Glacier for long archive storage?

A

Tape Gateway

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79
Q

True or False; when creating a NAT instance you must disable source and destination checks on the instance?

A

True

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80
Q

True or False; NAT instances must exist in a private subnet?

A

False, NAT instances must exist in a public subnet?

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81
Q

True or False; you must have a route out of the private subnet to the NAT instance?

A

True

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82
Q

True or False; the size of a NAT instance determines how much traffic can be handled?

A

True

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83
Q

True or False; NAT Gateways are redundant inside an Availability Zone?

A

True, they can survive failure of an EC2 instance

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84
Q

True or False; you can have multiple NAT Gateways inside an AZ?

A

False, you can only have 1 NAT Gateway in an AZ, which cannot span AZs

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85
Q

What speeds can a NAT Gateway get?

A

5 Gbps to 45 Gbps

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86
Q

True or False; when creating a NAT Gateway you must disable source and destination checks on the instance?

A

False, for NAT Instances this is True

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87
Q

True or False; NAT Gateways are automatically assigned a public IP address?

A

True

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88
Q

True or False; resources in multiple AZs sharing a Gateway will lose internet access if the Gateway goes down?

A

True, unless you create a Gateway in each AZ and configure route tables accordingly

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89
Q

Which AWS service is used to manage access to users and resources?

A

IAM

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90
Q

What does IAM stand for?

A

Identity Access Management

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91
Q

True or False; new IAM accounts have no permissions by default?

A

True

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92
Q

3 parts to IAM:

A
  • IAM Users
  • IAM Groups
  • IAM Roles
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93
Q

What is the name for JSON documents which grant permissions for a specific user, group, or role to access services?

A

IAM Policies

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94
Q

What is the name for IAM policies provided by AWS and cannot be edited?

A

Managed Policies

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95
Q

What is the name for IAM policies created by you the customer, which you can edit?

A

Customer Managed Policies

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96
Q

What is the name for IAM policies which are directly attached to a user?

A

Inline Policies

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97
Q

Which AWS service would you use when you need to easily add authentication to your mobile and desktop app?

A

Cognito

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98
Q

What part of AWS Cognito allows users to authenticate using OAuth to IpD such as Facebook, Google, Amazon to connect to web-applications?

A

User pools

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99
Q

What do Cognito User Pools use to persist authentication?

A

JWTs (JSON web tokens)

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100
Q

How do Cognito Identity Pools allow access to AWS services?

A

Using temporary AWS credentials

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101
Q

What does Cognito Sync snyc across devices with one line of code?

A

User data and preferences

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102
Q

What is OIDC?

A

A type of Identity Provider which uses OAuth

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103
Q

What is SAML?

A

A type of Identity Provider which is used for Single Sign-on

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104
Q

What does DNS (Domain Name System) do?

A

An internet service that converts domain names into routable IP addresses

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105
Q

How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

A

32 bits

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106
Q

How many bits are in an IPv6 address?

A

128 bits

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107
Q

Give an example of a top-level domain

A

amazon.com (the .com)

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108
Q

give an example of a second-level domain

A

amazon.co.uk (the .co)

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109
Q

What is the name of 3rd party companies who you register domains through?

A

Domain Registrars

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110
Q

What is a Name Server

A

The server(s) which contain the DNS records for a domain

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111
Q

What is a Start of Authority (SOA)?

A

Contains information about the DNS zone and associated DNS records

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112
Q

What does an A record do?

A

Directly converts a domain name into an IP address

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113
Q

What does a CNAME record do?

A

Lets you convert a domain name into another domain name

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114
Q

What is Time to Live (TTL)?

A

The time that a DNS record will be cached for

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115
Q

7 Route53 routing policies:

A
  • Simple Routing
  • Weighted Routing
  • Latency-Based Routing
  • Failover Routing
  • Geolocation Routing
  • Geo-proximity Routing
  • Multi-Value Routing
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116
Q

Which Route53 tool is a visual editor, for chaining routing policies which allows versioning for easy rollback?

A

Traffic Flow

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117
Q

What is the name of AWS’ smart DNS record that detects changed IPs for AWS resources and adjusts automatically?

A

AWS Alias Record

118
Q

What part of Route53 lets you regionally route DNS queries between your VPCs and your network Hybrid Environments?

A

Route53 Resolver

119
Q

5 EC2 instance types specialised for different roles?

A
  • General Purpose
  • Compute Optimised
  • Storage Optimised
  • Memory Optimised
  • Accelerated Optimised
120
Q

What EC2 Instance type is ideal for compute bound applications that benefit from high performance processor

A

Compute Optimised

121
Q

Which EC2 Instance type provides fast performance for workloads that process large data sets in memory?

A

Memory optimised

122
Q

Which EC2 Instance type provide high, sequential read and write access to very large data sets on local storage?

A

Storage optimised

123
Q

What allows you to choose the logical placement of your EC2 instance to optimise for communication, performance or durability?

A

Placement Groups

124
Q

What is the IP address to get an EC2 instances metadata?

A

http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data

125
Q

What is a container for an IAM role that you can use to pass role information to an EC2 instance when the instance starts?

A

Instance Profile

126
Q

4 EC2 pricing models:

A
  • On-demand
  • Reserved
  • Spot
  • Dedicated
127
Q

What provides the information required to launch an instance?

A

AMI

128
Q

True or False; AMIs are region specific?

A

True

129
Q

True or False; you can copy an AMI into another region using ‘Copy AMI’?

A

True

130
Q

What information does an AMI hold?

A
  • A template for the root volume for the instance, eg, an operating system, an application server, and applications
  • Launch permissions that control which AWS accounts can use the AMI to launch instances
  • A block device mapping that specifies the volumes to attach to the instance when it’s launched
131
Q

What is the name for a collection of EC2 instances grouped for scaling and management?

A

Auto Scaling Group

132
Q

What 3 things are an Auto Scaling Group based on?

A
  • Min
  • Max
  • Desired Capacity
133
Q

Which ASG scaling policy scales based on when a target value for a metric is breached?

A

Target Scaling Policy

134
Q

Which ASG scaling policy triggers a scaling when an alarm is breached?

A

Simple Scaling

135
Q

What does an ASG use to launch a new instance?

A

Launch Configuration

136
Q

True or False; Launch Configurations cannot be edited and must be cloned or a new one created?

A

True

137
Q

3 types of Elastic Load Balancers?

A
  • Classic Load Balancer
  • Network Load Balancer
  • Application Load Balancer
138
Q

What is the minimum number of availability zones for an ELB?

A

2 AZs min

139
Q

True or False; ELBs can be cross-region?

A

False; not cross-region, you must create one per region

140
Q

What 3 things does an ALB use to route traffic?

A
  • Listeners
  • Rules
  • Target Groups
141
Q

What 2 things does an NLB use to route traffic?

A
  • Listeners
  • Target Groups
142
Q

How does the classic load balancer route traffic?

A

It uses listeners and EC2 instances are directly registered as targets to CLB

143
Q

What protocols is Network load Balancer for?

A

TCP / UDP

144
Q

When is Network Load Balancer used?

A

For high network throughput, eg. video games

145
Q

What can be used to get the original IP of incoming traffic passing through an ELB?

A

X-Forwarded-For (XFF)

146
Q

Which type of ELB can be attached to a WAF?

A

ALB

147
Q

True or False; You can attach Amazon Certification Manager SSL to any of the ELBs for SSL?

A

True

148
Q

True or False; ALB has advanced Request Routing rules where you can route based on subdomain header, path and other HTTP(S) information?

A

True

149
Q

True or False; sticky sessions can be enabled for CLB and ALB via cookies?

A

True

150
Q

What protocol does EFS support?

A

Network File System version 4 (NFSv4)

151
Q

How are you charged for EFS?

A

per GB of storage per month

152
Q

How large can EFS volumes grow to?

A

Petabytes

153
Q

True or False; EFS volumes can grow and shrink to meet current data stored?

A

True

154
Q

True or False; EFS can support thousands of concurrent connections?

A

True

155
Q

With EFS your data is storage across multiple AZs within a region?

A

True

156
Q

True or False; you can mount multiple EC2 instances to a single EFS?

A

True, as long as they are all in the same VPC

157
Q

True or False; EFS creates Mount Points in all your VPC subnets so you can mount from anywhere within your VPC?

A

True

158
Q

What type of consistency does EFS provide?

A

Read After Write

159
Q

True or False; EBS snapshots are incremental?

A

True

160
Q

What is a durable, block-level storage device that you can attach to a single EC2 instance?

A

EBS volume

161
Q

True or False; EBS Volumes can be modified on the fly, eg, storage type or volume size?

A

True

162
Q

What are temporary storage types located on disks that are physically attached to a host machine?

A

Instance Store Volumes

163
Q

True or False; EBS volumes can have termination protection?

A

True

164
Q

True or False; Snapshots or restored encrypted volumes will also be encrypted?

A

True

165
Q

True or False; you can share snapshots that have been encrypted?

A

False

166
Q

True or False; unencrypted snapshots can be shared with other AWS accounts or made public?

A

True

167
Q

Which AWS service makes a website load faster by serving cached content that is nearby?

A

CloudFront

168
Q

True or False; CloudFront Edge Locations are read-only?

A

False; you can write to them, eg. PUT Objects

169
Q

What CloudFront features defines how long until the cache expires?

A

TTL (Time To Live)

170
Q

How do you force a CloudFront cache to immediately expire?

A

Invalidate it

171
Q

True or False; refreshing a CloudFront cache costs money because of transfer costs to update edge locations?

A

True

172
Q

Regarding CloudFront, what is the name given to where the original copies of your files reside?

A

Origin

173
Q

Regarding CloudFront, what is a collection of edge locations and behaviour on how it should handle your cached content?

A

Distribution

174
Q

Two types of CloudFront distributions:

A
  • Web distribution (static website content)
  • RTMP (streaming media)
175
Q

What does OAI stand for?

A

Origin Identity Access

176
Q

What does CloudFront use to access private S3 buckets?

A

OAI (Origin Identity Access)

177
Q

How can access to cached content in CloudFront be protected?

A

Signed URLs or Signed Cookies

178
Q

What CloudFront feature allows you to pass each request through a Lambda to change the behaviour of the response?

A

Lambda@Edge

179
Q

6 relational database options for RDS:

A
  • Postgres
  • MySQL
  • Aurora
  • MariaDB
  • Oracle
  • Microsoft SQL Server
180
Q

True or False; RDS Multi-AZ automatically synchronises changes in the database over to the standby copy?

A

True

181
Q

True or False; RDS Multi-AZ has automatic failover protection?

A

True, if one AZ goes down failover will occur and the standby slave will be promoted to master

182
Q

What can be enabled on your RDS database to alleviate the workload of your primary database to improve performance?

A

Read-replicas

183
Q

True or False; RDS Read-Replicas use synchronous replication?

A

False, RDS read-replicas use asynchronous replication

184
Q

True or False; you must have automatic backups enabled to use Read Replicas?

A

True

185
Q

What is the max number of RDS read-replicas you can have?

A

5

186
Q

True or False; you can have RDS read-replicas in another region?

A

True (Cross-Region Read Replicas)

187
Q

True or False; you can have replicas of read-replicas?

A

True

188
Q

What are the 2 types of RDS backup solutions?

A
  • Automated Backups
  • Manual Snapshots
189
Q

What is the retention period for RDS Automated Backups?

A

Between 1 and 35 days

190
Q

What is the costs for RDS automated backup storage?

A

No additional cost

191
Q

What RDS database is fully-managed, scalable and has automatic backups and high availability?

A

Aurora

192
Q

How much faster is Aurora over MySQL and Postgres

A
  • MySQL 5x
  • Postgres 3x
193
Q

How does Aurora replicate your database across different availability zones?

A

Aurora replicates 6 copies of your database across 3 availability zones

194
Q

How many replicas can Aurora have?

A

Aurora allows up to 15 replicas

195
Q

True or False; an Aurora database can span multiple regions?

A

True, via Aurora Global Database

196
Q

What Aurora feature allows you to stop and start Aurora and scale automatically while keeping costs low?

A

Aurora Serverless

197
Q

What type of projects is Aurora Serverless ideal for?

A

New projects or projects with infrequent database usage

198
Q

What is Redshift

A

Redshift is a Columnar Store database which can make SQL-like queries and is OLAP

199
Q

How many data can Redshift handle?

A

Petabytes worth of data

200
Q

2 common use cases for Redshift?

A
  • Data warehousing
  • Business Intelligence
201
Q

How many AZs can Redshift run in?

A

1 (Single-AZ)

202
Q

True or False; Redshift can run via a single node or multi-node (clusters)?

A

True

203
Q

What is the size of a single Redshift node?

A

160GB

204
Q

What is the two types of node in Redshift multi-node mode?

A
  • 1 Leader
  • Multiple compute nodes
205
Q

How are you charged for Redshift nodes?

A

You are billed per hour for each node (excluding leader node - which isn’t charge for)

206
Q

How many Redshift compute nodes can you have?

A

128

207
Q

What are the two types of nodes in Redshift?

A
  • Dense Compute
  • Dense Storage
208
Q

How does Redshift attempt to backup your data?

A

3 copies:
- the original
- on compute node
- on S3

209
Q

On Redshift how is similar data stored for faster reads?

A

Sequentially

210
Q

Two ways Redshift database can be encrypted?

A
  • AWS KMS
  • CloudHSM
211
Q

Redshift default and maximum backup retention?

A
  • Default is 1 day
  • Max is 35 days
212
Q

True or False; Redshift can asynchronously back up your snapshot to another region via S3?

A

True

213
Q

What does Redshift use to distribute queries and data across all loads?

A

Massively Parallel Processing (MPP)

214
Q

Which AWS service is a fully-managed NoSQL key/value and document database?

A

DynamoDB

215
Q

True or False; DynamoDB scales with whatever read and write capacity per second that you specify?

A

True

216
Q

Two types of data consistency in DynamoDB?

A
  • Eventually consistent reads
  • Strongly consistent reads
217
Q

What is DynamoDB Eventually consistent reads?

A

Data is returned immediately but can be inconsistent. Copies of data will be generally consistent in 1 second

218
Q

What is DynamoDB Strongly Consistent Reads?

A

DynamoDB will wait until data is consistent. Data will never be inconsistent but latency will be higher. Copies of data will be consistent with a guarantee of 1 second

219
Q

How does DynamoDB store copies of data?

A

IT stores 3 copies of data on SSD drives across 3 regions

220
Q

Two formats that CloudFormation template can be written in?

A
  • JSON
  • YAML
221
Q

What happens when CloudFormation encounters an error?

A

It will rollback with ‘ROLLBACK_IN_PROGRESS’

222
Q

Max size of CloudFormation template for direct upload?

A

51,200 bytes / 0.05 MB

223
Q

How can large CloudFormation templates be imported?

A

Via an S3 bucket

224
Q

What helps you break up CloudFormation templates into smaller reuseable templates that can be composed into larger templates?

A

NestedStacks

225
Q

What must be defined in a CloudFormation template for it to be valid?

A

At least one resource

226
Q

In CloudFormation what is MetaData used for?

A

Providing extra information about your template

227
Q

CloudWatch is a collection of monitoring services. Name 5 of these services:

A
  • Dashboards
  • Events
    -Alarms
  • Logs
  • Metrics
228
Q

What does CloudWatch logs do?

A

Log data from AWS services, eg. CPU Utilisation

229
Q

What does CloudWatch Metrics do?

A

Represents a time-ordered set of data points, a variable to monitor, eg. CPU utilisation over time

230
Q

What does CloudWatch Events do?

A

Trigger an event based on a condition, eg. every hour take a snapshot of the server

231
Q

What do CloudWatch Alarms do?

A

Triggers notifications based on metrics when a defined threshold is breached

232
Q

What does CloudWatch dashboard do?

A

Creates visualisations based on metrics

233
Q

How often does CloudWatch monitor services?

A
  • EC2 every 5 minutes or every 1 minute for detailed monitoring
  • Most other services monitor at 1 minute intervals
234
Q

Installing a CloudWatch Agent on an EC2 instance allows you to track which 2 metrics?

A
  • Memory usage
  • Disk size
235
Q

True or False; CloudWatch Custom Metrics allow you to track High Resolution Metrics a sub minute intervals all the way down to 1 second?

A

True

236
Q

What does CloudTrail do?

A

CloudTrail logs calls between AWS services

237
Q

What 4 key terms relate to CloudTrail?

A
  • Governance
  • Compliance
  • Operational auditing
  • Risk auditing
238
Q

What AWS service do you use when you need to know who to blame?

A

CloudTrail

239
Q

CloudTrail’s Event History covers events for the previous how many days?

A

90

240
Q

In CloudTrail, what does Log File Validation do?

A

Ensure log have not been tampered with

241
Q

What can you use to encrypt CloudTrail logs?

A

KMS

242
Q

True or False; CloudTrail logs can be streamed to CloudWatch logs?

A

True

243
Q

Where are CloudTrail Trails outputed to?

A

An S3 bucket that you specify

244
Q

CloudTrail logs; two kinds of events?

A
  • Management events
  • Data events
245
Q

What do CloudTrail management events log?

A

Management operations, eg. AttachRolePolicy

246
Q

What do CloudTrail Data Events log?

A

Data operations for resources, eg. GetObject, DeleteObject, PutObject

247
Q

True or False; CloudTrail management events are disabled by default when creating a trail?

A

False, management events are enabled, data events are disabled

248
Q

Which AWS service can be used to analyse CloudTrail Trail logs?

A

Athena

249
Q

Max AWS Lambda runtime?

A

15 minutes

250
Q

How are you charged for Lambda usage?

A

Pay per invocation (the duration and the amount of memory used). The first 1m requests per month are free

251
Q

Max AWS Lambda memory?

A

3008 MB

252
Q

True or False; by default Lambdas run in no VPC?

A

True

253
Q

How many concurrent functions can lambda scale to?

A

1,000 as default (more with AWS service limit increase)

254
Q

Which AWS service lets you decouple services and allows apps to talk to each other

A

SQS

255
Q

Is SQS push or pull based?

A

Pull

256
Q

Two types of SQS queues

A
  • Standard
  • FIFO
257
Q

How many messages per second using SQS Standard queue?

A

Nearly unlimited

258
Q

Does SQS Standard queue guarantee order of delivery?

A

No

259
Q

How many times is a SQS Standard Queue message delivered?

A

At least once, you must protect against duplicate message being processed

260
Q

What is the limit of a SQS FIFO queue?

A

300

261
Q

What are the 2 types of SQS queue polling?

A
  • Short polling
  • Long polling
262
Q

What is SQS short polling?

A

Returns message immediately, even if the message queue being polled is empty

263
Q

What is SQS long polling?

A

Long polling waits until message arrives in the queue, or the long poll timeout expires

264
Q

Generally, which is preferred, short or long polling?

A

Long polling

265
Q

What is SQS visibility time-out?

A

The period of time that messages are invisible in the SQS queue

266
Q

What is the default SQS visibility time-out?

A

30 seconds

267
Q

What is the range of SQS visibility timeouts, min and max?

A
  • Min = 0 seconds
  • Max = 12 hours
268
Q

What is the range that SQS can retain messages?

A
  • min = 60 seconds
  • max = 14 days
  • default = 4 days
269
Q

What is the range of SQS message size?

A

1 byte to 256 bytes

270
Q

Which AWS service is a managed in-memory caching service?

A

ElastiCache

271
Q

What are the 2 types of caches that ElastiCache can launch?

A
  • Memcached
  • Redis
272
Q

Which type of ElastiCache is a simple key / value store preferred for caching HTML fragments?

A

Memcache

273
Q

Which type of ElastiCache has richer data types and operations. Is great for leaderboards, geospatial data or keeping track of unread notifications

A

REdis

274
Q

What type of info are usually stores in a cache?

A

The most frequently accessed identical queries

275
Q

True or False; resources only within the same VPC may connect to ElasticCache to ensure low latencies

A

True

276
Q

Which AWS service handles the deployment, from capacity provisioning, load balancing, auto-scaling to application health monitoring?

A

Elastic Beanstalk

277
Q

When should you use Elastic Beanstalk?

A

When you want to run a web-application but you don’t want to have to think about the underlying infrastructure

278
Q

True or False; Elastic Beanstalk is recommended for production environments?

A

False, it is recommended for test or development environments, not production

279
Q

True or False; you can run dockerised environments on Elastic Beanstalk?

A

True

280
Q

What is API Gateway?

A

API Gateway is a solution for creating secure APIs in your cloud environment at any scale

281
Q

How many requests per second is API Gateway throttled at?

A

10,000 requests per second (can be increased via service request)

282
Q

In API Gateway what allows you to have multiple published versions of your API?

A

Stages

283
Q

True or False; CORS can be enabled on all or individual endpoints?

A

True, CORS (cross origin resource sharing)

284
Q

How can you require authorisation to your API Gateway endpoints?

A
  • AWS Cognito
  • Custom lambda
285
Q

What is Amazon Kinesis?

A

It’s the AWS solution for collecting, processing and analysing streaming data in the cloud

286
Q

Which AWS service should you think of when you need ‘real-time’?

A

Kinesis

287
Q

How long does data persist for in AWS Kinesis?

A

24 hours (default) to 168 hours

288
Q

What is Kinesis Firehose?

A

Pay for only data ingested, data immediately disappears once processed

289
Q

What is Kinesis Data Analytics?

A

Allows you to perform queries in real-time. Needs a Kinesis Data Stream/Firehose as the input and output

290
Q

What is Kinesis Video Analytics?

A

Securely ingests and stores video and audio encoded data to consumers such as SageMaker, Rekognitio or other services to apply Machine Learning and video processing

Solutions Architect Associate (3 decks)

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