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Network Fundamentals > Exam Prep-Network+ > Flashcards

Exam Prep-Network+ Flashcards

1
Q

In the client-server model, what is the primary secure protocol used for communication between a browser and web server?
a. HTTPS
b. TLS
c. HTTP
d. SSL

A

a. HTTPS

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2
Q

Which two encryption protocols might be used to provide secure transmissions for email services?
a. HTTP and HTTPS
b. SSL and TLS
c. FTP and SFTP
d. SSH and RDP

A

b. SSL and TLS

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3
Q

Which of the following applications could be used to run a website from a server?
a. Hypertext Transfer Protocol
b. FileZilla
c. Microsoft Exchange Server
d. Ngnix

A

d. Ngnix

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4
Q

As you’re working to fix a problem with an application, you make multiple changes at once hoping that something will solve the issues you’re having. You end up with more problems than when you started. Which step, if followed correctly, would have prevented this complication?
a. Identify the problem.
b. Test the theory to determine the cause.
c. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects.
d. Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned.

A

a. Identify the problem

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5
Q

In the event of a fire, the most appropriate failure policy is a _______ policy.
a. Power-off
b. Fail-close
c. Fail-open
d. Shutdown

A

c. Fail-open

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6
Q

A network consists of five computers, all running Windows 10 Professional. All the computers are connected to a switch, which is connected to a router, which is connected to the Internet. Which logical networking model does the network use?
a. Hub-and-spoke
b. Ring
c. Hybrid
d. Peer-to-peer

A

d. Peer-to-peer

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7
Q

In Question 6, suppose one computer is upgraded from Windows 10 Professional to Windows Server 2019. Which networking model can the network now support that it could not support without the upgrade?
a. Hybrid
b. Client-server
c. Hub-and-spoke
d. Peer-to-peer

A

b. Client-server

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8
Q

A network consists of seven computers and a network printer, all connected directly to one switch. Which network topology does this network use?
a. Client-server
b. Mesh
c. Hub-and-spoke
d. Star

A

d. Star

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9
Q

You need to access customer records in a database as you’re planning a marketing campaign. What language can you use to pull the records most relevant to the campaign?
a. FTP
b. SQL
c. SMTP
d. TLS

A

b. SQL

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10
Q

Which of the following is an application layer protocol?
a. IP
b. RDP
c. TCP
d. Apache

A

b. RDP

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11
Q

What is the name of the domain controller database that Windows Server 2019 uses to store data about user access and resources on the network?

A

Active Directory

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12
Q

What is the fundamental distinction between a layer 2 switch and a router?

A

A layer 2 switch belongs only to its local network, and a router belongs to two or more networks.

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13
Q

What is the fundamental distinction between a node and a host?

A

A host is an endpoint device that hosts or accesses a resource on the network, and a node is any computer or device that can be addressed on the network.

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14
Q

What is the fundamental distinction between a MAN and a WAN?

A

A WAN covers a large geographical area, and a MAN covers a smaller, more defined geographical area.

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15
Q

List two protocols that function at the transport layer of the OSI model. What type of address do these protocols add to their headers, and what element does that address identify?

A

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP (User Datagram Protocol)
and the port addresses the receiving application

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16
Q

At the network layer, what type of address is used to identify the receiving host?

A

IP address

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17
Q

At the data link layer, which type of network address is used to identify the receiving node?

A

Physical address, MAC address, hardware address, or data link layer address

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18
Q

A computer is unable to access the network. When you check the LED lights near the computer’s network port, you discover the lights are not lit. Which layer of the OSI model are you using to troubleshoot this problem? At which two layers does the network adapter work?

A

Part 1: Physical Layer
Part 2: Data link layer and physical layer

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19
Q

A user complains that their computer cannot access email, although the computer can access websites. At which layer of the OSI model should you begin troubleshooting this problem and why?

A

Application layer—Email protocols such as SMTP, POP3, and IMAP4 all function at the application layer.

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20
Q

While troubleshooting a problem, you realize the problem is caused by a complex series of issues that will affect a large number of users even to test your theory as to the cause, and that process won’t even solve the problem. What should you do next in the troubleshooting process?

A

Escalate the problem

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21
Q

A technician from your ISP has arrived to help you troubleshoot a weak WAN connection. To what location do you take them?
a. IDF
b. Work area
c. CEO’s office
d. EF

A

EF

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22
Q

A transceiver was recently damaged by a lightning strike during a storm. How might you decide whether the ISP is responsible for replacing this device, or whether your company must foot the bill?
a. Look at whether the device is located on the ISP’s side of the demarc.
b. Look at the manufacturer information on the device’s label.
c. Look at purchase records for the device to determine when it was acquired.
d. Look at what kinds of cables are connected to this device.

A

a. Look at whether the device is located on the ISP’s side of the demarc.

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23
Q

Which of the following devices are you likely to find in the MDF? Choose all that apply.
a. Routers
b. Switches
c. Network printer
d. KVM switch

A

a. Routers, b. Switches, and d. KVM switch

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24
Q

Which device converts signals from a campus’s analog phone equipment into IP data that can travel over
the Internet?
a. Legacy PBX
b. VoIP phone
c. Voice gateway
d. Dedicated telephone switch

A

c. Voice gateway

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25
Q

If you’re shopping for a rack switch, what component on the switch tells you it can be mounted to a rack?
a. AC adapter
b. Rack ears
c. Padded feet
d. Large fans

A

b. Rack ears

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26
Q

You need to connect a new network printer to a nearby wall jack. What kind of cable should you use?
a. Fiber-optic cable
b. Patch cable
c. Backbone cable
d. Plenum-rated cable

A

b. Patch cable

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27
Q

You’ve decided to run an Nmap scan on your network. Which apps could you open to perform this task?
Choose all that apply.
a. Zenmap
b. Microsoft Edge
c. Command Prompt
d. PowerShell

A

a. Zenmap, c. Command Prompt, and d. PowerShell

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28
Q

What type of diagram shows a graphical representation of a network’s wired infrastructure?
a. Rack diagram
b. Wiring diagram
c. Network map
d. Network topology

A

b. Wiring diagram

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29
Q

Which of these is considered a secure place to store a list of documented network passwords?
a. The CEO’s smartphone
b. A sticky note under the keyboard
c. A password manager
d. The MDF

A

c. A password manager

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30
Q

What is the first step of inventory management?
a. Interview users.
b. Identify network requirements.
c. List an administrative account’s username and password for each device on a network.
d. List all components on the network

A

d. List all components on the network.

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31
Q

Give three examples of networked devices that are not computers.

A

Answers may vary and might include security cameras, SCADA sensors that might be monitoring environmental controls (such as HVAC), electric utilities, water and sewage, traffic signals, mass transit, manufacturing equipment, refrigeration units, or lighting and entry systems. Answers should not include networking devices such as routers, switches, and access points, or networked devices that run on
computers, such as servers.

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32
Q

Why is it important to use a structured cabling standard when installing and managing cabling systems?

A

Structured cabling standards describe the best ways to install various types of networking media to maximize performance and minimize upkeep.

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33
Q

Why is it important to use plenum-rated cabling in the area above the ceiling tile?

A

Plenum-rated cabling is safer than regularly coated PVC cabling. It produces less smoke when burned, and the smoke is less toxic.

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34
Q

What is the unit of measurement that defines the space available in a rack? How tall are standard racks?

A

Rack height is measured in rack units (RU or U) with the industry standard being 42U tall— about 6 feet.

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35
Q

Why is it important to minimize cable clutter in a rack?

A

To help prevent airflow blockages

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36
Q

What are some elements that are typically included in network diagrams?

A

Answers may vary and might include physical layout, logical topology, IP address reserves, names of major network devices, and types of transmission media.

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37
Q

How can you go about gathering the information needed to assemble a thorough operations manual?

A

Answers may vary and might include visits to data rooms, an examination of servers and desktops, a review of receipts for software and hardware purchases, and the use of a protocol analyzer or network management software package.

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38
Q

What command invokes Nmap at a command line?

A

nmap

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39
Q

For what time period should you schedule a network change?

A

If possible, schedule the change for completion during off-hours. Many organizations maintain a regularly scheduled maintenance window during which changes can be made

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40
Q

In a large organization, how do you typically request permission to perform a network 20. change?

A

Submit a change request document.

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41
Q

Which part of a MAC address is unique to each manufacturer?
a. The network identifier
b. The OUI
c. The device identifier
d. The physical address

A

b. The OUI

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42
Q

What type of device does a computer turn to when attempting to connect with a host with a known IP address on another network?
a. Default gateway
b. DNS server
c. Root server
d. DHCP server

A

a. Default gateway

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43
Q

What decimal number corresponds to the binary number 11111111?
a. 255
b. 256
c. 127
d. 11,111,111

A

a. 255

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44
Q

Suppose you send data to the 11111111 11111111 11111111 11111111 IP address on an IPv4 network. To which device(s) are you transmitting?
a. All devices on the Internet
b. All devices on your local network
c. The one device that is configured with this IP address
d. No devices

A

b. All devices on your local network

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45
Q

When your computer first joins an IPv6 LAN, what is the prefix of the IPv6 address the computer first configures for itself?
a. FF00::/8
b. ::1/128
c. 2000::/3
d. FE80::/64

A

d. FE80::/64

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46
Q

If you are connected to a network that uses DHCP, and you need to terminate your Windows workstation’s DHCP lease, which command would you use?
a. ipconfig /release
b. ipconfig /renew
c. ifconfig /release
d. ifconfig /renew

A

a. ipconfig /release

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47
Q

Which of these commands has no parameters in Windows?
a. ping
b. ipconfig
c. hostname
d. nslookup

A

c. hostname

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48
Q

Which DNS server offers the most current resolution to a DNS query?
a. Primary DNS server
b. Root DNS server
c. Caching DNS server
d. TLD DNS server

A

a. Primary DNS server

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49
Q

You have just brought online a new secondary DNS server and notice your network-monitoring software reports a significant increase in network traffic. Which two hosts on your network are likely to be causing the increased traffic and why?
a. The caching and primary DNS servers because the caching server is requesting zone transfers from the primary server
b. The secondary and primary DNS servers because the secondary server is requesting zone transfers from the primary server
c. The root and primary DNS servers because the primary server is requesting zone transfers from the root server
d. The web server and primary DNS server because the web server is requesting zone transfers from the primary DNS server

A

b. The secondary and primary DNS servers because the secondary server is requesting zone transfers from the primary server

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50
Q

Which type of DNS record identifies an email server?
a. AAAA record
b. CNAME record
c. MX record
d. PTR record

A

MX record

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51
Q

What is the range of addresses that might be assigned by APIPA?

A

169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254

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52
Q

You are the network manager for a computer training center that allows students to bring their own laptops to class for learning and taking notes. Students need access to the Internet, so you have configured your network’s DHCP server to issue IP addresses automatically. Which DHCP option should
you modify to make sure you are not wasting addresses used by students who have left for the day?

A

Lease time

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53
Q

You have decided to use SNAT and PAT on your small office network. At minimum, how many IP addresses must you obtain from your ISP for all five clients in your office to be able to access servers on the Internet?

A

1

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54
Q

Explain how the bits of an IPv6 address are organized and describe IPv6 shorthand notation

A

An IPv6 address has 128 bits that are written as eight blocks of
hexadecimal numbers separated by colons. Each block is 16 bits long. Leading zeroes in a four-character hex block can be eliminated. If blocks contain all zeroes, they can be eliminated and replaced by double colons (::). To avoid confusion, only one set of double colons is used in an IPv6 address.

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55
Q

FTP sometimes uses a random port for data transfer, but an FTP server always, unless programmed otherwise, listens to the same port for session requests from clients. What port does an FTP server listen on?

A

21

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55
Q

You issue a transmission from your workstation to the following socket on your LAN: 10.1.1.145:53. Assuming your network uses standard port designations, what application layer protocol handles your transmission?

A

DNS (Domain Name Service)

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56
Q

Suppose you want to change the default port for RDP as a security precaution. What port does RDP use by default, and from what range of numbers should you select a private port number?

A

3389; 49152 through 65535

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57
Q

You have just set up a new wireless network at your house, and you want to determine whether your Linux laptop has connected to it and obtained a valid IP address. What command will give you the information you need?

A

ip address show or ifconfig -a

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58
Q

While troubleshooting a network connection problem for a coworker, you discover the computer is querying a nonexistent DNS server. What command-line utility can you use to assign the correct DNS server IP address?

A

nslookup (in interactive mode)

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59
Q

When running a scan on your computer, you find that a session has been established with a host
at the address 208.85.40.44:443. Which application layer protocol is in use for this session? What
command-line utility might you use to determine the domain name of the other computer?

A

Port 443 indicates this an HTTPS session. nslookup can identify the domain name of the host at that IP address

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60
Q

Which protocol’s header would a layer 4 device read and process?
a. IP
b. TCP
c. ARP
d. HTTP

A

b. TCP

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61
Q

What field in a TCP segment is used to determine if an arriving data unit exactly matches the
data unit sent by the source?
a. Source port
b. Acknowledgment number
c. DiffServ
d. Checksum

A

d. Checksum

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62
Q

What is the Internet standard MTU?
a. 65,535 bytes
b. 1,522 bytes
c. 1,500 bytes
d. 9,198 bytes

A

c. 1,500 bytes

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62
Q

At which OSI layer does IP operate?
a. Application layer
b. Transport layer
c. Network layer
d. Data link layer

A

c. Network layer

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63
Q

Which encryption protocol does GRE use to increase the security of its transmissions?
a. SSL
b. SFTP
c. IPsec
d. SSH

A

c: IPsec

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63
Q

Which two protocols manage neighbor discovery processes on IPv4 networks?
a. ICMP and ARP
b. IPv4 and IPv6
c. TCP and UDP
d. NDP and Ethernet

A

a. ICMP and ARP

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63
Q

You’re getting a duplicate IP address error on your computer and need to figure out what other
device on your network is using the IP address 192.168.1.56. What command will show you which MAC
address is mapped to that IP address?
a. telnet 192.168.1.56
b. tracert 192.168.1.56
c. arp -a
d. netstat -n

A

c. arp -a

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64
Q

What is one advantage offered by VDI over RDS and VNC?
a. Offers access to multiple OSs in VMs
b. Supports remote access to mobile devices
c. Allows multiple users to sign in at once
d. Provides open source flexibility

A

a. Offers access to multiple OSs in VMs

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65
Q

Which encryption benchmark ensures data is not modified after it’s transmitted and before it’s
received?
a. Confidentiality
b. Integrity
c. Availability
d. Symmetric

A

b. Integrity

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66
Q

What is the difference between dynamic ARP table entries and static ARP table entries?

A

Dynamic ARP table entries are created when a client makes an ARP request, whereas static ARP table entries are entered manually using the ARP utility

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66
Q

What three characteristics about TCP distinguish it from UDP?

A

TCP is connection-oriented, uses sequencing and checksums, and provides flow control

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66
Q

What process is used to establish a TCP connection?

A

Three-way handshake

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67
Q

Which two fields in an Ethernet frame help synchronize device communications but are not counted toward the frame’s size?

A

Preamble and SFD

67
Q

Which remote file access protocol is an extension of SSH?
a. SFTP
b. TFTP
c. FTPS
d. HTTPS

A

a: SFTP

68
Q

Explain the key difference between how symmetric encryption works and how asymmetric encryption works

A

Symmetric encryption uses the same key during both the encryption and decryption of the
data. Asymmetric encryption requires the use of two different keys, one to encrypt and the other to
decrypt.

68
Q

When surfing online, you get some strange data on an apparently secure website, and you realize you need to check the legitimacy of the site. What kind of organization issues digital certificates for websites?

A

CA (Certificate Authority)

68
Q

Which secured tunneling protocol might be able to cross firewalls where IPsec is blocked?

A

OpenVPN

69
Q

What tcpdump command will capture data on the eth0 interface and redirect output to a text
file named checkme.txt for further analysis?

A

tcpdump -i eth0 -w checkme.txt

70
Q

Which terminal emulation protocol is similar to RDP but is open source?

A

VNC (Virtual Network Connection)

71
Q

Which port must be open for RDP traffic to cross a firewall?

A

3389

72
Q

Which transmission characteristic is never fully achieved?
a. Latency
b. Throughput
c. Bit rate
d. Bandwidth

A

d. Bandwidth

72
Q

Which kind of crosstalk occurs between wire pairs near the source of the signal?
a. Alien
b. TX/RX reverse
c. FEXT
d. NEXT

A

d. NEXT

72
Q

Which kind of multiplexing assigns slots to nodes according to priority and need?
a. WDM (wavelength division multiplexing)
b. STDM (statistical time division multiplexing)
c. TDM (time division multiplexing)
d. CWDM (coarse wavelength division multiplexing)

A

b. STDM (statistical time division multiplexing)

73
Q

Which cable is best suited for ultra-high-speed connections between a router and a switch on the same rack?
a. RG-6 coaxial cable
b. Cat 5e twisted-pair cable
c. Cat 6 twisted-pair cable
d. Passive twinaxial cable

A

d. Passive twinaxial cable

73
Q

Which of these categories of twisted-pair cable can support Gigabit Ethernet?
a. Cat 5, cat 6, cat 7
b. Cat 5e, cat 6, cat 3
c. Cat 5e, cat 6a, cat 7
d. Cat 6, cat 7a, cat 5

A

c. Cat 5e, cat 6a, cat 7

73
Q

Suppose you’re creating patch cables to be used in a government office. What color wire goes in the first pin?
a. White/orange
b. White/green
c. Brown
d. Blue

A

b. White/green

74
Q

What is the earliest twisted-pair cabling standard that meets the minimum requirements for 10GBASE-T transmissions at 100 meters?
a. Cat 5e
b. Cat 6
c. Cat 6a
d. Cat 7

A

c. Cat 6a

75
Q

What type of fiber-cable problem is caused when pairing a 50-micron core cable with a 62.5- micron core cable?
a. Dirty connectors
b. Wavelength mismatch
c. Fiber type mismatch
d. TX/RX reverse

A

c. Fiber type mismatch

75
Q

Which fiber connector contains two strands of fiber in each ferrule?
a. MT-RJ
b. SC
c. ST
d. LC

A

a. MT-RJ

76
Q

Which part of a toner and probe kit emits an audible tone when it detects electrical activity on a wire pair?
a. TDR
b. Tone generator
c. Tone locator
d. Toner

A

c. Tone locator

77
Q

How is latency measured, and in what unit?

A

Latency is measured by calculating a packet’s RTT, or the length of time it takes for a packet to go from sender to receiver, then back from receiver to sender. RTT is usually measured in milliseconds.

77
Q

What is a twist ratio, and why is it important?

A

Twist ratio is the number of twists per meter or foot. The more twists per foot in a pair of wires, the more resistant the pair will be to crosstalk or noise.

77
Q

What fiber is used in fiber-optic cabling to protect the inner core and prevent the cable from stretching?

A

To prevent the cable from stretching, and to protect the inner core further, strands of Kevlar (a polymeric fiber) surround the plastic buffer.

78
Q

What characteristic of optical transmission is primarily responsible for the distance
limitations of fiber-optic cabling?

A

Optical loss

78
Q

Why is SMF more efficient over long distances than MMF?

A

The core of SMF is much narrower than that of MMF and reflects very little. The light does not disperse as much along the fiber

79
Q

Why do APC ferrules create less back reflection than UPC ferrules?

A

The end faces are placed at an angle to each other, and the reflection is sent back
in a different direction than the source of the signal.

80
Q

Which fiber transceiver is the same size as SFP transceivers, but can support network speeds
over 10 Gbps?

A

SFP+ transceivers are the same module size as SFP; theoretical maximum
transmission speed is 16 Gbps

81
Q

Suppose you’re assisting with a cable installation using fiber-optic cabling that will support Gigabit Ethernet. You’re approved to install segments up to 4000 m in length. What mode of
fiber cable are you using?

A

SMF

81
Q

What is the difference between short circuits and open circuits?

A

A short circuit is one where connections exist in places they shouldn’t, while an open circuit is one where needed connections are missing.

82
Q

What kind of tool can measure the distance to the location of damage in a cable?

A

Answers may include cable performance tester, line tester, certifier, or network tester.

82
Q

What is the lowest layer of the OSI model at which wired and wireless transmissions share
the same protocols?
a. Layer 4
b. Layer 3
c. Layer 2
d. Layer 1

A

b. Layer 3

82
Q

As you’re troubleshooting a dead zone in your office, which measurement will help you
determine the edges of the dead zone?
a. RSSI
b. Channel
c. EIRP
d. Band

A

a. RSSI (received signal strength indicator)

82
Q

Which one of the following wireless transmission types requires a clear LOS to function?
a. Bluetooth
b. NFC
c. IR
d. Wi-Fi

A

c. IR (infrared)

83
Q

Which of the following wireless technologies does not use the 2.4 GHz band?
a. Z-Wave
b. Bluetooth
c. ZigBee
d. Wi-Fi

A

a. Z-Wave

83
Q

Which function of WPA/WPA2 security ensures data cannot be read in transit?
a. Message integrity
b. Authentication
c. Encryption
d. Key distribution

A

c. Encryption

84
Q

Which protocol replaced TKIP for WPA2?
a. CCMP
b. WEP
c. RADIUS
d. RC4

A

a. CCMP

84
Q

Which 802.11 standard functions in both the 2.4-GHz and 5-GHz bands?
a. 802.11g
b. 802.11ac
c. 802.11b
d. 802.11ax

A

d. 802.11ax

85
Q

Which Carrier Sense technology is used on wireless networks to reduce collisions?
a. CSMA/CD
b. EAPoL
c. CSMA/CA
d. SSID

A

c. CSMA/CA

86
Q

You’ve just completed a survey of the wireless signals traversing the airspace in your company’s vicinity, and you’ve found an unauthorized AP with a very strong signal near the middle of the 100-acre campus. Its SSID is broadcasting the name of a smartphone model. What kind of threat do you need to report to your boss?
a. Rogue AP
b. War driving
c. Evil twin
d. Hidden node

A

a. Rogue AP

86
Q

You just settled in for some study time at the local coffee shop, and you pause long enough to connect your smartphone to the Wi-Fi so you can listen to some music while you study. As you’re about to sign in, you realize that you clicked on an SSID called “Free Coffee and Internet.” What kind of security trap did you almost fall for?
a. Guest network
b. Captive portal
c. Evil twin
d. Brute force attack

A

c. Evil twin

86
Q

To exchange information, two antennas must be tuned to the same

A

frequency or channel

87
Q

What addresses does an 802.11 frame contain that an 802.3 frame does not?

A

Transmitter address and Receiver address

88
Q

When a wireless signal encounters a large obstacle with wide, smooth surfaces, what happens to the signal?

A

The signal reflects, or bounces back, toward its source.

88
Q

Signals traveling through areas in which many wireless communications systems are in use will exhibit a lower –––––––– due to the higher proportion of noise.

A

SNR

88
Q

What is the primary difference between how WPA2-Personal and WPA2-Enterprise are implemented on a network?

A

WPA2-Enterprise requires a RADIUS authentication server

89
Q

Why do wireless networks generally experience a greater reduction in throughput compared with wired networks?

A

Wireless networks experience a high number of collisions and require greater

90
Q

What size bonded channels do 802.11ac and 802.11ax support?

A

20-, 40-, 80-, and 160-MHz channels

90
Q

What feature of a site survey maps the Wi-Fi signals in your location?

A

Heat map

90
Q

You’re setting up a home network for your neighbor, who is a music teacher. She has students visiting her home regularly for lessons and wants to provide Internet access for their parents while they’re waiting on the children. However, she’s concerned about keeping her own data private. What wireless feature can you configure on her AP to meet her requests?

A

Guest network or wireless client isolation

90
Q

Which 802.11X authentication protocol is often used by WLANs?

A

EAPoL

90
Q

What software allows you to define VMs and manage resource allocation and sharing among
VMs on a host computer?
a. Hypervisor
b. NFV (Network Functions Virtualization)
c. SDN (software-defined networking)
d. Terminal emulation

A

a. Hypervisor

91
Q

What virtual, logically defined device operates primarily at the data link layer to pass frames between nodes?
a. Virtual firewall
b. Virtual switch
c. Virtual router
d. Virtual load balancer

A

b. Virtual switch

91
Q

Which device can manage traffic to multiple servers in a cluster so all servers equally share
the traffic?
a. Router
b. Firewall
c. Switch
d. Load balancer

A

d. Load balancer

92
Q

With which network connection type does the VM obtain IP addressing information from its
host?
a. Bridged mode
b. Managed mode
c. NAT mode
d. Isolation mode

A

c. NAT mode

93
Q

Which type of switch connects all devices in a rack to the rest of the network?
a. ToR switch
b. Spine switch
c. EoR switch
d. Core switch

A

a. ToR switch

93
Q

Which cloud service model gives software developers access to multiple platforms for testing
code?
a. IaaS
b. PaaS
c. SaaS
d. XaaS

A

b. PaaS

93
Q

When shopping for a new router, what does the MTBF tell you?
a. How long until that device fails
b. How much it will cost to repair that device
c. How long devices like this one will last on average until the next failure
d. How long it will usually take to repair that device

A

: c. How long devices like this one will last on average until the next failure

94
Q

What information does the switchport port-security command use to restrict access to a
switch’s interface?
a. MAC address
b. Port number
c. IP address
d. Broadcast address

A

a. MAC address

95
Q

Which of the following features of a network connection between a switch and server is not
improved by link aggregation?
a. Bandwidth
b. Fault tolerance
c. Speed
d. Availability

A

c. Speed

95
Q

Which cloud management technique executes a series of tasks in a workflow?
a. Automation
b. IaC
c. SLA
d. Orchestration

A

d. Orchestration

95
Q

List two advantages to using virtualization on a network.

A

Answers will include two of the following:
* Efficient use of resources
* Cost and energy savings
* Fault and threat isolation
* Simple backups, recovery, and replication

96
Q

List available options for connecting to cloud resources

A

Organizations generally offer an array of options, including Internet, VPN (virtual
private network), remote access connections (such as SSH and RDP), a leased line from an
ISP, and a private or dedicated direct connection.

96
Q

How does a vNIC get a MAC address without manual intervention?

A

Upon creation, each vNIC is automatically assigned a MAC address.

97
Q

What type of adapters are required on servers in an FCoE storage network?

A

CNA (converged network adapter)

97
Q

. What are two use cases for a VIP (virtual IP address)?

A

A single VIP (virtual IP address) can be used to represent a cluster of resources such as web servers. Alternatively, it might be used to assign a different IP address to multiple instances of the same service running on a single machine.

97
Q

Which type of hypervisor is installed directly on top of the server’s firmware?

A

Type 1 hypervisor

98
Q

Only one exists on a network using STP

A

root bridge

99
Q

What protocol is most often used to bond ports between a switch and a busy server?

A

LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol)

99
Q

How is licensing an important concern when using virtualization?

A

Each virtualized device needs its own license in addition to a license for the
hypervisor

100
Q

What kind of device can be used to configure and manage physical and virtual networking devices across the network?

A

SDN controller or network controller

101
Q

How many bits of a class A IP address are used for host information?
a. 8 bits
b. 16 bits
c. 24 bits
d. 32 bits

A

c. 24 bits

102
Q

What is the formula for determining the number of possible hosts on a network?
a. 2n = Y
b. 2n – 2 = Y
c. 2h = Z
d. 2h – 2 = Z

A

d. 2h – 2 = Z

103
Q

Which of the following is not a good reason to segment a network?
a. To limit access to broadcast domains
b. To reduce the demand on bandwidth
c. To increase the number of networking devices on a network
d. To narrow down the location of problems on a network

A

c. To increase the number of networking devices on a network

104
Q

What is the greatest number of bits you could borrow from the host portion of a class B subnet
mask and still have at least 130 hosts per subnet?
a. 0 bits
b. 8 bits
c. 9 bits
d. 10 bits

A

b. 8 bits

105
Q

What do well-chosen subnets accomplish?
a. IP address spaces overlap for easier management.
b. Network documentation is easier to manage.
c. Routing efficiency is decreased by ensuring IP address spaces are not mathematically related.
d. Problems affect the entire network, making them more difficult to pin down.

A

b. Network documentation is easier to manage

105
Q

Which formulas can be used to calculate the magic number? Choose two
a. 256 – the interesting octet
b. 2h – 2
c. 2n
d. 2h

A

a. 256 – the interesting octet
d. 2h

106
Q

Which hexadecimal block in an IPv6 address is used for the Subnet ID?
a. The first one
b. The third one
c. The fourth one
d. The eighth one

A

c. The fourth one

107
Q

Which assignment technique requires a RADIUS server?
a. Dynamic VLAN assignment
b. Dynamic IP address assignment
c. Static IP address assignment
d. Static VLAN assignment

A

a. Dynamic VLAN assignment

107
Q

Which port mode on a switch enables that port to manage traffic for multiple VLANs?
a. Private
b. Community
c. Access
d. Trunk

A

d. Trunk

107
Q

Which IEEE standard determines how VLANs work on a network?
a. 802.1X
b. 802.11
c. 802.3af
d. 802.1Q

A

d. 802.1Q

107
Q

What is the network ID with CIDR notation for the IP address 172.16.32.108 whose subnet mask is 255.255.255.0?

A

172.16.32.0/24

107
Q

Suppose your company has leased one class C license, 120.10.10.0, and wants to sublease the first half of these IP addresses to another company. What is the CIDR notation for the subnet to be subleased? What is the subnet mask for this network?

A

120.10.10.0/25
255.255.255.128

107
Q

Subnetting operates at the __________ layer while VLANs function at the _________ layer.

A

Network, Data Link

108
Q

Which VLAN on a switch manages untagged frames?

A

The native VLAN

109
Q

An attacker configures a VLAN frame with two tags instead of just one. The first tag directs the frame to the authorized VLAN. After the frame enters the first VLAN, the switch appropriately removes the tag, then discovers the next tag, and sends the frame along to a protected VLAN, which the attacker is not authorized to access. What kind of attack is this?

A

Either VLAN hopping or double tagging is an acceptable answer.

109
Q

What area of a network can provide less stringent security so a web server is more accessible from the open Internet?

A

Either screened subnet or DMZ (demilitarized zone) is an acceptable answer.

109
Q

On which networking device do you configure VLANs?

A

Either switch or managed switch is an acceptable answer.

110
Q

Which IP addressing technique subnets a subnet to create subnets of various sizes?

A

VLSM (variable length subnet mask)

110
Q

Which VLAN type would be the best fit for a company’s web servers that need to be accessible from the Internet but should not be able to communicate with each other?

A

Isolated VLAN

111
Q

Which Cisco command lists configured VLANs on a switch?

A

show vlan

112
Q

Which OSI layer is responsible for directing data from one LAN to another?
a. Transport layer
b. Network layer
c. Data link layer
d. Physical layer

A

b. Network layer

112
Q

What kind of route is created when a network administrator configures a router to use a specific path between nodes?
a. Trace route
b. Static route
c. Default route
d. Dynamic route

A

b. Static route

112
Q

When a router can’t determine a path to a message‘s destination, where does it send the message?
a. Default gateway
b. Routing table
c. Administrative distance
d. Gateway of last resort

A

d. Gateway of last resort

112
Q

A routing protocol’s reliability and priority are rated by what measurement?
a. Routing table
b. MTU
c. Latency
d. AD

A

d. AD

112
Q

Which routing protocol does an edge router use to collect data to build its routing tables for paths across the Internet?
a. RIPv2
b. BGP
c. OSPF
d. IP

A

: b. BGP

112
Q

What is the lowest layer of the OSI model at which LANs and WANs support the same protocols?
a. Layer 2
b. Layer 3
c. Layer 4
d. Layer 5

A

b. Layer 3

113
Q

What kind of device can monitor a connection at the demarc but cannot interpret data?
a. Line driver
b. CSU/DSU
c. DTE
d. Smartjack

A

d. Smartjack

113
Q

What specifications define the standards for cable broadband?
a. PSTN
b. HFC
c. FTTC
d. DOCSIS

A

d. DOCSIS

113
Q

What method does a GSM network use to separate data on a channel?
a. SIM
b. CDMA
c. TDMA
d. TDM

A

c. TDMA

113
Q

Which of these cellular technologies offers the fastest speeds?
a. 4G-LTE
b. LTE-A
c. CDMA
d. GSM

A

: b. LTE-A

114
Q

Where is an MPLS label inserted into a message’s headers?

A

MPLS labels together are sometimes called a shim because of their placement
between layer 2 and layer 3 information. For this reason, MPLS is sometimes said to belong
to “layer 2.5.”

115
Q

What four functions do all routers perform?

A

: 1. Connect dissimilar networks. 2. Interpret Layers 3 and 4 addressing and other
information. 3. Determine the best path for data to follow. 4. Reroute traffic if a primary path
is down but another path is available.

115
Q

What database does a router consult before determining the most efficient path for delivering a message?

A

: Its routing table

116
Q

Give three examples of routing metrics used by routers to determine the best of various available routing paths.

A

(Any three) Hop count, theoretical bandwidth, actual throughput, path latency (or
delay), path load, MTU, cost, reliability, network topology

116
Q

List three IGPs (interior gateway protocols).

A

(Any three) RIP, RIPv2, OSPF, IS-IS, EIGRP

116
Q

How can you create a private and secure connection with your cloud network over the Internet?

A

A VPN travels over an Internet connection to give direct and secure access to cloud
resources.

116
Q

List three transport methods that can be used to support an SD-WAN

A

Any three WAN connectivity methods, such as DSL, cable broadband, fiber
broadband, leased line, MPLS, cellular, and satellite.

116
Q

When you list a router’s routing table, one of the routes is labeled with an S. Which routing protocol was used to create this route?

A

None—it’s a static route configured by a network administrator.

117
Q

What command will ensure the configuration changes you made to a switch will persist after you restart the switch?

A

copy running-config startup-config or copy run start

118
Q

What device must be installed on a DSL network to protect the sound quality of phone calls?

A

A splitter

Network Fundamentals (3 decks)

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