Exam Prep Flashcards

1
Q

What is a negative effect of pressurising a/c? Explain

How can we increase the safe life of an a/c?

A

It has detrimental effects on the fatigue life of an a/c. With each pressurisation cycle the a/c will initially stretch placing skin under tension and fasteners under shear stress, followed by depressurisation back to normal.
This cycle will slowly fatigue the a/c structure which will eventually terminate its “safe life”. We can increase its life by limiting the cruise altitude, flying within the envelope, avoiding turbulent air and avoiding heavy landings.

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2
Q

Describe in detail the structure of a semi monocoque skin

A

The metal (typically aluminium alloy) skin is riveted to longerons, bulkheads and other structural members and will carry part of the load. The thickness of the skin is determined by the load carried at a particular point and the stresses at this location, as the skin absorbs most of the loading hence “stressed skin”.

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3
Q

What are some advantages to the semi monocoque design?

A

Both the skin and the frame share the load. Ie) the bulkheads, stringers, frames and longerons are able to add strength and rigidity to the structure and help facilitate the shape/design of the structure.

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4
Q

What is a major disadvantage of using metal airframes?

What are some techniques to avoid this?

A

Corrosion.
Regular washing of a/c, hangering of a/c if not using a/c long term, not damaging painted surfaces, moisture removal chemicals to internal structures, and care with hazardous chemicals.
Mercury is VERY hazardous to a/c skin if metal and will instantly react and destroy the structural integrity.

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5
Q

What are the 4 types of fuel used in large jets?

Describe their different properties.

A

Jet A: same as JA1 but has a higher freeze point (-40*c), aka AVTUR40, is a low temperature fuel
JetA1: very common, aka kerosene/AVTUR50. FP -47 FP38
JetB: is used in cold climates as has a low freeze point, low flash point and low viscosity, aka wide cut fuel/AVTAG (30% kerosene, 70% gasoline) and has military uses.
JP5: has a high flash point so is used on a/c carriers for safety reasons.

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6
Q

What type of chemical are jet fuels fundamentally?

What additive does jet fuel sometimes consist of? Why?

A

Hydrocarbons, so therefore hydrogen and carbon.

Sometimes gasoline is added to reduce gas turbine fuels tendency to become viscous at high altitudes.

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7
Q

How are jet fuels designed (in terms of producing oxides)?

What colour are jet fuels?

A

Designed to produced gaseous oxides which keeps solid particles to a minimum which could block turbine blade nozzles/erode turbine blades.
Jet fuels have a natural straw colour.

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8
Q

What types of fuel tanks are there?

A

Rigid, bladder and integral.

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9
Q

Explain the rigid, bladder and integral fuel tank types

A

Rigid: require an open space in structure to install an AlAlloy tank that is welded/riveted to structure. Usually has shock absorbing rubber coating that is self sealing.
Bladder: requires a free space in structure to install a thin fabric of an impervious material (neoprene).
Integral: make use of spare space in wing (wet wing). Wing will be sealed to create fuel cell and can include baffles to reduce surging/increase strength.

-bladder and rigid type need restraining in wing

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10
Q

Why are fuel tanks pressurised?

Do gravity systems require additional pumps?

A

To create a positive pressure head to fuel system and reduce vaporisation.
Gravity fed systems require a venting system so the tanks don’t suffer caviatations.

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11
Q

What is the main purpose of a sump?

What is the main purpose of the fuel drain and how does it work?

A

A sump is a sediment trap at the lowest part of a fuel tank that allows impurities and water to accumulate so they can be drained, collected and inspected.
It has a sealing poppet that when depressed allows fuel to drain.
Main purpose of fuel drain is to collect water.

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12
Q

How can water be prevented from entering fuel tanks?

Is AVTUR or AVGAS more hygroscopic?

A

Water by condensation can be prevented by filling tanks full every night. Also by including a standpipe which prevents the last of the fuel (possibly contaminated) from entering the fuel system.
AVTUR.

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13
Q

Can engines tolerate water?

A

Yes, but only if it’s dissolved. Large slugs of water can cause engine damage or failure. Frozen water can block tubes/filters and lead to fuel starvation.
Water can harvest microbial growth and corrosion

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14
Q

What is vapourlock? What can cause it?

What can it cause?

A

A condition for which the fuel vaporises in the feed lines of the fuel system at the high point so that fuel flow is blocked.
Is caused by either high temperatures and/or low pressure.
Can cause fuel starvation.

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15
Q

What should be done to fix vapour lock on a ground start?

A

Fuel pump on (mags off), full throttle and full rich. Then wind the starter for a few seconds. Then leave for 10min and try hot start.

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16
Q

Name characteristics of aluminium in its pure state. What is the major disadvantage of AlAlloys?
Does composite plastics have this problem?

A

Al in its pure state is lightweight, lustrous, corrosion resistant, ductile, malleable and are non magnetic.
AlAlloys although stronger, are corrosive. This has a relatively predictable fatigue life and will notice cracks in inspections. Plastics don’t necessarily corrode but they will have a structural failure immediately and not small cracks beforehand.

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17
Q

What purpose are booster pumps? What type of pump are they typically? Are they submersible?

A

AKA auxiliary pumps are not required necessarily on high wing a/c.
On low wing a/c is used to provide a positive fuel pressure head, to aid starting, cross feed systems, t/o and landing to prevent vapour lock, jettison fuel.
Are generally electrical or centrifuge type.
Yes, to help draw all the fuel from the tank.

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18
Q

Describe the operation of an electronic capacitance type fuel indicator. What are some advantages/disadvantages?

A

They are several metal tubes placed in fuel. Air and fuel act as dielectrics and the metal tubes read the change in fuel volume by the different capacitances, so the total capacitance across the probes will change.This info is sent to a bridge circuit which then drives an indicator. It is used to calculated fuel MASS.
A: There are no moving parts. Not affected by attitude changes as total capacitance across probes remains the same.
D: Density affects fuel dielectric, however a compensator unit is included to counteract the differences.

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19
Q

What are some other forms of fuel quantity indicators?

A

Float type (pointer or rod), electrical ratio meter, basic type

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20
Q

What is the purpose of a cross feed system? Draw a schematic

A

They are used to correct fuel imbalance due to engines burning unequally (different TBO age), heaters using fuel, asymmetric, fuel leaks, shift for W+B, or shift fuel in case of engine failure.
GO LEARN THE SHIT OUT OF THE DIAGRAM

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21
Q

What is an advantage of hydraulic systems over mechanical systems?
What PSI does an average a/c operate?

A

Low volume, low initial cost, high reliability, low weight per unit power, easier construction/design, reduced maintenance cost, efficient (little losses due friction), small pipe diameter (flexibility in construction)
Can use a small force to produce a larger force using pascals principal. 3000PSI

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22
Q

What are the different types of pumps that can be used in hydraulics?

A

Hand pump (emergencies)
Power driven
Electrically driven
RAT (Ram air turbine)

Constant delivery/displacement include (output per cycle constant)

  • gear type (low/med Q 1500PSI)
  • vane type (high Q, low px)
  • radial/axial Piston (high px 3000-3500)

Variable displacement include:
-axial Piston

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23
Q

Draw diagrams and give a brief explanation on gear type, vane type, axial Piston and Piston type pumps

A

Go to pictures on iPad.

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24
Q

What is the purpose of a pressure regulator/relief valve?
How can they be operated?
Draw a relief valve

A

Hydraulic will not deliver pressure until actioned to. If not required the fluid will flow back around through to the reservoir. Pressure will build up once required too, but to protect the system and its components from damage will have a pressure regulator to direct excess fluid back to the reservoir. The relief valve is a back up to the pressure regulator and prevent excess pressure due temperature rise.
Manual, electric, mechanical, hydraulic or a combination of multiple

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25
Q

What is the purpose of an actuator?

Draw a linear actuator

A

To convert the hydraulic pressure in a system into mechanical movement to do useful work.

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26
Q

What is the purpose of an accumulator?

How does it work? Draw a diagram to explain (Piston/bladder type)

A

They smooth out shocks and store fluid to aid supplying peaks in emergencies.
Is a pressure vessel divided into 2 by a flexible diaphragm or bladder, one space connected to hydraulic system and the other to N2 (px N2 1/2 system operating px). Fluid is pumped in which compresses the gas and can act like a spring. This means it can smooth out shocks (variations in system pressure) and also readily supply fluid when demand peaks.

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27
Q

Explain selector valves, check valves, sequencing valves, shuttle valves

A

Check valves: prevent back flow is a system. They provide some measure of protection of a leak of px upstream of valve. Can be a simple ball and spring. Aka non return valves.
Selector valves: used to initiate actuators and their direction of movement by controlling the path of hydraulic fluid.
Shuttle valve: allows flow from one or more inputs of pressure reduces.
Sequencing valve: ensures the correct order of valves (ie landing gear)

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28
Q

What types of hydraulic fluids are there? What are the basic ideal properties of hydraulic fluid?

A

Vegetable, mineral and synthetic.

Fire resistant, low viscosity and chemically stable, operate high temp/px

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29
Q

What colour is vegetable, mineral and synthetic based HF? When is it used? Fire resistant? What seals does it require? What are they derived from

A

V: blue, very flammable, typically older a/c and requires rubber seals, castor oil/alcohol
M: red, flammable, general aviation and requires synthetic (neoprene) rubber seals, petroleum
S: light purple, civil aviation, high flash point/will not combust, synthetic seals, non petroleum

30
Q

What are the requirements of a large a/c landing gear system?

A

The undercarriage must provide a safe, reliable and serviceable means to:
Support a/c weight, absorb landing/shock absorption, withstand side loads, protection from inadvertent retraction on the ground, minimum rolling friction, min drag airborne, traction for braking, min weight/high strength.

31
Q

An additional system required on large a/c is nose wheel steering, how does this system work?

A

A tiller or steering wheel activates a hydraulic actuator, through a system of cables/pulleys, electrical synchros/servos or fly by wire.
It requires a follow up system so that wheel does not continue to rotate once the desired angle has been met.

32
Q

Draw out the landing gear system. And label/describe the components

A

Pivot trunnion, side brace (2 parts), torque arms, pivot fork and shaft, equaliser, lower inner cylinder, upper outer cylinder, axles, wheels, drag brace, h member/pivot beam
Just go check pictures as cbf doing the rest.

33
Q

How do power brakes work?

A

Pressing the brake pedals are connected to control valves which are able to regulate the pressure of HF in the brake system proportional to the force applied by the pilot. A check valve and accumulator will hold the pressure in the system in case of hydraulic failure. When brakes are released return lines are open to release HF.
The amount of force however has no direct affect on the braking strength, unlike the independent/boosted brakes.

34
Q

Why are anti skid brakes required? How do anti skid brakes work?

A
Comprised of wheel speed sensor, control unit and anti skid control valves. As a large a/c pilot can’t feel individual wheels they have no indication of skid and apply puke braking. So a CPU detects the optimal wheel speed so that it is on the verge of a skid/wheel lock up.
AC generator (stator wheel axle, rotor wheel hub) that generates an AC output frequency proportional to the speed of the wheel. This info is sent to a CPU to detect the rate of deceleration of the wheel, against known maximum allowable, and will adjust brake strength by releasing HF to avoid a skid, regardless of how hard the pilot presses the brakes.
35
Q

What is the purpose of radio altimeters?

A

To indicate the actual height above the surface of the ground (AGL)

36
Q

Describe the 2 operating principals of the RADALT

A

1) requires 2 aerial. A continuous FM wave is transmitted from the front aerial to the ground, reflected and picked up by the rear aerial. A shield is required so the aerial don’t pick up the immediate signal. The freq transmitted sweeps 4200-4260MHz at a known rate so the time difference can be used to determine height AGL.
Difference in freq= rate of change freq x time (diff freq proportional time which is used to calculate height since v radio wave known)
2) uses pulsed modulation (like primary radar). A signal is transmitted with a constant freq of 1600MHz and returns to the same aerial so the timing can be used to calculate a night AGL

37
Q

Describe the limitations of RADALT

What is the accuracy?

A

Fixed error: occurs from the method of transferring freq diff into height having to interpret between the numbers on the indicator (scale of 5ft so max error +/-2.5ft)
Range surface dependant: best surface is water. Hard packed soil better than snow. Worst is dry, fine and loose soil.
False indications: due banking a/c or nature of uneven terrain below (2000AGL could be 2500ft)
Upper limit: not used above 2500ft

+/-2ft or 2% upto 500ft, can read down till 20ft

38
Q

What is the purpose of the master warning system?

Where are warnings displayed and how is this a modern development?

A

To alert crew to an operational problem or system malfunction using visual, aural and tactile methods.
Is the modern development as cockpit space limitations means individual warning lights were placed next to their respective system, which was ineffective as may be out of immediate view. So master warnings are placed on CWS (centralised warning system)

39
Q

Describe the 3 ways an alert can be delivered

A

Visual: coloured lights (most common)
Aural: noise or speech
-warnings can be bells/voices/siren/wailer
-cautions can be voice/beeper/clacker
-both will remain until corrected/inhibited
Tactile: operator will feel movement (stick shaker)

40
Q

How can a pilot inhibits an alert? Why may it need to be inhibited? Will a system ever be auto inhibited?

A

Warnings can be inhibited by pressing the master warning system which will stop the flashing/aural alert… but light will stay on.
The only way to inhibit the tactile alert is to correct the unsafe condition.
Can be inhibited cause the lights/noise distracting which can disrupt the crews thinking.
Yes, some systems are auto inhibited for engine start/take off/passing certain altitude etc.

41
Q

CWP is a generic name, what do Boeing/Airbus call their CWS?

A

ECAM (electronic centralised a/c monitoring) Airbus

EICAS (engine indicating and crew alerting system) Boeing

42
Q

What are the inputs/outputs of the microburst wind shear warning system?

A

Inputs: pilot source, static source, radio altimeter, vertical gyro, angle of attack transducer, flap position
To the wind shear computer with integral acceleration sensors
Outputs: FD computer/attitude director CPU, flight deck alert system (visual/aural)

Works of rate of change airspeed vs ground speed

43
Q

Describe the inputs/outputs of GPWS

A

Inputs: radio altimeter, vertical speed sensor/Baro rate sensor (ADC and ALT), ILS glide path sensor, undercarriage selection, flap position (anything unique to finals), …possibly airspeed, GPS
To a CPU
Output: master indicator (EICAS/ECAM), visual/aural warning

44
Q

How many modes does GPWS have?

Draw out a table with the mode and its associated flight hazard, warning envelope, alert and warning

A

Sorry mate you better go do it :(

Apply analogy and a bit of common sense

45
Q

Describe TCAS I

A

Most basic.
Able to monitor other a/c in the vicinity 40miles with mode C/S transponders (requiring min mode C itself), providing bearing and altitude info on traffic. They do not provide RA, only TA when within 30sec.
Will display targets if typically in 4nm radius/1200ft vertically

46
Q

Describe TCAS II, how does TCAS III differ

A

Requires mode S.
Provides all benefits of TCAS I, but also has the ability to provide vertical RA if traffic within 45sec. Requires both a/c to be fitted with mode S and TCAS II for COORDINATED RA, or just TA/RA is you are mode S.
TCAS III is horizontal as well as vertical.

47
Q

What is the purpose of ACAS? What does it stand for?

Describe the abilities of a ACAS II/III transponder with mode A through S with II/III

A

Airborne collision warning system.
ACAS aka TCAS is a system that provides alert information of conflicting traffic and warning of impending collision.
Check pictures.

48
Q

What is the principal of operation behind ACAS?
What is the min required equipment for other a/c to interact with your ACAS?
What does ACAS not consider?

A

An ACAS equipped a/c will interrogate all other transponder equipped a/c on the radio freq 1030MHz, within a given range. This back and fourth communication allows the ACAS system to build a 3D model of bearing, height and range of ‘intruders’ and can use this info to predict future position/rate of closure to your a/c for which the ACAS determines if a threat or not based on their relative position.
ACAS can only interact with other a/c with a properly working mode C/S transponder.
ACAS is independent of MFS & ATC ground systems, will not account for ATC instructions.

49
Q

What kind of sensor is a ring laser gyro?
What advantages are the to RLG?
Where can a RLG be applied?

A

A solid state rate sensor.
No moving parts (no gimbal lock, friction therefore no real wander), no precession, lightweight, compact, sturdy, easy to maintain, more accurate.
Almost exclusively strap down INS.

50
Q

Describe the principal of operation of a RLG

A

Tubes are filled with helium and neon gas, which when an EMF is applied produces a laser light (coherent light… same phase/freq). Light will travel through 2 tubes in opposite directions around a triangle with 2 mirrors and 1 imperfect mirror, in which steady state oscillation occurs.
Rotation of the RLG will extend/reduce the length travelled by the laser which disrupts the pure freq and phase sin wave in the 2 tubes (for which they should match). For a given path there is an integral number of cycles, and if the path is say extended, there will be less cycles per unit time so freq decreases. This creates a fringe pattern picked up by photo receptors which can be used to calculate the rate of rotation. The mirror ahead of photo receptor will reflect the freq light the RLG is designed to operate at and let through any others.

51
Q

What are the limitations of RLG? How do engineers fix it?

A

Biggest is laser lock. This is where at small rates of rotation (0.001*/hr) the freq difference between the contra rotating is 0 as the beams are pulled together and the RLG can’t read and so rotation is ‘locked’.
That degree is required for INS so the solution is to include a vibrating device (piezo electric either motor) at approx 400Hz which breaks the laser lock. This must be fed to the CPU so it knows to ignore this vibration.
Longer tubes/more reflections is more accurate.

52
Q

What are the components to ACAS?

A

2 aerials (one top other bottom), 2 transponders, CPU

53
Q

What is INS?

A

A long range nav system that can provide an accurate and continuous fix. It employs great circle nav to provide accurate steering to AFDS.

54
Q

What components are there to an INS?

A

CDU: central display unit is the interface between crew and INS/FMS and its purpose is to allow crew to input flight plan data. There are 3 per a/c for redundancy and monitoring for internal errors/human input errors.
Accelerometers: min 2/upto 3. E/W, N/S and possibly up/down (could be provided ADC). They measure accelerations in the respective planes for which displacement can be measured. For every accelerometer is a rate gyro free in all 3 axis.
Gyro stable platform: holds the accelerometers in azimuth and aligned to true north and isolates them from vibration, attitude changes and turbulence. They are aligned in a process called gyro compassing in preflight and must be done before a flight plan is entered.
INS computers: will have 3 for redundancy and uses data from accelerometers. Is coupled with AFDS to steer/navigate a/c.

55
Q

Explain the difference between the strap down and stable platform INS

A

Stable: inertial sensors are placed on a platform isolated from external rotation, kept in azimuth and aligned to true north by gyros (rate; free 3 axis) and CPU. Any platform motion detected is sent to torque motors which rotate gimbals to cancel out rotations, maintaining alignment. To find orientation, angled between adjacent gimbals using pick off coils.
Strap down: 3 RLG/accelerometer pairs are attached at right angles and attached firmly to INS unit, no gimbals. Azimuth is maintained mathematically (data from RLG) and CPU remembers last known position after shutdown.

Simply, stable is accelerometers/gyros whereas strapdown is RLG/rate.

56
Q

What is the mathematical principal behind inertial referencing?

A

Inertia.

A change in acceleration is integrated to give velocity which can be further integrated to find distance.

57
Q

What are the inputs/outputs of INS?

A

The systems own computer is coupled directly with the AFDS to steer and navigate the a/c.
Is controlled through the CDU of the FMS.
Has inputs from ADC.
Will display info on EFIS & AHRS.

58
Q

What are the parameters of the FDR?

A

Measures 45-300 parameters based on a/c age and type.
Transmitters in flight controls, info from central CPU or engine management systems are sent to acquisition unit which feeds this info to FDR, which can then be read by investigators if required.
NZ law states min 25hrs.
Outputs include ADIRU & AIDS.

59
Q

What is the purpose of the CVR?

A

Records crew conversations (both pilots, FA and area mic) on 4 seperate channels. Will record engine sounds/aircraft system sounds on area mic. Sounds could also be through intercom.
Sounds are recorded on an endless tape that overrides itself every 30-60min. The recording may be erased once WOW switch is activated.

60
Q

What are the components the CVR?

What are the components of the CVR system?

A

CVS: audio compressor board, a/c interface board, acquisition processor board, underwater locator beacon.
Is powered by the ESSBUS and has a CB, unlike FDR.
System: recorder, control panel, ceiling mounted mic, back up battery, CB

61
Q

What is the purpose of the altitude alert system?

A

A/c with high RoC can altitude bust as crew are not familiar with a/c or do not anticipate level off. Altitude alerts visual/audio are 1000ft and 200ft to go and are mandatory on IFR a/c.
Alerting systems are linked by synchros/data bus to ADC/RADALT.

62
Q

Define CAS, EAS, M, Ml, VMO, MCRIT

A

CAS is the IAS corrected for instrument and position error.
EAS is CAS corrected for compressibility error.
M is ratio of airspeed to local speed of sound is same atmospheric conditions
Ml is speed of sound for a given altitude.
VMO is the max operating speed (Vne)
Mcrit is critical Mach number

63
Q

Describe the principal of construction and operation of the simple mach-meter. Draw it out

A

Purpose is to indicate TAS to speed of sound, which is done by reading (d-s)/s.
Incorporates ALT & ASI capsule.
Check notes

64
Q

What are the inputs/outputs of ADC?

A

Inputs (atmospheric conditions): static/total px, total temperature, AoA
Outputs: altitude, vertical speed, CAS, TAS, M, VMO, TAT/SAT
-Then through data bus has outputs to AFDS, FD, GPWS, FMC, FDR, warning annunciations, and TSPDR alt encoding.

Will activate with avionics master switch.

65
Q

What is the FMS?

A

Pilot interactive nav computing and display system designed to assist flying the a/c for max economy and safety on a defined route laterally/vertically.
Works in conjunction with INS/GPS to achieve LNAV/VNAV.

66
Q

What is FANS stand for?

A

Future air navigation systems

67
Q

What are advantages/disadvantages of pneumatics?

A

A: air is freely available, components are simple and light weight, compressed air is light, no return line required, relatively free of temp problems, no fire hazard, filters remove contamination.
D: air must be significantly compressed before it can actuate, compressibility of air leads to lag response (not suitable precise controls), difficulty in providing air tight seals/finding leaks, bottles can’t be recharged in flight

68
Q

What are some uses for pneumatics?

A

High px: back up to landing gear/brakes 1000-3000PSI
Med px: anti ice, engine start, cabin px, air con 50-150PSI
Low: vaccuum/px gyro instruments

69
Q

How is the componentry of pneumatics different to hydraulics?

A

No reservoir, engine/electric pumps, return valve, hand pumps, accumulators.
Will have selector/control valve, relief valve, possibly compressor, check valve, filter, desiccant, shuttle valve, restrictor

A shuttle valve allows pneumatic system to be operated from ground source/as backup.
Desiccant removes 2%, moisture separator 98%, as water freeze as px drop.

70
Q

Describe the fluid flow rate per rev on constant/variable displacement hydraulic pumps

A

Constant displacement/delivery/volume pumps deliver a set volume per revolution regardless of RPM. But the higher the RPM, the more fluid will be delivered per unit time, hence the need for pressure relief. Is typically gear, vane and some Piston types.
Variable can adjust the volume per output but keep pressure constant so pressure relief not required.