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Exam Prep Flashcards

1
Q

Define specific gravity

A

the density of an object related to water

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2
Q

Specific Gravity = 0.94, Will it sink or float?

A

float

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3
Q

Specific Gravity = 1.14, will it sink or float?

A

sink

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4
Q

What is the specific gravity of fat?

A

0.8

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5
Q

What is the specific gravity of bone

A

1.5-2.0

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6
Q

What is the specific gravity of muscle?

A

1

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7
Q

What is the specific gravity average range of the human body?

A

0.95-0.97

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8
Q

Will the human body most often sink or float?

A

Float

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9
Q

T/F: A lean muscular athlete with a body fat of 5% will float

A

False: a lean muscular athlete may have a specific gravity up to 1.1 > 1

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10
Q

What are the 8 classes of drugs that are banned by the NCAA?

A
  1. alcohol and beta blockers
  2. anabolic agents
  3. anti-estrogens
  4. beta 2 agonists
  5. diuretics
  6. peptide hormones and analogues
  7. stimulants
  8. street drugs
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11
Q

What is it called when an athlete uses several different drugs simultaneously to try to improve the effect of each drug individually?

A

Stacking

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12
Q 
What class of drugs gives adverse effects of…
elevated blood pressure,
decreased myocardial function,
testicular atrophy,
acne,
liver damage,
aggression,
increased risk of tendon tears,
genital effects?
A

Anabolic steriods

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13
Q

What drug is known to increase lean body tissue and decrease body fat?

A

HGH - human growth hormone

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14
Q

Which class of drugs is a synthetic derivative of testosterone that stimulates…
protein synthesis,
resulting in improvements in muscle size, body mass, and strength?

A

anabolic steriods

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15
Q

Which drug increases risk for acromegaly?

A

HGH - human growth hormone

Silverster Stilon, his big facial features that he developed, big nose, chin, cheeks, forehead, ears, etc

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16
Q

Which drug stimulates the production of new red blood cells?

A

EPO - erythropoieitin

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17
Q

What are adverse effects of taking EPO?

A
  1. increased blood viscosity
  2. risk of blood clots
  3. elevated systolic blood pressure
  4. compromised thermoregulatory system
  5. dehydration
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18
Q

What drugs generally used to reverse bronchial constriction , are sometimes referred to as partitioning agents because of their effects on increasing lean mass and decreasing stored fat?

A

beta-adrenergic agonists - chemically related to epinephrine

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19
Q

Which class of drugs prevent catecholamines from binding to beta-adrenergic receptors, and reduce anxiety during performance?

A

beta blockers

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20
Q

Which supplement rapidly replenishes ATP during intense exercise therefore, increasing the ability to perform for a longer period of time, reducing fatigue, and enhancing recovery?

A

creatine

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21
Q

What is the typical creatine supplementation regimen?

A

loading of 20-25g per day for 5 days and then maintenance dose of 2 g per day

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22
Q

What conditions increase the risk of sickling in athletes with sickle cell trait?

A
  1. high altitude
  2. hot/humid conditions
    1 & 2 in combinations with high intensity workout
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23
Q

T/F: people with sickle cell trait are prone to heat illness

A

TRUE - they have an inability to concentrate their urine which makes them prone to dehydration

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24
Q

What conditions have been thought to lead to death in those with sickle cell trait?

A

rhabdomyolysis
lactic acidosis
shock

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25
Red flags for sickle cell anemia?
1. heat intolerance 2. hyperventilation 3. hypotension 4. severe muscle cramping 5. tachycardia
26
T/F: An athlete with sickle cell trait collapses. He/she does not require emergency transport to a hospital
False - because of the severe symptoms that may cause death (multi system organ failure and shock), the athlete should be immediately transported to a hospital.
27
What is the outcome assessment model that is required for Medicare reimbursement and provides outcomes for specific patients?
Patient chart documentation | Need to have evidence of how things are going, is it working
28
What outcome model is useful for assessing patient satisfaction?
Patient surveys
29
What outcome model is useful for examining very specific problems?
Randomized clinical trials
30
What summarizes a focused clinical question using categories of: clinical question being addressed, treatment approaches, intervention, and the outcome obtained
CAT (critically appraised topic)
31
What instrument was used in a study that linked specific treatments with outcomes and assessed AT procedures for efficacy and efficiency?
ATOA - athletic training outcomes assessment
32
What study, done by and independent outcomes research company, compared patient responses to care provided by an AT with that provided by physical therapists in the same clinical setting?
FOTO - Focus on Therapeutic Outcomes, Inc. study
33
What is the gold standard for measuring generic health status including physical, social, and emotional health?
SF-36
34
Outcome tool commonly used to examine changes in back pain?
Roland-Morris Questionnaire
35
A tool for inpatient rehabilitation facilities?
FIM - Functional Independence Measure
36
A tool for outpatient rehabilitation facilities?
FOTO - Focus on Therapeutic Outcomes
37
Define pharmacodynamics
The action of a drug in the body
38
Define pharmacokinetics
The action of the body on the drug
39
What class of drugs reduces pain by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis and inactivate COX-1 and COX 2 enzymes?
NSAIDs
40
What class has immunosuppresive properties and will treat inflammatory joint injuries?
Corticosteroids
41
Which class of drugs are beta-adrenergic agonists which cause a widening of the bronchi?
bronchodilators
42
Name 3 examples of bronchodilators
Albuterol Levalbuterol Racemic epinephrine
43
What class of drugs blocks the histamine receptors and prevents histamine from binding to the cells?
Antihistamine
44
Name 3 common sedating antihistamines
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) Chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Trimeton) Triprolidine (Actifed)
45
Name 3 common non sedating antihistamines
Cetrizine (Zyrtec) Loratidine (Claritin) Fexofenadine (Allegra)
46
What class stimulates opiate receptors and alters the way the pain is perceived?
narcotic analgesics
47
Which antibiotics disrupt protein synthesis by binding irreversibly to ribosmal units?
aminoglycosides macrolides clindamycin tetracyclines
48
What antibiotic is active against gram-positive bacteria and is used to treat mild respiratory tract infections?
cephalosporins
49
What antibiotic is active against gram-negative bacteria and many gram-positive bacteria also? It is used in bone and joint infections
fluoroquinolones
50
What government agency functions to ensure compliance with the Controlled Substance Act of 1970 and implement the regulations found in Title 21, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 1300 to the end
DEA - Drug Enforcement Agency
51
What government agency is responsible for approving manufacturers who may produce medications for consumption, approving new chemical formulations for marketing and sale as either prescription or nonprescription
FDA - Food and Drug Administration
52
What class of drugs has the adverse gastrointestinal side effects such as dyspepsia, heartburn, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, peptic ulcer, and gastrointestinal bleeding?
NSAIDs
53
T/F: Tylenol and Ibuprofen can be taken at the same time
True
54
Which class of drugs has the adverse side effects of constipation, addiction, sedation, dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, nausea, histamine release, respiratory depression and allergic reactions?
narcotic analgesics
55
Which class of antibiotic has a risk of photosensitivity?
tetracyclines
56
Which class of antibiotics has a risk of tendon rupture?
fluoroquinolones
57
Heat stroke rectal temperature?
> 104 F (40C)
58
Hyponattremia rectal temperature?
< 104 F (40C)
59
Head injury rectal temperature?
Normal
60
Why is core body temperature necessary to differentiate between heat stroke, hyponatremia, and head injury?
``` Common symptoms between all cases are… headache, altered cognitive and mental function, possible lethargy, possible altered consciousness, therefore a core body temp would distinguish which one is the likely cause ```
61
What causes hyponatremia?
blood sodium levels are too low due to over hydration or not enough sodium intake usually occurring with activity lasting more than 4 hours
62
What are factors contributing to heat stroke?
``` hot/humid conditions inability to sweat lack of acclimation high intensity work out dehydration medications lack of fitness recent illness dark colored clothing ```
63
What keeps a clinic financially sound?
third party reimbursement
64
Which outcome assessment model initiates the reimbursement of Medicare?
Patient chart documentation
65
Why are outcome assessments important for the AT in a professional, collegiate, or high school setting?
It is important to document that AT's provide an excellent service in an economical fashion and the assessment may identify medical coverage required for each setting and support the need for an improved AT to athlete ratio
66
Which outcome assessment model tracks patient's progress/decline?
Patient chart documentation
67
Some otoscopes contain a pneumatic attachment, what is this attachment used for?
To test the integrity of the tympanic membrane
68
What color should a normal tympanic membrane be?
Pearly grey
69
To view the inner structure of the ear with otoscope, how do you straighten the ear canal?
By pulling the pinna up and back
70
What does a bluish or dark color tympanic membrane mean?
Blood behind the tempanic membrane
71
What does a pink or red bulging tympanic membrane mean?
Inflammation of the tympanic membrane
72
What does a white color tympanic membrane mean?
Pus behind the tympanic membrane
73
How far do you insert the speculum when examining the ear canal?
1/2 inch, do not insert too deep
74
What is EIA, and how is it treated?
Exercise Induced Asthma, with a meter-dosed inhaler
75
When should a meter-dose inhaler be used in an athlete with EIA?
15-30 min before exercise, or if they are experiencing a asthma attack
76
What are signs of a bronchodilator overdose?
``` Irregular heart beat Tremor Seizure Headache Nausea Vomiting ```
77
How do you properly us a meter-dose inhaler?
Hold the inhaler about 4 inches away from mouth and squeeze canister then inhale
78
How many vertebrae are in the neck
7 cervical vertebrae
79
How do the atlas and axis function?
They support the head and permit cervical rotation
80
Which cervical vertebrae is most prominent?
C7
81
Where is the cervical plexus located?
C1-C4
82
What are normal ROM findings for cervical flexion?
40-70 deg
83
What are normal ROM finding for cervical extension?
60-80 deg
84
What are normal ROM findings for cervical rotation?
70-90 deg
85
What are normal ROM findings for cervical lateral flexion?
40-50 deg
86
What are the physiological responses to cold therapy?
Vasoconstriction Pain relief Lower cell metabolic rate Reduces edema
87
What is the most common method of cold transfer?
Conduction
88
How long should cold therapy be applied to obtain physiologic effects?
30 min?????? | 15-20???
89
What are the physiological responses to heat therapy?
Increase tissue extensibility Reduce pain Increase blood flow Reduce muscle spasm
90
What determines the bodies response to heat?
Type of heat applied Intensity of heat energy duration of application

BOC PREP (3 decks)

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