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BOC PREP > Exam Prep > Flashcards

Exam Prep Flashcards

1
Q

Define specific gravity

A

the density of an object related to water

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2
Q

Specific Gravity = 0.94, Will it sink or float?

A

float

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3
Q

Specific Gravity = 1.14, will it sink or float?

A

sink

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4
Q

What is the specific gravity of fat?

A

0.8

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5
Q

What is the specific gravity of bone

A

1.5-2.0

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6
Q

What is the specific gravity of muscle?

A

1

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7
Q

What is the specific gravity average range of the human body?

A

0.95-0.97

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8
Q

Will the human body most often sink or float?

A

Float

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9
Q

T/F: A lean muscular athlete with a body fat of 5% will float

A

False: a lean muscular athlete may have a specific gravity up to 1.1 > 1

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10
Q

What are the 8 classes of drugs that are banned by the NCAA?

A
  1. alcohol and beta blockers
  2. anabolic agents
  3. anti-estrogens
  4. beta 2 agonists
  5. diuretics
  6. peptide hormones and analogues
  7. stimulants
  8. street drugs
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11
Q

What is it called when an athlete uses several different drugs simultaneously to try to improve the effect of each drug individually?

A

Stacking

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12
Q 
What class of drugs gives adverse effects of…
elevated blood pressure,
decreased myocardial function,
testicular atrophy,
acne,
liver damage,
aggression,
increased risk of tendon tears,
genital effects?
A

Anabolic steriods

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13
Q

What drug is known to increase lean body tissue and decrease body fat?

A

HGH - human growth hormone

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14
Q

Which class of drugs is a synthetic derivative of testosterone that stimulates…
protein synthesis,
resulting in improvements in muscle size, body mass, and strength?

A

anabolic steriods

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15
Q

Which drug increases risk for acromegaly?

A

HGH - human growth hormone

Silverster Stilon, his big facial features that he developed, big nose, chin, cheeks, forehead, ears, etc

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16
Q

Which drug stimulates the production of new red blood cells?

A

EPO - erythropoieitin

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17
Q

What are adverse effects of taking EPO?

A
  1. increased blood viscosity
  2. risk of blood clots
  3. elevated systolic blood pressure
  4. compromised thermoregulatory system
  5. dehydration
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18
Q

What drugs generally used to reverse bronchial constriction , are sometimes referred to as partitioning agents because of their effects on increasing lean mass and decreasing stored fat?

A

beta-adrenergic agonists - chemically related to epinephrine

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19
Q

Which class of drugs prevent catecholamines from binding to beta-adrenergic receptors, and reduce anxiety during performance?

A

beta blockers

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20
Q

Which supplement rapidly replenishes ATP during intense exercise therefore, increasing the ability to perform for a longer period of time, reducing fatigue, and enhancing recovery?

A

creatine

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21
Q

What is the typical creatine supplementation regimen?

A

loading of 20-25g per day for 5 days and then maintenance dose of 2 g per day

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22
Q

What conditions increase the risk of sickling in athletes with sickle cell trait?

A
  1. high altitude
  2. hot/humid conditions
    1 & 2 in combinations with high intensity workout
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23
Q

T/F: people with sickle cell trait are prone to heat illness

A

TRUE - they have an inability to concentrate their urine which makes them prone to dehydration

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24
Q

What conditions have been thought to lead to death in those with sickle cell trait?

A

rhabdomyolysis
lactic acidosis
shock

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25
Q

Red flags for sickle cell anemia?

A
  1. heat intolerance
  2. hyperventilation
  3. hypotension
  4. severe muscle cramping
  5. tachycardia
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26
Q

T/F: An athlete with sickle cell trait collapses. He/she does not require emergency transport to a hospital

A

False - because of the severe symptoms that may cause death (multi system organ failure and shock), the athlete should be immediately transported to a hospital.

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27
Q

What is the outcome assessment model that is required for Medicare reimbursement and provides outcomes for specific patients?

A

Patient chart documentation

Need to have evidence of how things are going, is it working

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28
Q

What outcome model is useful for assessing patient satisfaction?

A

Patient surveys

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29
Q

What outcome model is useful for examining very specific problems?

A

Randomized clinical trials

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30
Q

What summarizes a focused clinical question using categories of: clinical question being addressed, treatment approaches, intervention, and the outcome obtained

A

CAT (critically appraised topic)

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31
Q

What instrument was used in a study that linked specific treatments with outcomes and assessed AT procedures for efficacy and efficiency?

A

ATOA - athletic training outcomes assessment

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32
Q

What study, done by and independent outcomes research company, compared patient responses to care provided by an AT with that provided by physical therapists in the same clinical setting?

A

FOTO - Focus on Therapeutic Outcomes, Inc. study

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33
Q

What is the gold standard for measuring generic health status including physical, social, and emotional health?

A

SF-36

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34
Q

Outcome tool commonly used to examine changes in back pain?

A

Roland-Morris Questionnaire

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35
Q

A tool for inpatient rehabilitation facilities?

A

FIM - Functional Independence Measure

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36
Q

A tool for outpatient rehabilitation facilities?

A

FOTO - Focus on Therapeutic Outcomes

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37
Q

Define pharmacodynamics

A

The action of a drug in the body

38
Q

Define pharmacokinetics

A

The action of the body on the drug

39
Q

What class of drugs reduces pain by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis and inactivate COX-1 and COX 2 enzymes?

A

NSAIDs

40
Q

What class has immunosuppresive properties and will treat inflammatory joint injuries?

A

Corticosteroids

41
Q

Which class of drugs are beta-adrenergic agonists which cause a widening of the bronchi?

A

bronchodilators

42
Q

Name 3 examples of bronchodilators

A

Albuterol
Levalbuterol
Racemic epinephrine

43
Q

What class of drugs blocks the histamine receptors and prevents histamine from binding to the cells?

A

Antihistamine

44
Q

Name 3 common sedating antihistamines

A

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Trimeton)
Triprolidine (Actifed)

45
Q

Name 3 common non sedating antihistamines

A

Cetrizine (Zyrtec)
Loratidine (Claritin)
Fexofenadine (Allegra)

46
Q

What class stimulates opiate receptors and alters the way the pain is perceived?

A

narcotic analgesics

47
Q

Which antibiotics disrupt protein synthesis by binding irreversibly to ribosmal units?

A

aminoglycosides
macrolides
clindamycin
tetracyclines

48
Q

What antibiotic is active against gram-positive bacteria and is used to treat mild respiratory tract infections?

A

cephalosporins

49
Q

What antibiotic is active against gram-negative bacteria and many gram-positive bacteria also? It is used in bone and joint infections

A

fluoroquinolones

50
Q

What government agency functions to ensure compliance with the Controlled Substance Act of 1970 and implement the regulations found in Title 21, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 1300 to the end

A

DEA - Drug Enforcement Agency

51
Q

What government agency is responsible for approving manufacturers who may produce medications for consumption, approving new chemical formulations for marketing and sale as either prescription or nonprescription

A

FDA - Food and Drug Administration

52
Q

What class of drugs has the adverse gastrointestinal side effects such as dyspepsia, heartburn, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, peptic ulcer, and gastrointestinal bleeding?

A

NSAIDs

53
Q

T/F: Tylenol and Ibuprofen can be taken at the same time

A

True

54
Q

Which class of drugs has the adverse side effects of constipation, addiction, sedation, dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, nausea, histamine release, respiratory depression and allergic reactions?

A

narcotic analgesics

55
Q

Which class of antibiotic has a risk of photosensitivity?

A

tetracyclines

56
Q

Which class of antibiotics has a risk of tendon rupture?

A

fluoroquinolones

57
Q

Heat stroke rectal temperature?

A

> 104 F (40C)

58
Q

Hyponattremia rectal temperature?

A

< 104 F (40C)

59
Q

Head injury rectal temperature?

A

Normal

60
Q

Why is core body temperature necessary to differentiate between heat stroke, hyponatremia, and head injury?

A 
Common symptoms  between all cases are…
headache,
altered cognitive and mental function,
possible lethargy,
possible altered consciousness,
therefore a core body temp would distinguish which one is the likely cause
61
Q

What causes hyponatremia?

A

blood sodium levels are too low due to over hydration or not enough sodium intake usually occurring with activity lasting more than 4 hours

62
Q

What are factors contributing to heat stroke?

A 
hot/humid conditions
inability to sweat
lack of acclimation
high intensity work out
dehydration
medications 
lack of fitness
recent illness 
dark colored clothing
63
Q

What keeps a clinic financially sound?

A

third party reimbursement

64
Q

Which outcome assessment model initiates the reimbursement of Medicare?

A

Patient chart documentation

65
Q

Why are outcome assessments important for the AT in a professional, collegiate, or high school setting?

A

It is important to document that AT’s provide an excellent service in an economical fashion and the assessment may identify medical coverage required for each setting and support the need for an improved AT to athlete ratio

66
Q

Which outcome assessment model tracks patient’s progress/decline?

A

Patient chart documentation

67
Q

Some otoscopes contain a pneumatic attachment, what is this attachment used for?

A

To test the integrity of the tympanic membrane

68
Q

What color should a normal tympanic membrane be?

A

Pearly grey

69
Q

To view the inner structure of the ear with otoscope, how do you straighten the ear canal?

A

By pulling the pinna up and back

70
Q

What does a bluish or dark color tympanic membrane mean?

A

Blood behind the tempanic membrane

71
Q

What does a pink or red bulging tympanic membrane mean?

A

Inflammation of the tympanic membrane

72
Q

What does a white color tympanic membrane mean?

A

Pus behind the tympanic membrane

73
Q

How far do you insert the speculum when examining the ear canal?

A

1/2 inch, do not insert too deep

74
Q

What is EIA, and how is it treated?

A

Exercise Induced Asthma, with a meter-dosed inhaler

75
Q

When should a meter-dose inhaler be used in an athlete with EIA?

A

15-30 min before exercise, or if they are experiencing a asthma attack

76
Q

What are signs of a bronchodilator overdose?

A 
Irregular heart beat
Tremor 
Seizure
Headache
Nausea
Vomiting
77
Q

How do you properly us a meter-dose inhaler?

A

Hold the inhaler about 4 inches away from mouth and squeeze canister then inhale

78
Q

How many vertebrae are in the neck

A

7 cervical vertebrae

79
Q

How do the atlas and axis function?

A

They support the head and permit cervical rotation

80
Q

Which cervical vertebrae is most prominent?

A

C7

81
Q

Where is the cervical plexus located?

A

C1-C4

82
Q

What are normal ROM findings for cervical flexion?

A

40-70 deg

83
Q

What are normal ROM finding for cervical extension?

A

60-80 deg

84
Q

What are normal ROM findings for cervical rotation?

A

70-90 deg

85
Q

What are normal ROM findings for cervical lateral flexion?

A

40-50 deg

86
Q

What are the physiological responses to cold therapy?

A

Vasoconstriction
Pain relief
Lower cell metabolic rate
Reduces edema

87
Q

What is the most common method of cold transfer?

A

Conduction

88
Q

How long should cold therapy be applied to obtain physiologic effects?

A

30 min??????

15-20???

89
Q

What are the physiological responses to heat therapy?

A

Increase tissue extensibility
Reduce pain
Increase blood flow
Reduce muscle spasm

90
Q

What determines the bodies response to heat?

A

Type of heat applied
Intensity of heat energy
duration of application

BOC PREP (3 decks)

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