Exam Prep Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What are 5 Regulatory Authority’s?

A

•Health Services Executive (HSE)
•Department Agriculture Food & Marine (DAFM)
•Local Authorities
•Sea Fisheries Protection Authority (SFPA)
•Food Safety Authority of Ireland (FSAI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name 5 key food legislations

A

E.C. 852/2004
E.C. 853/2004
E.C. 2073/2005
E.U. 1169/2011
S.I. 117/2010

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does E.U 1169/2011 mean?

A

Information on allergic ingredients must be available for customers on both packed and non-pre-packed foods sold through retail and catering outlets

Consumers should be able to get sufficient information about foods on offer if requested

All staff must be aware of the 14 listed allergens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Depending on their findings, what actions can regulatory authorities take?

A
  1. An improvement notice
  2. An improvement order
  3. Prohibition order
  4. Prosecution
  5. Closure order
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the required standards/documents in food safety?

A

I.S. 340/2007 catering
I.S. 341/2007 retailing and wholesaling
I.S. 344/202 domestic food production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the voluntary standards/documents in food safety?

A

•ISO 22000:2005 food safety management systems
•BRC
•Board Bia
•FSPA - Food Safety Quality Assurance Scheme
•Tesco

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define a Food Business

A

Any undertaking, whether for profit or not and whether public or private, carrying out any of the activities related to any stage of the production, processing and distribution of food (FSAI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define a Food Business Operator

A

The food business operator is ‘the natural or legal person(s) responsible for ensuring that the requirements of food law are met within the food business under their control’
(I.S. 340/1, 2007 A1 2015, p.7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define Food Safety

A

Concept that food will not cause harm to the consumer when it is prepared and/or eaten according to its intended use
(I.S. 340/1, 2007, p. 7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define Food Hygiene

A

Means the measures and conditions necessary to control hazards and to ensure fitness for human consumption of a foodstuff taking into account its intended use
(EC Regulation 852/2004 article 2.1 a)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 4 categories food is split into?

A
  1. High-risk foods
  2. Low-risk foods
  3. Ready to eat raw foods
  4. Raw foods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define Food Hazards

A

A biological, chemical or physical property agent in food, or the condition of food with the potential to cause an adverse health effect
(I.SS40/1:2007 p. 7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define Direct Cross Contamination

A

Contact between raw food and ready to eat food during transport, storage or preparation
Example; storing raw food above or next to high risk food (if raw meat is stored above cooked food, blood and fluids may drip onto the cooked food and contaminate it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define Indirect Cross Contamination

A

Spread of bacteria from raw foods to ready to eat foods via food handlers, equipment or surfaces
(Example; use of knife on cooked food after raw food)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a pathogenic bacteria?

A

Bacteria that contains a disease producing agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is food poisoning capable of?

A

Causing disease
Death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name some food poisoning bacteria

A

•Salmonella, poultry and eggs
•Staphylococcus aureus, people (eyes, nose, mouth)
•Clostridium botulinum, blown cans And vacuum packed foods
•Clostridium perfringens, soil and vegetables
•E. coli, undercooked mincemeat or contaminated water
•Bacillus Cerus, rice and pasta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the conditions for bacterial growth?
(Hint: TWOFM)

A

Time: Bacteria split in 2 every 10-20mins

Warmth: Bacteria grows in temperatures between 5°C - 63°C ( Danger Zone)

Oxygen: some bacteria need oxygen to grow

Food: foods that are high in protein

Moisture: water available in food

Bonus:
pH: most bacteria grow best at a near neutral pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the main causes of food spoilage?

A

Naturally occurring enzymes
Bacteria
Moulds
Yeast
Parasites
Insects and rodents
Chemicals and physical damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the main ways to preserve foods?

A

•The use of low temperatures
•The use of high temperatures
•The use of dehydration
•The use of chemicals
•Controlled atmospheres and the restriction of oxygen
•Physical methods includes; Canning and smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What must a pre-requisite programme be?

A

•Appropriate to the needs of the business
•Appropriate to the size and type of business
•Appropriate to the products handled
•Implemented across the business
•Approved by the HACCP team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What topics should the pre-requisite programme cover?

A

•Cleaning/sanitation
•Zoning
•Storage, distribution and transport
•Traceability
•Personal hygiene
•Maintenance
•Premises/structure
•Plant and equipment
•Services (water, air, ice, etc dot)
•Waste management
•Pest control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

 was asked for staff responsibilities regarding personal hygiene?

A
  1. Wear clean protective clothing
    2. Do not engage in unhygienic practices
  2. Report all illnesses
  3. Keep the body and especially the hands clean
24
Q

Why is personal hygiene so important?

A
  1. To prevent contamination of food
  2. Public perception
  3. Professionalism
  4. Compliance with the law
  5. Respect for fellow food workers
25
Q

What bad habits should be avoided?

A

•Finger tasting
•Coughing or sneezing over food
•Improper use of clothes
•Coughing, sneezing, scratching etc
•Handling money
•Smoking in the workplace
•Excessive perfume or a jewelry

26
Q

What are the types of cleaning chemicals?

A
  1.  Detergent - dissolves grease and removes dirt, but does not kill bacteria
  2. Disinfectant - Reduces the amount of bacteria but does not kill all bacteria
  3. Sanitiser -  this is a combination of detergent and disinfectant
  4. Sterilant - Kills all bacteria, viruses, fungi including their spores
27
Q

How can you manage waste?

A

•waste should be handled correctly to prevent contamination
• Food waste must be segregated and removed by a licensed handler. It must not go to landfill
• Appropriate storage containers (bins) for internal waste and external waste
• eight boxes as appropriate in waste area

28
Q

How can you tell if you have a rodent infestation?

A

• Droppings
•Gnawed packaging
•Chewed food or packaging
•Live or dead bodies
•Greasy smears along walls
•Bait boxes gone, empty or nibbled

29
Q

How do you control a rodent infestation?

A

•Good housekeeping: eliminate all food and shelter, Remove bins, clean as you go, have good ventilation
•Keep foods off the floor
•Deploy bait trays and traps
•Seal all holes and gaps bigger than 6mm

30
Q

How can you tell you have an insect infestation?

A

•Live or dead insects or flies
•Eggs or egg casings
•Cockroaches leave a smell
•Monitoring of insect bait traps or insects in flycatcher trays

31
Q

 How do you control an insect infestation?

A

•Fly screen windows and doors
•Keep external yards and access areas clean and free from weeds
•Deploy fly traps an insect catchers

32
Q

What are the benefits of training?

A

•Effective use of staff: taking advantage of skills and abilities of the team
•Improves job satisfaction, morals and relationships
•Maintain standards and improves efficiencies
•Life/new skills which improves career prospects
•Reduces waste, fear of mistakes and crises

33
Q

What are the training requirements?

A

Food handlers should be supervised and instructed and/or or trained in food hygiene matters commensurate with their work activity

Those responsible for the development and maintenance of HACCP have received adequate training

34
Q

What are the levels of training?

A

Level 1 – induction (new staff, temporary staff, casual staff)
Level 2 – intermediate (permanent and part-time staff)
Level 3– Advanced (supervisors, managers, head chefs, members of the HACCP team)

35
Q

What are the five stages to managing training?

A
  1. Identifying training needs
  2. Compile a training plan
  3. Implement the training plan
  4. Evaluate the training
  5. Maintain training records
36
Q

Define traceability

A

“One step forward and one step backwards”

37
Q

How can suppliers use traceability?

A

By person or business from whom they have been supplied with food

38
Q

How can customers use traceability?

A

Use of the menu

39
Q

What is supplier auditing?

A

• To verify information on the completed supplier questionnaire
• To ensure supplier is registered/approved by relevant authority
•To observe standard of practices and procedures e.g. cleaning, traceability

40
Q

What are supplier specifications?

A

Businesses should specify the standard of food to be supplied

41
Q

What are the 7 principles of HACCP?

A
  1. Conduct a hazard analysis
  2. Determine critical control points
  3. Establish critical limits
  4. Establish a system to monitor CCP’s
  5. Establish corrective actions
  6. Establish verification
  7. Review system
42
Q

What are the steps to constructing a flow diagram?

A

•A flow diagram from receipt to distribution
•Should include all steps under the control of the organisation
•The food safety team are responsible for developing the flow diagram
•Flow diagram should be very detailed
•Usually presented in block format
•Verify its accuracy

43
Q

What are sources of microbiological hazards?

A

•People
•Raw foods – raw meat and poultry, fish and shellfish, eggs, water, milk, fruit and vegetables
•Animals and birds
•Insects and rodents
•Dust
•Soil

44
Q

What are sources of chemical hazard?

A

•Raw materials
•Farming
•Transportation
•Production/preparation
•Cleaning chemicals
•Packaging

45
Q

What are sources of physical hazards?

A

•Raw materials
•Packaging
•Buildings
•Noticeboards
•Processing
•People
•Cleaning
•Pests
•Customers

46
Q

What are the 14 main allergens?

A
  1. Eggs
  2. Milk
  3. Shellfish
  4. Fish
  5. Molluscs
  6. Peanuts
  7. Celery
  8. Cereals containing gluten
  9. Sesame
  10. Mustard
  11. Soya
  12. Sulphur dioxide
  13. Nuts
  14. Lupin
47
Q

How can you control allergic hazards?

A

•Good communication
•Well trained staff
•Allergen control procedure
•Approved suppliers
•Zoning/separate equipment
•Hand washing
•Cleaning

48
Q

What temperature range is the danger zone for bacterial growth?

A

5 - 63°C

49
Q

What may be monitored as a CCP of a goods intake food safety check of cooked chicken?

A

Temperature of the cooked chicken

50
Q

What is one of the rules of hot holding?

A

Foods must be kept above 63°C during hot holding

51
Q

Define a critical control point?

A

A step where control can be applied and is necessary to prevent or eliminate a food safety hazard or reduce it to an acceptable level

52
Q

What is potable water?

A

Safe treated water from the rising mains

53
Q

What percentage of children are reported to have food allergies?

A

5%

54
Q

Define an infective dose

A

Amount of bacteria per gram of food to cause illness

55
Q

What are the steps involved in the 2 stage cleaning process?

A

Pre clean, spray with sanitiser, wash, dry with paper towel

56
Q

What is a requirement for the use of an electronic fly killer

A

The electronic fly killer must be 2.4 metres off the ground