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Psyc211 > Exam Prep > Flashcards

Exam Prep Flashcards

Cognition & Neuroanatomy Revision

1
Q

Anterior orientation above the midbrain refers to what kind of orientation…

A

Rostral

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2
Q

Posterior orientation above the midbrain refers to what kind of orientation…

A

Caudal

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3
Q

Superior orientation above the midbrain refers to what kind of orientation…

A

Dorsal

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4
Q

Inferior orientation above the midbrain refers to what kind of orientation…

A

Ventral

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5
Q

Ventral orientation also means

A

Inferior

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6
Q

Dorsal orientation also means

A

Superior

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7
Q

Caudal orientation also means

A

Posterior

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8
Q

Rostral orientation also means

A

Anterior

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9
Q

Rostral =

A

Anterior

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10
Q

Caudal =

A

Posterior

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11
Q

Ventral =

A

Below / inferior

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12
Q

Dorsal =

A

Top / superior

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13
Q

What are the four main lobes of the brain?

A

Frontal; parietal; temporal; occipital

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14
Q

What is a sulcus [or fissure]?

A

The groves in the brain, between gyri

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15
Q

What is gyri?

A

The noodle looking bits of brain tissue

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16
Q

What are gyri separated by?

A

Sulcus

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17
Q

What fissure/sulcus separates the two hemispheres of the brain?

A

Longitudinal fissure

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18
Q

What sulcus separates the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes?

A

Lateral sulcus

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19
Q

What sulcus separates the frontal and parietal lobes?

A

Central sulcus

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20
Q

How many major gyri run through the frontal lobe - and what are they?

A

3 - the superior, middle and inferior gyri

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21
Q

Frontal lobe Sulci?

A
  • Superior
  • Inferior
    Also includes the precentral sulcus and central sulcus
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22
Q

Temporal lobe sulci?

A

Superior and inferior
As well as lateral sulcus separating it from the frontal and parietal lobes

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23
Q

Parietal lobe sulci?

A

Postcentral sulcus and intraparietal sulcus

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24
Q

What is the cerebellum and where is it located?

A

Under the occipital and temporal lobes
[the ballsack of the brain]

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25
Q

What is the biggest band of fibres connecting the two hemispheres of the brain?

A

Corpus callosum

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26
Q

An inferior viewpoint sees the brain from…

A

The underneath

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27
Q

A medial viewpoint views the brain from?

A

Cut right through the middle
[sagittal cut]

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28
Q

Where does a horizontal brain slice cut?

A

Horizontally across the head - mid way through the nose looking either up or down

29
Q

Where does the coronal brain slice cut through?

A

Cuts the face off from the rest of the head - almost between brain stem and frontal lobes

30
Q

Where does the sagittal brain slice cut through
And what viewpoint does it allow?

A

Cuts through the hemispheres right down the middle
Allows for a medial viewpoint

31
Q

What does the term ‘ipsi’ or ‘ipsilateral’ refer to?

A

The same side

32
Q

What does the term ‘contra lateral’ or ‘contra’ refer to?

A

The other side
Opposite side

33
Q

What view of the brain does a dorsal viewpoint allow?

A

Top down, same as superior

34
Q

What view of the brain does a superior viewpoint allow?

A

Top down same as dorsal

[think superior to everyone so looking down on it]

35
Q

What view of the brain does a ventral viewpoint see?

A

From the underneath,
Bottom up
Inferior

36
Q

What is a lateral viewpoint?

A

Either left or right of the brain

The most common to look at lobes or basic anatomy of the brain

37
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Neurons in primate PFC respond to abstract rules
B. Abstract thinking may involve more anterior areas of PFC
C. PFC damage leads to deficits in planning
D. Removal of the PFC reduces creativity
E. Both B and D

A

D. All others are true - opposite of D MAY be true, but we have a lack of robust evidence to say so

38
Q

What is the order of brain stem structures from top to bottom?
A. Pons > Medulla > Midbrain
B. Medulla > Pons > Midbrain
C. Midbrain > Medulla > Pons
D. Midbrain > Pons > Medulla

A

D. Midbrain > Pons > Medulla

39
Q

What brain section is proposed to be the “How” and the “What” area of the brain?
A. Temporal Lobe
B. Frontal Cortex
C. Prefrontal Cortex
D. Parietal lobe

A

C - Prefrontal cortex is the ‘how’ and ‘What’ area of the brain

40
Q

What components of the peripheral nervous system are responsible for the regulation of the body’s internal environment?
A. Autonomic Nervous System
B. Efferent & Afferent Nerves
C. Sympathetic & Parasympathetic nervous systems’
D. All of the above

A

D - All of these systems are intertwined and play a role in the regulation of the body’s internal environment

41
Q

Excitatory Post Synaptic Potential occurs when:
A. Sensory receptors are responding to light
B. Sodium channels open in response to a stimulus
C. High-order cognition occurs
D. Positive ions want to get inside of cells

A

B.

42
Q

The self-regulating process in which an organism is able to maintain stability while adjusting to the conditions best suited to survival
A. Opponent processes theory
B. Homeostasis
C. Approach-Avoidance

A

B homeostasis = self-regulation

43
Q

The inferior colliculis is related to which pathway
A. The visual pathway
B. The audio pathway
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

A

B. The auditory pathway

44
Q

What can determine locations of nerve damage from around the body based off of where the body is having sensory trouble?

A) Cranial nerves
B) Spinal nerves
C) Efferent nerves
D) Spinal cord

A

Spinal nerves

45
Q

Which is true about neurons in deeper layers of the Superior Colliculus?

A) They demonstrate a retinotopic map of the visual field
B) They show activity before and during eye movements only during light conditions
C) They have a movement field, which is that part of the visual field to which the eyes move in response to activity in the cell
D) They have small movement fields so that each cell fires before a wide range of saccades but most intensely before saccades of one optimal direction and amplitude

A

C) They have a movement field, which is that part of the visual field to which the eyes move in response to activity in the cell

Justification:
A) They themselves are not retinotopically mapped but the movement fields tend to code for eye movements into the same area of the visual field represented by the retinotopically organized visual receptive field of the neurons just above them in the superficial layers.

B) They show activity during and before eye movements in both light and darkness

D) They have Large movement fields so that each cell fires before a wide range of saccades but most intensely before saccades of one optimal direction and amplitude.

46
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of demyelination causing multiple sclerosis?

A. Numbness or weakness in one or more limbs
B. Blurring of vision
C. Tremor and lack of coordination
D. Amnesia

A

D. Amnesia

47
Q

Anatomical studies have revealed the sprague effect actually results from…
A. Cutting inhibitory fibres that originate in nearby structure and project to superior colliculus [SC] on same side as cortical lesion
B. Cutting excitatory fibres that originate in nearby structure and project to SC on same side as cortical lesion
C. Cutting inhibitory fibres that originate in nearby structure and project to SC on opposite side to the cortical lesion
D. Cutting excitatory fibres that originate in nearby structure and project to SC on opposite side to the cortical lesion

A

A. Cutting inhibitory fibres that originate in nearby structure and project to SC on same side as cortical lesion

MACHADO LECTURE 8 - the sprague effect

48
Q

What was found when the brain structure activated during mental imagery was investigated in sighted vs congenitally blind adults?

A) Sighted individuals had activation in the visual cortex and congenitally blind adults had no activity.
B) Both groups had activation in the visual cortex
C) Sighted individuals had activation in the visual cortex and congenitally blind adults had activation of the occipital lobe
D) None of the above

A

V Both had activation in the visual cortex

49
Q

Ions inside the neuron consist of ______, whereas ions outside the neuron consist of ______

A

Potassium and proteins, sodium and chloride

Potassium = inside
Sodium = outside the cell, hence the need for sodium ion channels

50
Q

“Spiral ganglion cells are tuned to specific frequencies” True or false ?

A

True, they have a maximally sensitive sound with firing rate falling off and heightening.

51
Q

What brain structure carries out emotional responses -
Hippocampus, Amygdala, Cerebellum or Thalamus?

A

Amygdala

52
Q

Ophthalmoscopic view of the retina is from which location - pupil, fovea, blind spot or lens?

A

Pupil

53
Q

What is NOT a process of the development of the structure of the brain?

A) Cell differentiation
B) Cell migration
C) Cell specialisation
D) Cell division

A

C) Cell specialisation

54
Q

Which structure-function pair is incorrect

A) Declarative Memory - mTL,Diencephalon (medial temporal lobe)
B) Procedural Memory - Neocortex
C) Emotional responses - Amygdala
D) Skeletal Musculature - Cerebellum

A

B) Procedural Memory - Neocortex is INCORRECT

Procedural memory - striatum

another not included is
Nonassociative learning - reflex pathways

55
Q

Patients with temporal lobe amnesia:

A) Have intact memory formation.
B) Have intact recognition memory
C) Have intact declarative memory
D) None of the above

A

B) Have intact recognition memory.

Temporal lobe amnesia prevents the formation of new memories (typically damaged of the hippocampus)

56
Q

Which is NOT one of the 3 main goals of visual processing?

A) Pattern completion
B) Pattern discrimination
C) Pattern generalization
D) Pattern separation

A

B) Pattern discrimination

57
Q

What is the order of spinal nerves?

A) Cervical, Sacral, Lumbar, Thoracic, Coccygeal
B) Cervical, Lumbar, Sacral, Thoracic, Coccygeal
C) Cervical, Thoracic, Sacral, Lumbar, Coccygeal
D) Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacral, Coccygeal

A

D) Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacral, Coccygeal

CTLLSC

58
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there in the human body?

A

31 pairs

59
Q

What is hyperpolarisation of the postsynaptic membrane called?

A) Inhibitory post-synaptic potential
B) Action potential
C) Graded potential
D) Excitatory post-synaptic potential

A

A) Inhibitory post-synaptic potential

60
Q

What is the role of glutamate on the post-synaptic neuron?

A) Causes gated sodium channels to open and sodium to leave the post-synaptic neuron
B) Causes gated sodium channels to open and sodium to enter the post-synaptic neuron
C) Crosses the cell membrane and enters the post-synaptic neuron, causing an excitatory post-synaptic potential
D) Crosses the cell membrane and enters the post-synaptic neuron, causing an inhibitory post-synaptic potential

A

B) Causes gated sodium channels to open and sodium to enter the post-synaptic neuron

61
Q

What are sound waves caused by?

A. Small areas of high pressure
B. Big areas of high and low pressure
C. Big areas of high pressure
D. Small areas of high and low pressure

A

D. Small areas of high and low pressure

62
Q

ERP research considers electrical activity in response to an event in terms of:

A. Speed, amplitude, scalp location
B. Latency, amplitude, polarity, scalp topography
C. Temporal resolution, spatial resolution
D. None of the above.

A

B. Latency, amplitude, polarity, scalp topography

63
Q

Which answer BEST describes the location of fixation cells?

A) Superior colliculus
B) Rostral Superior colliculus
C) Caudal inferior colliculus
D) Caudal Superior colliculus

A

B) Rostral Superior colliculus

63
Q

Which answer BEST describes the location of fixation cells?

A) Superior colliculus
B) Rostral Superior colliculus
C) Caudal inferior colliculus
D) Caudal Superior colliculus

A

B) Rostral Superior colliculus

64
Q

What is an afferent nerve?

A

one that receives input, or information

65
Q

What is an efferent nerve?

A

one that outputs information

66
Q

___% of fibres in the optic nerve terminate in the Lateral Geniculate Nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus

A

90% of fibres in the optic nerve terminate in the Lateral Geniculate Nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus

67
Q

What is depolarisation?

A

When positively charged sodium (Na+) ions rush into a neuron through voltage-gated sodium ion channels. the occurrence increases chance of an action potential firing

Psyc211 (1 decks)

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