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BUSI433 > Exam Prep > Flashcards

Exam Prep Flashcards

1
Q

Business Concept

A 
Description of idea
Description of products and services
Intended market
Potential competitive advantages
High-level revenue versus cost
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2
Q

Business Life Cycle

A

Intro
Growth
Maturity
Decline

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3
Q

Market feasibility

A

Opportunity sufficient to achieve goals or objectives

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4
Q

TAM

A

Total available market

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5
Q

SAM

A

serviceable available market

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6
Q

SOM

A

Share of market

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7
Q

Technical feasibility

A

Logistics

  • time and capacity constraints
  • location constraints
  • technology constraints
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8
Q

Financial Feasibility

A

Ensure projected revenue surpasses costs

  • startup and overhead cost
  • sources of funds
  • anticipated revenue
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9
Q

Business Plan Structure

A 
1-executive summary
2-customer and market analysis
3-product and service description
4-business model and competitive advantage
5-competitor analysis
6-implementation plan
7-risk
8-financial highlights and assumptions
9-overview of team
10-detailed financial projections as needed
11-under resume as needed in appendix
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10
Q

Business Plan purpose

A
  • plugging the gaps/contingency plans
  • establishing the framework
  • long-term perspective
  • motivating/selling
  • inviting feedback
  • big picture
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11
Q

Vision Statement

A

Describes what and where an organization wants to be / optimal future state

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12
Q

Mission Statement

A

Fundamental purpose, including:

  • key market (target customer)
  • contribution (what products or services)
  • distinction (competitive advantage)
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13
Q

What is Strategy in regards to a business plan?

A

The plan to achieve the vision and mission statement

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14
Q

Effective strategies …

A
  • provide direction
  • is company wide
  • considers strategic fit
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15
Q

PESTI

A

Political, economic, social and cultural, technological, international

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16
Q

SWOT analysis

A

Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats

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17
Q

Porters Five Forces Model

A 
Some boys can't tie shoelaces
1- substitutes
2 - bargaining power of customers
3 - competitive rivalry
4 - threat of new entrants
5 - bargaining power of suppliers
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18
Q

Porter’s chain model - primary activities

A
  • Inbound/outbound logistics
  • marketing
  • operations
  • CRM (customer relationship management)
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19
Q

Porter’s chain model - support activities

A
  • Finances/procurement
  • management
  • human resources
  • technology
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20
Q

Strategy Statement

A

1- identify competitive advantage
2 - consider long-term goals and overall vision
3 - boundaries, barriers of service and service model
4- Tie strategy to long-term goals
5 - dynamic dimensions within industry and company (market landscape)

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21
Q

Types of Strategy

A
  • differentiation
  • cost leadership
  • growth
  • merger and acquisition
  • product elimination
  • innovation
  • integration
  • diversification
  • defensive (lost mitigation, cost reduction etc)
  • hybrid
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22
Q

Change Management Steps

A

Create a climate for change - increase urgency, build the guiding team, get the right vision

Engage and enable the whole organization - communicate for buy-in, empower action, create short-term wins

Implement and sustain change - don’t let up, make it stick

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23
Q

Market cycle quadrants

A

Phase one - recover (declining vacancy, no new construction)

Phase 2 - expansion (declining vacancy, new construction)

Phase 3 - hypersupply (increasing vacancy and new construction)

Phase 4 - recession (increasing vacancy, more completions)

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24
Q

Organization Types

A
  • Proprietorship
  • Partnerships
  • Corporations
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25
Q

2 types of partnerships

A
  • general/equal (equal ownership / liability)

- limited (unequal with active and passive partner)

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26
Q

Short term financing options

A
  • trade credit (allows additional time to pay)
  • line of credit/operating loan
  • commercial paper (unsecured by collateral, higher interest, sold to investors at discounted rate)
  • factoring (selling block of accounts receivables at discounted rate)
  • crowdfunding
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27
Q

What is commercial paper?

A

A loan unsecured by collateral with higher interest rates that are sold to investors at discounted rates

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28
Q

What is factoring?

A

Selling blocks of accounts receivables at discounted rates

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29
Q

What are the three types of crowd funding?

A

1- equity (backer becomes investor)
2- debt (backer becomes lender)
3- donations (backer becomes donor)

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30
Q

Long term financing options

A
  • business loan
  • leasing (long-term rental)
  • equity financing (borrowing against equity)
  • personal savings
  • venture capital
  • going public/stocks
  • retained earnings / profits
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31
Q

What is ERM

A

Enterprise risk management

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32
Q

Difference between risk and issue?

A

Risk - future

Issue - present

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33
Q

Types of risks (7)

A
  • personal (health, finances, relationship)
  • business (instability, management, financial etc)
  • competition
  • operational (internal processes, systems, staffing etc)
  • hazard (legal liability)
  • strategic
  • reputational
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34
Q

Asymmetrical risks

A

Low probability with a high impact - black swan events

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35
Q

How do you calculate risk rating?

A

The probability X the severity

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36
Q

Probability ranking

A

1-very unlikely to 5-almost certain

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37
Q

Risk Severity ranking system (including financial, reputation, operational and stakeholder impacts)

A

1-minimal (less than 1% of budget, no impact on reputation, negligible impact on operation, some of one group of stakeholders impacted)

2-minor (1 to 5% of budget, 1 to 2 weeks impact to reputation, no admin difficulty, one group of stakeholders impacted)

3-significant (5 to 10% of budget, short-term 1 to 6 months impact to reputation, short-term delays, more than one group of stakeholders impacted)

4-major (10 to 15% of budget, medium 6 to 12 months reputation impact, medium-term delays and several stakeholders impacted)

5-massive (greater than 15% budget, long-term one year plus impact to reputation, long-term delays or failure to achieve, most stakeholders impacted)

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38
Q

Existing risk control ratings

A

1) excessive- meats requirements, possibly using too many resources
2) robust - meets requirements, prevention strategies with redundancies
3) adequate - meets requirements, some preventative measures
4) week-insufficient controls, limited preventative measures
5) non-existent

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39
Q

Risk tolerance levels

A

Monitor-risk is tolerable, existing controls are adequate or better

Treat - risk is tolerable but existing controls are insufficient

Avoid - cannot live with risk, must avoid

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40
Q

GAAP

A

Generally accepted accounting principles

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41
Q

Types of accounting reports

A

1) audited statement- high level of assurance and disclosure, high complexity
2) review engagement - moderate level of assurance and disclosure, moderate to high complexity
3) notice to reader or compilation engagement- low complexity and no gaap compliance required

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42
Q

Revenue recognition principle

A

Revenue should be recognized when earned

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43
Q

Cost principal

A

Cost not market value are recorded for assets not including HST or GST

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44
Q

Matching principle

A

Expenses associated with revenue are recognized in the same period

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45
Q

Material principle

A

Don’t sweat the small stuff, recognizing small expenses as made

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46
Q

Objectivity principle

A

Accounting info verified with objective and verifiable data

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47
Q

Consistency principle

A

Recording transactions in generally consistent manner

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48
Q

Asset classes

A

Tangible/intangible
Current/non-current
Financial/non-financial

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49
Q

Accounting equation

A

Assets-liabilities=owner’s equity/capital

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50
Q

Income statement

A

Revenue -expenses=profit/loss

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51
Q

What are the 2 methods.of depreciation?

A

Straight line method and declining balance method

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52
Q

What is the formula for the straight line method of depreciation?

A

Depreciation=(asset cost-residual value)/recovery period of asset

Depreciation is the same every year

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53
Q

Is the formula for the declining balance method of depreciation?

A

Depreciation=cost remaining X depreciation rate

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54
Q

What are the two types of cash flow statements?

A

Direct method - recording transactions as they happen

Indirect method - based on change in income

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55
Q

Profit Margin formula

A

Net income over sales

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56
Q

Return on investment formula

A

Net income over average total assets

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57
Q

Return on equity formula

A

Net income over average owners equity

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58
Q

Quality of earnings formula

A

Cash flows from operating activities over net income

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59
Q

How do you calculate the long-term debt ratio

A

Total non-current liabilities over total non-current liabilities plus owner’s equity

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60
Q

What is the debt ratio

A

Total liabilities over total liabilities plus owner’s equity

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61
Q

What is the debt/equity ratio

A

Total liabilities over owner’s equity

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62
Q

What is the times interest earned equation

A

Net income before interest and income taxes over interest expense

63
Q

What is the cash coverage equation

A

Cash flow from operating activities over interest expense

64
Q

What is the current ratio calculation

A

Current assets over current liabilities

65
Q

What is the quick ratio

A

Calculate short-term liquidity

Current net assets over current liabilities

66
Q

What is the cash ratio

A

Cash and cash equivalents over current liabilities

67
Q

Steps in budgeting

A

1-define objectives
2-business planning
3-refine the budget
4-presentation to management and stakeholders
5-approval of the budget
6-ongoing monitoring of actual results to budget

68
Q

What are tax loopholes?

A

Tax avoidance

69
Q

What are zero rated goods & services?

A

Taxes reduced to zero, includes basic groceries, prescription drugs and dispensing fees

70
Q

What is GST/HST exempt?

A
  • previously occupied residential building
  • long-term residential rents (greater than 1 month), low cost (less than $20 per day), and short-term (less than 1 month)
  • residential condo fees
  • services by financial institutions
  • insurance
  • licensing fees
  • zoning/assessment info
  • No tax credits for exempt items
71
Q

What is active income?

A

Active income or business income involves time labor and attention

72
Q

What is passive income?

A

Property income or passive income involves little time or attention

73
Q

What is a Capital expenditure?

A

Non recurring expense with benefits that last longer than the current year

74
Q

Characteristics of current/operating expenses

A

Used quickly, repairs or restores a property to previous condition, repair or replace a portion, small expense, genuine repair crisis that may result in impairment (I.e. flood)

75
Q

Characteristics of capital expenditure

A

Long lasting, upgrades to property, replacing an entire asset, larger expense

76
Q

What is capital cost allowance

A

The CRA method of depreciation for capital assets

77
Q

To qualify for CCA, asset must:

A

As it must be depreciable, asset must be acquired for purpose of earning income

78
Q

What is the first year rule for CCA?

A

Depreciation will be 50% of the regular rate regardless of date of purchase in the first year

79
Q

What is the final year rule for CCA?

A

CCA cannot be claimed in the year the asset is disposed of

80
Q

What is CCA recapture?

A

If the sale or disposition of the asset exceeds the cost and depreciation so far the difference is claimed as income

81
Q

What is capital gains

A

An amount by which proceeds of resale of an asset surpassed the adjusted cost profit - 50% taxable as income

82
Q

What are capital losses?

A

The shortfall amount between the resale amount and adjusted cost as a loss the difference between the remaining depreciated value and the resale amount is a terminal loss which is 100% deductible but can only be deducted from capital gains

83
Q

What are employer obligations from tax/deductions perspective?

A
  • must deduct cpp, EI premiums, income tax from pay and submit
  • failing to do so results in employer paying both the employee and employer portions
84
Q

What factors indicate whether someone is an employee or a contractor?

A
  • control over worker
  • ownership of tools/equipment
  • subcontracting work or hiring assistants
  • degree of financial risk by the worker
  • responsibility for investment/management
  • workers opportunity for profit and/or loss
85
Q

What home office deductions are available for an employee

A

Rent, utilities, repairs

86
Q

What deductions are available for a home office commissioned sales employee?

A

Rent, utilities, repairs, insurance, property taxes

87
Q

What deductions are available for a home office contractor?

A

Rent, utilities, repairs, insurance, property taxes, interest, CCA

88
Q

When do taxes need to be filed for a self-employed individual?

A

By June 15th

89
Q

When do taxes need to be filed for a corporation?

A

Within 6 months of fiscal year end

90
Q

What is the penalty for late filed tax returns?

A

5% of unpaid taxes plus 1% for each month outstanding to a maximum of 12 months

91
Q

What is common law?

A

Legal principles flowing from judge decisions

92
Q

What is stare decesis?

A

Judges are to let the former decision stand

93
Q

What is statute law?

A

Laws passed by government, government powers per Constitution

94
Q

What is public law?

A

The relationship between individuals and the state or public as a whole

95
Q

What is civil law?

A

The relationship between individuals, no direct concern of the state

96
Q

What are the seven elements of a contract?

A 
1-offer
2-acceptance
3-consideration
4-intention to enter a binding contract
5-legal/mental capacity of parties
6-Lawful objective/subject matter
7 - genuine consent
97
Q

Under what circumstances is a contract terminated or expired?

A
  • time limit was specified and passed
  • condition was not meant
  • no time limit specified but reasonable time has passed
  • offer revokes before acceptance
  • either party becomes insane or dies before acceptance
  • Offree makes a counter offer
  • Offery rejects the offer
98
Q

What are contracts made under seal?

A

These contracts are binding without consideration and either have a red legal seal or the word seal.

99
Q

Who does not have the capacity to contract?

A

An infant, no capacity to contract until legal age of majority.

Impaired mental capacity, party was impaired and because of impairment party was not capable of rational understanding of implications and the other party knew or should have known.

100
Q

What is a void contract?

A

A contract that never existed at law and never had legal effect for example fraud

101
Q

What is a voidable contract?

A

A legal contract exists, but can be voided by a party (for example an infant can void a contract but the other party would have been bound if the contract wasn’t voided)

102
Q

What is an unenforceable contract?

A

A contract exists but performance of the party’s obligations is not enforceable (for example a contract to appraise a dwelling that has since burned down)

103
Q

What is a mistake?

A

One or both parties may have been mistaken about an element of the contract which can cause a contract to be void or voidable.

104
Q

In order to be legally significant a mistake must relate to one of the following:

A
  • terms of the contract
  • subject matter of the contract
  • identity of a party to the contract
  • nature of a signed contract
105
Q

If a contract mistake is proven or agreed upon what are the three options?

A

1- void contract
2 - declare contract voidable
3 - rectify/correct the contract

106
Q

What is misrepresentation?

A

A false statement of fact usually made during negotiations which can result in a void or voidable contract.

107
Q

What requirements must be met in order to void or deem a contract voidable due to misrepresentation?

A
  • a misrepresentation occurred and
  • the false statement induced the other party to enter into the contract and
  • the false statement is one that would have induced a reasonable person to enter into the contract
108
Q

What is a breach of contract?

A

Failing to meet conditions which are essential terms and the purpose of the contract as well as warranties which are terms of a lesser importance

109
Q

What are the remedies to breach of contract?

A

1-damages (goal is to make whole)
2-specific performance (forcing an action)
3-injunctions (forbidding an action)

110
Q

What is tort liability?

A

A tort is a private civil wrong other than a breach of contract, resulting from a violation of legal rights of one person by another

111
Q

What are the three types of misrepresentation?

A
  • innocent misrepresentation (injured party to be made whole, no additional damages)
  • fraudulent (a tort of deceit where the injured party is to made whole plus receive additional damages)
  • negligent misrepresentation (operates even if there is no contractual relationship between the parties-i.e. advice)
112
Q

What conditions must be met to be liable for negligent misrepresentation?

A
  • must be a duty of care (skilled person/expert gives advice that is reasonably going to be relied upon)
  • representation and question must be untrue, inaccurate or misleading
  • the representer must have acted negligently in making the representation
  • the representee must have relied on the misrepresentation in a reasonable manner
  • the reliance must have been detrimental (damages)
113
Q

How can you avoid negligible misrepresentation claims?

A

You can avoid by refusing to give advice or clearly qualifying that no responsibility is accepted for accuracy or reliability

114
Q

What is csr- corporate social responsibility?

A

The voluntary activities undertaken by a company in an economic, social and environmentally sustainable manner

115
Q

What is the marketing concept?

A

Identify/understand the customer then build viable business around that customer

116
Q

What are the five ways to segment the market?

A
  • demographic
  • geographic
  • psychographic
  • benefit
  • usage
117
Q

What are the shopping behavior model goods?

A

Specialty goods
Shopping goods
Convenience good
Unsought goods

118
Q

What are the steps in the process model of buying behavior?

A

Felt need, pre-purchase activity, purchase activity, post purchase activity

119
Q

What are the three types of competitive advantages?

A

Price, differential, niche

120
Q

What is the marketing mix (4Ps)?

A

1- product
2 - place
3 - price
4 - promotion

121
Q

What is product positioning?

A

The position a product or service holds within the clients and customers minds

122
Q

What are the types of marketing activities?

A

1-advertising
2 - personal selling, face-to-face
3 - public relations, relationships with the public that are not advertising or personal sales
4 - publicity, communications not from within the firm
5 - sales promotion, non-personal selling, not included (swag, YouTube etc)

123
Q

What are the sources of power?

A

Legitimate, reward, coercive, expert, referent

124
Q

What are the types of power

A

Sense of obligation, perceived dependence, belief in managers expertise, identification with the manager

125
Q

What is a contingency theory?

A

Found it on the proposition that most effective leadership behavior is contingent on the characteristics of the situation the leader is in

126
Q

What is Fiedler’s contingency theory?

A

Based on leadership orientation versus situational favorableness. Task oriented versus relationship oriented and leader member relations, task structure, position power.

127
Q

What is path goal theory?

A

In order to be successful a leader must select the appropriate style between directive leadership, supportive leadership, participative leadership, achievement-oriented goal setting leadership.

128
Q

What is filtering?

A

Messages can be delayed distorted or blocked when moving up or down the chain of command.

129
Q

What is perceptual defense?

A

The tendency to protect self from the info they perceive as threatening - here only what they want to

130
Q

What is stereotyping?

A

Inferring attributes based on a category

131
Q

What is projection?

A

Attributing your own thoughts and or motives etc to others

132
Q

What is expectancy?

A

Basing perception on past experience

133
Q

What is paralanguage?

A

Intonation, speech rate, volume etc

134
Q

What are proxemics?

A

Nonverbal communication tied to interpersonal distances and/or seating plans

135
Q

What is a job analysis?

A

The process of determining the nature of the job by collecting and organizing info

136
Q

What are the two important pieces of documentation provided by the job analysis?

A

The job specification- qualification and experience required, duties and responsibilities as well as position within hierarchy

A job description - provides a clear picture of duties / responsibilities as well as the context in which they are carried out

137
Q

What are the methods of job analysis?

A

Observation, interview, combination, questionnaire

138
Q

What is the Halo and Horn effect?

A

Overall perception of an employee being applied to other areas

139
Q

What is the recency bias?

A

Focus on recent results instead of overall performance

140
Q

What are the performance appraisal methods?

A

1 - job results indices (production/accomplishments)
2 - essay method (unstructured, tends to be open to bias)
3 - critical incident method (snapshots of especially good or bad, highlights minimal feedback)
4-ranking (comparing employees to each other)
5- graphic rating (using 5 to 7 points scale for individual traits)

141
Q

What is Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory?

A 
1 - physiological needs
2 - safety needs
3 - belongingness
4 - esteem
5 - self-actualization
142
Q

What is the ERG theory?

A

1 - existence needs
2 - relatedness needs
3-growth needs

143
Q

What is vroom’s expectancy theory?

A

Expectancy - beliefs regarding probability of performance

Outcomes - consequence / result of performance

Instrumentality - probability that performance will lead to given results

Valance - numerical representation of personal satisfaction of person expects

144
Q

What is goal setting theory?

A
  • goal clarity (SMART)
  • goal challenge (not too easy and failing to stimulate, not too hard)
  • Goal acceptance (buy-in)
  • Feedback
145
Q

What are the methods of job evaluation?

A

1 - simple ranking
2-classification
3 - point method (most used, evaluates on factors/metrics)
4- market pricing

146
Q

What elements should be included in a succession plan?

A
  • process and schedule for owner departure
  • current and projected challenges
  • skills and experiences or core competencies new owner will need
  • process of developing leaders/owner
  • and honest and ongoing review of the business
  • the selection process, including who makes decisions
  • transition plan between owners/leaders
147
Q

What are common exit strategies?

A
  • transfer interest to family Trust
  • pass Enterprise on to family
  • transfer ownership to parties/key employees by way of management buyout
  • selling
  • clothes / wind up
148
Q

What is a shotgun clause?

A

Can be written in to partnerships or shareholder agreement, forces sale from one partner/shareholder to another by person one making offer to sell. if offer is rejected, the other person buys out at that price.

149
Q

What is a leveraged buyout?

A

Substantially financed with multiple lenders

150
Q

What is vendor financing

A

Vendor take back loan, typically higher interest

151
Q

What is an earn out?

A

Paid for an installments, conditional and future earnings

152
Q

What is a share exchange?

A

Shares are issued instead of cash

153
Q

What is an estate freeze?

A

Locking in value at a specific date thereby locking in the tax liability upon the owner’s death

BUSI433 (1 decks)

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