Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy LSB142 QUT Exam > Exam practice questions > Flashcards

Exam practice questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following organelles is responsible for some protein production, cell folding and is studded with ribosomes?

a) nuclear membrane
b) mitochondrion
c) Golgi complex
d) rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

d) rough endoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

An organ is most accurately described as a structure composed of

a) a phopholipid bilayer with integral proteins
b) a sheet of tightly packed cells
c) multiple tissue types which perform a specialised function for the body
d) cells, collagen fibres and ground substance

A

c) multiple tissue types which perform a specialised function for the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following statements does not correctly describe the lungs
a) surrounded by a pleural cavity
b) located posterior to the vertebral column
c) contained within the lateral aspect of the thoracic
cavity
d) lined by a serous membrane

A

b) located posterior to the vertebral column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

To obtain 2 sections of the body that appear to be almost mirror images of each
other (when viewed externally) it would be necessary to section the body along which
anatomical plane?
a) sagittal
b) frontal
c) transverse
d) coronal

A

a) sagittal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Match the anatomical structure with the most appropriate regional anatomical term
or body cavity (where the organ is located).

  1. Urinary bladder A.Cervical
  2. Groin B.Pelvic
  3. Brain C.Axillary
  4. Armpit D.Inguinal
  5. Larynx E.cephalic
A
  1. Urinary bladder - B. Pelvic
  2. Groin D.Inguinal
  3. Brain E.cephalic
  4. Armpit C. Axillary
  5. Larynx A.Cervical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name the 2 organs systems which bear the major responsibility for allowing cells
in the body to communicate and thereby maintain homeostasis?

A

Endocrine system and Nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

With reference to the body cells, the process of osmosis involves all of the
following except
a) the movement of water across the cell membrane
b) a requirement for ATP molecules to supply energy to specialised membrane
pumps
c) a difference in the concentration of water molecules either side of the cell
membrane
d) the possibility that the cell volume may change

A

b) a requirement for ATP molecules to supply energy to specialised membrane
pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following organs is most likely to receive damage if an individual
receives a puncture wound to the superior mediastinum?
a) Liver
b) Stomach
c) Heart
d) Trachea

A

d) Trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In homeostatic mechanisms, deviation of a specific physiological variable from a
desired range is initially detected by a/an
a) Control centre
b) Effector
c) Receptor
d) Activator

A

c) Receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which form of anatomical study accurately describes an investigation into the
cellular / tissue structure of the heart?
a) histology
b) systemic anatomy
c) gross anatomy
d) cardiac physiology

A

a) histology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Select the statement that correctly describes compact bone.
a) is the major structural component (by volume) found at the ends of long
bones
b) contains structures called trabeculae
c) is degraded by osteoclasts
d) is manufactured by chondrocytes

A

c) is degraded by osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which non-organic component of the matrix allows bone to resist compression?

a) collagen
b) chondrocytes
c) mineral salts
d) osteocytes

A

c) mineral salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q 
The circular cavity in the middle of an osteon can best be described by which of the following;
a) is called a lacuna
b) is a feature of articular cartilage
c) is called a Volkmann's canal
d) normally contains blood
vessels
A

d) normally contains blood

vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The cranial bone located on the superior & anterior aspect of the skull is the

a) parietal bone
b) occipital bone
c) temporal bone
d) frontal bone

A

b) frontal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which bones directly contribute to the roof, walls or floor of the nasal cavity?

A

Vomer, Ethmoid and Palatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The following pairs of bones articulate with each other except for the

a) atlas and axis
b) sacrum and lumbar vertebrae #5
c) manubrium and body of the sternum
d) occipital and maxilla bones

A

d) occipital and maxilla bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name the anatomical regions of the vertebral column in descending order and the number of vertebrae associated with each

A
  1. Cervical - 7
  2. Thoracic - 12
  3. Lumbar - 5
  4. Sacrum and Coccyx - 2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Of the features listed below, which are found on the temporal bone?

  1. Zygomatic process
  2. Odontoid process (dens)
  3. Mastoid process
  4. Sella turcica
A

Zygomatic process (1) and Mastoid process (3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Which of the following are a feature of the sphenoid bone?
    a) Foramen magnum.
    b) Sella turcica.
    c) Coronoid process.
    d) Styloid process
A

b) Sella turcica.

20
Q

When referring to structures of the skeleton, the term condyle describes a

a) Narrow slit-like opening
b) Prominent expansion at the end of a long bone
c) Rounded knob that helps provide smooth movement at a joint with another bone
d) Shallow basin-like depression

A

c) Rounded knob that helps provide smooth movement at a joint with another bone

21
Q

Which of the following are classified structurally as cartilaginous and functionally
as amphiarthroses joints?
a) Sutures
b) The joints between the mandible and temporal bones
c) The elbow joint
d) Intervertebral disks

A

d) Intervertebral disks

22
Q 
The femur is part of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and articulates with the coxal bone at the
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
a) appendicular skeleton / acetabulum
b) pectoral girdle / acromion
c) axial skeleton / glenoid fossa
d) pelvic girdle / trochlear notch
A

a) appendicular skeleton / acetabulum

23
Q

The navicular bone articulates with the

a) tibia
b) intermediate cuneiform
c) pisiform
d) 5th metatarsal (metatarsal V)

A

b) intermediate cuneiform

24
Q 
Match the bone with the term that most accurately describes its shape.
1. humerus 
2. a lumbar vertebra 
3. parietal bone 
4. a carpal bone
A. short bone
B. irregular bone
C. long bone
D. flat bone
A

1-C
2-B
3-D
4-A

25
Q

The coracohumeral ligament functions to

a) Stabilise the coxal (hip) joint
b) Prevent lateral movement of the knee joint
c) Stabilise the shoulder joint
d) Form an articulation between the ulna and humerus

A

c) Stabilise the shoulder joint

26
Q

The medial condyle of the tibia is located

a) at the superior aspect of this bone
b) at the distal aspect of this bone (hip joint is point of reference)
c) where this bone articulates with the talus
d) where this bone articulates with the fibula

A

a) at the superior aspect of this bone

27
Q

What features are found on the scapula

  1. Glenoid fossa
  2. Coracoid process
  3. Coronoid process
  4. Lesser tubercle
A
  1. Glenoid fossa

2. Coracoid process

28
Q 
The lateral aspect of the clavicle articulates directly with the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of the
adjacent bone.
a) clavicular notch.
b) coracoid process.
c) glenoid cavity / fossa.
d) axial skeleton.
e) acromion.
A

e) acromion.

29
Q

The ________ of the ulna articulates with the __________ of the humerus.

a) head / glenoid fossa.
b) trochlear notch / trochlea.
c) epicondyle / greater tubercle.
d) radial notch / deltoid tuberosity.

A

b) trochlear notch / trochlea.

30
Q 
From the list below, select the most medial of the ligaments associated with the
knee joint
a) Anterior cruciate
b) Fibular collateral
c) Posterior cruciate
d) Tibial collateral
A

d) Tibial collateral

31
Q 
When contracting, the Rectus abdominis,
a) extends the vertebral column
b) flexes the vertebral column
c) extends the hip joint
d) laterally flexes and rotates the
vertebral column
A

b) flexes the vertebral column

32
Q 
Motor signals that initiate contraction of the Vastus medialis are carried along neurones
of which division of the nervous system?
a) autonomic
b) sensory
c) sympathetic
d) somatic
A

d) somatic

33
Q 
Which of the following statements relating
to skeletal muscle tissue is
FALSE?
a) fibre cells held together by
intercalated discs
b) under voluntary control
c) contains sarcomeres
d) the sarcolemma of individual cells lie
adjacent to the endomysium
A

a) fibre cells held together by

intercalated discs

34
Q
  1. A muscle which could act as an antagonist during flexion of the knee joint is the
    a) Gluteus maximus
    b) Gastrocnemius
    c) Rectus femoris
    d) Trapezius
A

c) Rectus femoris

35
Q

Which of the following is/are characteristics of cardiac muscle?

  1. contractions modified by the autonomic nervous system
  2. spontaneous activity
  3. striations
  4. spindle-shaped cells
  5. more than one nucleus can be found in each cell
A
  1. contractions modified by the autonomic nervous system
  2. spontaneous activity
  3. striations
  4. more than one nucleus can be found in each cell
36
Q 
The connective tissue sheath that surrounds individual skeletal muscle fibres is known
as?
a) sarcolemma
b) epimysium
c) endomysium
d) perimysium
A

c) endomysium

37
Q

Which of the following muscles does not have an origin on the scapula?

a) Biceps brachii
b) Pectoralis major
c) Supraspinatus
d) Triceps brachii

A

b) Pectoralis major

38
Q

The __________ muscle can act as a prime mover during ____________ .

a) Pectoralis major / flexion of the shoulder joint
b) Gluteus maximus / flexion of the hip joint
c) Trapezius / flexion of the cervical region of the vertebral column
e) Deltoids / adduction of the shoulder joint

A

a) Pectoralis major / flexion of the shoulder joint

39
Q

A myofibril

a) forms a motor end plate with motor neurones
b) contains muscle fibres
c) is composed of multiple sarcomeres
d) is characterised by several nuclei at the outer edges

A

c) is composed of multiple sarcomeres

40
Q

A major insertion point for the quadriceps muscle group is the

a) Greater trochanter of the femur
b) Lateral epicondyle of the femur
c) Medial malleolus of the tibia
d) Tibial tuberosity of the tibia

A

d) Tibial tuberosity of the tibia

41
Q

A neurone may be classified functionally as a/an

a) bipolar neurone
b) motor neurone
c) multipolar neurone
d) unipolar neurone

A

b) motor neurone

42
Q

Which of the following statements relating to a sodium potassium pump in the cell
membrane of a neurone is correct?
a) It acts to increase the negative charge on the outer surface of cell membranes of
resting neurones
b) When open, it allows the diffusion of potassium ions into the cell
c) It increases the concentration of potassium ions inside the cell
d) During each cycle it pumps 2 sodium ions out of the cell

A

It increases the concentration of potassium ions inside the cell

43
Q

An oligodendrocyte is to the CNS as a/an …… is to the PNS

a) fibrocyte
b) chondrocyte
c) Schwann cell
d) erythrocyte

A

c) Schwann cell

44
Q

the structure between the pons and the cerebellum is the

a) 2nd ventricle
b) 3rd ventricle
c) lateral ventricle
d) 4th ventricle

A

d) 4th ventricle

45
Q

Which of the following structures contain cerebrospinal fluid?

  1. lateral ventricles
  2. central canal of spinal cord
  3. corpus callosum
  4. cerebral aqueduct
  5. synaptic bulb
  6. pons
A
  1. lateral ventricles
  2. central canal of spinal cord
  3. cerebral aqueduct
46
Q

Damage to the ventral roots of a spinal nerve would have which effect?

a) no effect
b) loss of motor function in the area innervated by the spinal nerve
c) loss of both motor & sensory function in the area innervated by the spinal nerve
d) loss of sensory reception from the area innervated by the spinal ner

A

b) loss of motor function in the area innervated by the spinal nerve

47
Q

Which structure of the brain rests upon the anterior cranial fossa?

a) Frontal lobe
b) Occipital lobe
c) Hypothalamus
d) Cerebellum

A

a) Frontal lobe

Anatomy LSB142 QUT Exam (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions