Exam Pocket Mock

Question 1

Which of the following allows an athlete to get used to an uncertain environment over long periods of time despite minimal real-world competitive opportunity?

A. Mental imagery
B. Counter-conditioning
C. Pure-part practice

Answer 1

A. Mental imagery

Mental imagery allows an athlete to rehearse the successful execution of a skill, which will increase positive memories associated with it while boosting the athlete’s confidence. The athlete can also get used to an uncertain environment over long periods of time despite minimal real-world competitive opportunity.

Question 2

Which of the following allows for the transfer of energy from exergonic (catabolic) reactions to endergonic (anabolic) reactions?

A. Adenosine diphosphate
B. Adenosine triphosphate
C. Adenosine triphosphatase

Answer 2

C. Adenosine triphosphate

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the intermediate molecule that allows for exergonic (catabolic) reactions to drive endergonic (anabolic) reactions. Muscular activity and growth would not be possible with ATP. Personal trainers should have an in-depth understanding of ATP so they can create workout programs based on the hydrolysis and resynthesis of the molecule.

Question 3

Which of the following controls the
phosphagen system?

A. Electron transport chain
B. Metabolic specificity
C. Mass action effect

Answer 3

C. Mass action effect

The reactions of the phosphagen system are largely controlled by the mass action effect, also known as the law of mass action. This law states that the rate of any chemical reaction corresponds to the product of the masses of the reacting substances. What’s more, each mass is raised to a power that is equal to the coefficient that occurs in the chemical equation. In other words, the concentrations of reactants or products in the solution will drive the direction of reactions. The rate of product formation is greatly influenced by the concentrations of the reactants. Using adenosine triphosphate (ATP) as an example, when ATP is hydrolyzed for exercise, there is an increase in adenosine diphosphate (ADP) concentrations as well. What’s more, the increase in ADP will also increase creatine kinase and adenylate kinase, and this will replenish the ATP supply.

Question 4

How many grams of adenosine triphosphate
does the body typically store at any given
time?

[ ] 120 to 150 grams
[ ] 80 to 100 grams
[ ] 100 to 120 grams

Answer 4

80 to 100 grams

The body will typically store 80 to 100 grams of adenosine triphosphate (ATP); however, this number is not sufficient for a typical exercise session. What’s more, the body will not allow for the complete usage of ATP stores as the molecule is needed for basic cellular functions. The phosphagen system is used to create additional ATP once stores are low enough, usually around half of the pre-exercise amount.

Question 5

Which of the following is usually a primer for
an athlete to experience state anxiety?

[ ] Cognitive anxiety
[ ] Somatic anxiety
[ ] Trait anxiety

Answer 5

Trait anxiety

Trait anxiety refers to a personality variable or disposition that an athlete will perceive an environment or situation as threatening or beyond their ability to deal with it. Trait anxiety is usually a primer to state anxiety.

Cognitive anxiety refers to the symptoms of anxiety that are experienced in the mind such as worrying. Somatic anxiety refers to the physical symptoms of anxiety such as rapid heart rate and upset stomach.

Question 6

You are training a 34-year-old athlete who
has a goal of muscle hypertrophy for a
bodybuilding competition. How much
protein should he/she consume immediately
following a resistance training workout?

[ ] 30 to 35 grams
[ ] 20 to 25 grams
[ ] 40 to 45 grams

Answer 6

40 to 45 grams

To trigger maximum hypertrophy, an athlete needs to consume both high-glycemic carbohydrates and protein immediately following a workout. Experts recommend that adults should consume 40 grams or more of a high-leucine protein choice. Whey protein shakes tend to be ideal for a post-workout choice. If you were training a teenager, 20 to 25 grams of protein would be recommended.

Question 6

Which of the following age groups needs
proper calcium levels the most?

[ ] Active adults
[ ] Older adults
[ ] Adolescents

Answer 6

Adolescents

Of the age groups listed, adolescents require proper levels of calcium the most. This is because up to 90% of peak bone mineral density development occurs during adolescent years. Calcium is important for proper health for everyone but especially during these formative years.

Question 7

Which macronutrient is the primary structural
and functional component of every cell in the
human body?

[ ] Carbohydrate
[ ] Protein
[ ] Fat

Answer 7

Protein

Protein is the primary structural and functional component of every cell in the human body. Dietary proteins provide amino acids, which are used for growth and development as well as cellular repair. Proteins can also be used as enzymes and hormones. It goes without saying that dietary protein is incredibly important for an athlete’s recovery and progress.

Question 8

An athlete performs a bicep curl with a
muscular contraction over 20% of maximal
voluntary contraction. After finishing the set,
which of the following reactions will take
place?

[ ] Overtraining syndrome
[ ] Reactive hyperemia
[ ] Active hyperemia

Answer 8

Reactive hyperemia

When an athlete is performing an exercise such as the bicep curl with a muscular contraction over 20% of maximal voluntary contraction, peripheral blood flow is impeded. Once the set is finished and the athlete takes a break, the muscle or organ fills with a rush of blood. This is what is known as reactive hyperemia.

Question 9

The idea that a given hormone interacts with
a specific receptor is known as which of the
following?

[ ] Lock-and-key theory
[ ] Cross-reactivity
[ ] Downregulation

Answer 9

Lock-and-key theory

The lock-and-key theory is the principle that a given hormone will react with a specific receptor. However, the latest research shows that there is more to this theory including cross reactivity.

Cross-reactivity is the idea all receptors have one primary hormone that they interact with, but they can also partially react with a variety of other hormones. Downregulation refers to the inability of a hormone to react with a receptor

Question 10

Where does the energy needed for a pulling action or power stroke come from?

[ ] Hydrolysis of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
[ ] Hydrolysis of adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase)
[ ] Hydrolysis of adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

Answer 10

Hydrolysis of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

When someone requires energy for a pulling action, also called a power stroke, the contraction phase is activated. This involves the hydrolysis or breakdown of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) into adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and phosphate. This breakdown supplies the needed energy for the power stroke.

Question 10

An athlete is feeling nervous before a game and showing muscle twitching from anxiety. Which of the following is the foundational technique the athlete can use to control skeletal muscle tension?

[ ] Systematic desensitization
[ ] Progressive muscle relaxation
[ ] Autogenic training

Answer 10

Progressive muscle relaxation

Progressive muscle relaxation is considered a foundational technique in psychological ways to control nervousness and anxiety before a performance. Progressive muscle relaxation involves alternating muscular tensing and relaxing. For example, making a tight fist for a few seconds then releasing it. In this way, the athlete becomes aware of somatic tension and is able to control it.

Question 11

Which type of goals does the athlete have the least amount of control over the outcome?

[ ] Process goals
[ ] Outcome goals
[ ] Short-term goals

Answer 11

Outcome goals

Outcome goals tend to focus on the competitive result of a sporting event, which means the athlete has the least amount of control over the outcome. Examples of outcome goals include winning the game or earning a medal.

Short-term goals are related to current training methodologies from the coach. They focus on a short amount of time such as a few days or weeks. The athlete has control over short-term goals because they refer to completing assigned training.

Process goals are those in which the athlete has complete control over the outcome. Examples include performing an exercise or skill correctly or reducing weight to make it into the desired competing class.

Question 12

Although the shoulder is capable of rotating
in any direction, why is the shoulder not a
true ball-and-socket joint?

[ ] The shoulder cannot perform third-class
lever movements
[ ] The glenoid cavity is not a true socket
[ ] The shoulder lacks fibrous attachments that
are common with true sockets

Answer 12

The glenoid cavity is not a true socket

Like the hip, the shoulder is capable of rotating in any direction. However, the shoulder is not a true ball-and-socket joint because of the glenoid cavity. Holding the head of the humerus, the glenoid cavity is not a true socket and it is very unstable. This instability is what makes the shoulder so vulnerable to injury.

Question 13

Underneath the fibrous connective tissue
(epimysium), you’ll find bundled muscle
fibers that contain up to 150 fibers. What is
the name of these bundles?

[ ] Sarcolemma
[ ] Perimysium
[ ] Fasciculi

Answer 13

Fasciculi

Fibrous connective tissue, better known as epimysium, covers the body’s 430 skeletal muscles. Underneath the epimysium, you’ll find bundled muscle fibers. In each bundle, there can be up to 150 fibers. The name of these bundles is fasciculi.

Perimysium is the connective tissue that surrounds the fasciculi. Sarcolemma is the name of the fiber’s membrane, which either encircles or shares a border with the perimysium.

Question 14

An athlete takes part in training while hooked up to a piece of laboratory equipment that is providing instant biometric feedback. This is an example of which type of feedback?

[ ] Intrinsic feedback
[ ] Explicit feedback
[ ] Augmented feedback

Answer 14

Augmented feedback

Augmented feedback is a type of feedback that is presented to the athlete by either an observer or technology. An observer could be a coach or teammate. Technology could include laboratory equipment as in the example mentioned above.

Intrinsic feedback is a type of feedback within the athlete from the senses. An example would be missing the mark during training.

There is no such thing as explicit feedback; however, explicit instructions refer to the “rules” given to the athlete about training and performance.

Question 15

You want to increase the difficulty of a client’s high-intensity interval training program. You’re able to alter all of the following variables except:

[ ] Intensity of the recovery portion
[ ] Number of sets
[ ] Amount of weight

Answer 15

Amount of weight

If you want to increase the difficulty of a client’s HIIT workout program, you can manipulate one of the following nine variables:

1. Intensity of the active portion of each duty cycle
2. Duration of the active portion of each duty cycle
3. Intensity of the recovery portion of each duty cycle
4. Duration of the recovery portion of each duty cycle
5. Number of duty cycles performed in each set
6. Number of sets
7. Rest time between sets
8. Recovery intensity between sets
9. Mode of exercise for HIIT

The amount of weight refers to a variable found in resistance training. HIIT tends to focus on methods of running and cycling, not weightlifting, to achieve maximum intensity during a short duration.

Question 16

You are teaching an athlete a new skill but you are only providing essential prompts and important cues with no other feedback. You are engaging in which of the following?

[ ] Random practice
[ ] Variable discovery
[ ] Guided discovery

Answer 16

Guided discovery

Guided discovery refers to a type of coaching where the trainer only provides the athlete with essential instructions and important prompts for task accomplishment, but no other feedback is provided. What’s more, the athlete is not explicitly told how to accomplish the task.

Random practice is when multiple skill sets are practiced in a random order, which is usually different from other training sessions. Variable discovery is not a real type of practice. However, variable practice is when one skill set is performed but the variables such as height, weight, and speed are changed.

Question 17

What is the most commonly cited reason that older adults lose muscle mass and gain body fat mass?

[ ] Physical inactivity
[ ] Decrease in metabolism
[ ] Lower levels of growth hormone

Answer 17

Physical inactivity

While a natural decrease in metabolism and growth hormone might contribute to an increase in body fat and a loss of muscle mass, the biggest factor is physical inactivity.

Older adults who do not engage in physical activity will typically experience significant decrements in their performance and physique, far more than their active counterparts. The trainer who is working with older adults must be very familiar with training limitations based on age but still strive to push the client safely outside of their comfort zone.

Question 18

You are training a new athlete in Olympic weightlifting. You’ll be teaching the snatch exercise. Which of the following is the ideal way to teach the athlete this exercise?

[ ] Observational practice
[ ] Segmentation
[ ] Whole practice

Answer 18

Segmentation

A type of part practice, segmentation involves breaking down a task into separate components that are learned or achieved one at a time. In sports and athletics, this type of practice is ideal for those skills that have a high level of subcomponents that are best learned on an individual basis.

In the example above, the athlete who is learning the snatch should be taught using segmentation. In this way, the exercise will be broken down into four parts:

1. The first pull
2. The transition
3. The second pull
4. The catch

The athlete will learn each of these subcomponents and eventually, she will be able to put everything together to perform the snatch exercise.

Question 19

The elbow is an example of which of the following categories of joints?

[ ] Multiaxial joints
[ ] Biaxial joints
[ ] Uniaxial joints

Answer 19

Uniaxial joints

Joints can be categorized by the number of directions that rotation is possible. An elbow is an example of a uniaxial joint or a joint with only one axis of rotation.

Biaxial joints, such as wrists and ankles, are capable of two perpendicular axes.

Finally, multiaxial joints allow for movement in all three perpendicular axes. Examples include the shoulder and hip ball-and-socket joints.

Question 20

Which of the following sugar alcohols are most likely to cause gastrointestinal issues and should be avoided before training or an event?

[ ] Sorbitol and mannitol
[ ] Xylitol and lactitol
[ ] Isomalt and maltitol

Answer 20

Sorbitol and mannitol

Sugar alcohols are a type of carbohydrate that are not fully absorbed in the gut. Some sugar alcohols can cause gas, bloating, and cramping. Certain people may experience a laxative effect from consuming them. Sorbitol and mannitol are the two sugar alcohols that are most likely to cause gastrointestinal issues. Therefore, it is recommended that athletes do not consume any products with sugar alcohols, especially sorbitol and mannitol, in them before training or an event.

Question 21

When actin filaments slide inward on myosin filaments, Z-lines are pulled toward the center of the sarcomere. The result is a shortened muscle fiber. This is the foundation of which of the following theories?

[ ] Sliding fiber theory
[ ] Sliding sarcomere theory
[ ] Sliding filament theory

Answer 21

Sliding filament theory

Sliding filament theory explains how we shorten muscle fibers and produce force. Inside of sarcomeres, you’ll find two sets of filaments: actin and myosin. These filaments bind together and create cross-bridges in the muscle fiber. When there is a muscle impulse, actin filaments slide inward on myosin filaments. From here, Z-lines are pulled toward the center of the sarcomere. The result is a contraction or shortening of the muscle fiber and force is produced.

Question 22

What is the best way to avoid the catabolic effects of cortisol on the body during exercise?

[ ] Progressive training until adaptation has occurred
[ ] Supplement with heavy carbohydrate-based products before a workout
[ ] Not possible - Cortisol must have some catabolic effect on the body

Answer 22

Progressive training until adaptation has occurred

Cortisol is a catabolic hormone that is best known for breaking down amino acids, inhibiting protein synthesis, and suppressing glucose-dependent processes. When cortisol levels are chronically elevated, there is a risk for a number of side effects including muscle loss.

The best way to avoid the catabolic effects of cortisol on the body during exercise is to use a progressive training program until adaptation has occurred. Studies show that once adaptation has occurred, testosterone - not cortisol - has the primary influence on nuclear receptors.

Question 23

One of your athletes is recovering from an illness that has taken him/her out of training for several weeks. In order to avoid detraining, which of the following is the best option?

[ ] Discontinue all activity outside of doctor-recommended exercises, if any are prescribed
[ ] Introduce new modes of training that challenge the body in a different way from the original mode of exercise
[ ] Continue their primary mode of exercise at reduced frequency and intensity, if possible

Answer 23

Continue their primary mode of exercise at reduced frequency and intensity, if possible

Detraining occurs when the athlete reduces his/her training duration or intensity or stops training altogether due to a break in the training program, injury, or illness. Since the athlete is not training, he/she can expect a loss of the physiological adaptations brought about by training.

Athletes can minimize the effects of detraining by continuing to use their primary mode of exercise at a reduced frequency and intensity, if possible.

Question 24

When testing athletes over the course of multiple days, which of the following is the most important aspect to consider?

A. Conducting tests at random intervals
B. Conducting tests at the same time of day
C. Conducting tests in an evenly spaced manner to allow for rest

Answer 24

B. Conducting tests at the same time of day

Of the following options, conducting tests at the same time of day is the most important because this helps to avoid fluctuations in physiological responses due to differences in circadian rhythm. Testing at the same time of day will also allow for a relatively familiar climate condition, which allows you to make the decision to test outside or indoors.

Question 25

One of your athletes has recently returned to training after a long period of rehabilitation. Which of the following types of training would be ideal to correct a bilateral deficit?

A. Instability devices
B. Strongman training
C. Unilateral training

Answer 25

C. Unilateral training

Unilateral training isolates one side of the body during an exercise. This type of training is often used to reduce a bilateral deficit or when one side of the body is significantly weaker than the other. Examples of unilateral training include lunges, Bulgarian split squats (single-leg split squats), and step-ups. Unilateral training is especially beneficial for preparing an athlete for a sports event or competition.

Instability devices, while useful in improving mobility and balance, would not be recommended for an athlete who has finished rehab and is returning to training.

Strongman training is for advanced athletes only due to the focus on raw power exercises.

Question 26

You are coaching a powerlifting athlete and you will begin using chains during the bench press exercise to increase raw power and strength. What is the optimal length of chain for this exercise?

A. Suspended from the ground until the barbell reaches the lowest position in the bench press
B. In a coiled pile on the ground with the end wrapped around the barbell
C. Wrapped entirely around the end of the barbell

Answer 26

A. Suspended from the ground until the barbell reaches the lowest position in the bench press

Studies suggest that powerlifters will benefit the most from using chains during training. When it comes to the optimal length, you should make sure that the chain is suspended from the ground until the barbell reaches the lowest position in the bench press or when the barbell touches the athlete’s chest. While powerlifters may benefit the most, it is encouraged to use chains for increasing overall strength with other athletes and clients.

Question 27

All of the following are basic techniques that can be used to flip tires except:

A. Backlift style
B. Behind-the-back technique
C. Sumo

Answer 27

B. Behind-the-back technique

There are three basic techniques that can be used to flip tires:

1. Sumo: Wide stance, narrow grip
2. Backlift style: Narrow stance, forward pressing motion
3. Shoulder-against-the-tire technique: Hip-width stance, shoulder, and chin are placed on the tire
   The shoulder-against-the-tire technique is found most practical in literature and it is usually the one taught to beginners.

Lifting the tire behind the back would be impossible for most and a risky maneuver for those who try it.

Question 28

When observing the low position of the push-up for a female athlete, what can be used to ensure the athlete lowers the torso down far enough?

A. Foam roller
B. Closed fist in a vertical position
C. BOSU

Answer 28

A. Foam roller

While there is no standard criterion for the female low position during a push-up, it is suggested that females make torso contact with a foam roller on the ground rather than a closed fist in a vertical position below the chest, which is the standard for males.

Question 29

The deadlift is one of the most beneficial exercises in fitness. It’s also commonly performed incorrectly. You are watching an athlete during the starting position of a deadlift. Which of the following actions is incorrect and needs attention?

A. Shoulders are parallel with the hips
B. Knees are slightly over the barbell
C. Back is slightly arched

Answer 29

A. Shoulders are parallel with the hips

During a deadlift, an athlete’s shoulders should never be parallel or below the hips. While in the starting position, the athlete should have the following posture:

• Neutral or slightly arched back
• Scapulae depressed and retracted
• Chest up and out
• Head in line with the vertebral column or slightly hyperextended
• Heels on the floor
• Knee slightly over the barbell
• Shoulder over or slightly in front of the bar
• Eyes focused straight ahead

Question 30

Your athletes are testing for their one-repetition maximum (1RM) bench press. What is the minimum number of heavier (not maximal heavy) warm-up sets the athletes should perform before an attempt at the 1RM?

A. 3 sets
B. 2 sets
C. 1 set

Answer 30

B. 2 sets

As with any maximal strength test, the athlete first does a specific warm-up of 5 to 10 repetitions with a light to moderate load. Following this, at least two heavier sets of two to five repetitions each should be completed.

Question 31

You are testing for the one-repetition maximum (1RM) of your athletes. A maximal strength test is not possible so you will have to estimate the 1RM. Which of the following tests is appropriate for nearly all athletes and extremely reliable?

A. Using a 10RM load test
B. Using prediction equations
C. Using a 1RM table

Answer 31

Using a 10RM load test

Provided they demonstrate proper technique, the 10RM load test is appropriate for nearly all athletes. After the completion of warm-up sets, have the athlete perform multiple sets of the exercise until he/she can get no more than 10 well-executed repetitions.

It should be noted that the 10RM load test does not work well for power exercises.

You can use the 1RM table and prediction equation to estimate the one-rep maximum for an athlete, but the 10RM load test will give you a real-world demonstration of the athlete’s true ability.

Question 32

Which of the following work-to-rest ratios is the most ideal for plyometric exercise programs?

A. 1:5 to 1:10
B. 1:1 to 1:5
C. 1:10 to 1:15

Answer 32

A. 1:5 to 1:10

Plyometric drills involve maximal efforts to improve anaerobic power. Because of this, it is essential that you and your athlete focus on complete and adequate recovery. The proper work-to-rest ratio is between 1:5 to 1:10 and it is specific to the volume and type of drills being performed.

For example, depth jumps may require 5 to 10 seconds of rest between repetitions and 2 to 3 minutes between sets.

Question 33

You are introducing guidelines for alternative modes and nontraditional implement exercises to your athletes. Beginning with stance, which of the following is true when an athlete is performing a freestanding ground-based exercise?

A. Feet should be flat on the ground and slightly wider than shoulder-width
B. Feet should be favoring the heel and at shoulder-width apart
C. Feet should be flat on the ground and positioned in a narrow stance

Answer 33

A. Feet should be flat on the ground and slightly wider than shoulder-width

Alternative modes and nontraditional implement exercises are becoming increasingly popular in strength and conditioning training. During a freestanding ground-based exercise, an athlete’s feet should be flat on the ground and slightly wider than shoulder-width. Experts agree that this stance is ideal for performance and injury prevention.

Question 34

What is the one drawback to using logs during power exercises?

A. Mechanical difficulties of the log apparatus
B. Safety issues
C. Requirement for the user’s height

Answer 34

A. Mechanical difficulties of the log apparatus

Logs are a typical Strongman tool and used for log lifting. They are used with a midrange and pronated grip. Due to the mechanical difficulties of the log apparatus, athletes will find that they are not able to recreate their one-repetition maximum on certain exercises. The best example is a clean and jerk. Studies found that athletes using a log were not able to capture the same 1RM number as they could while using a traditional barbell. With that said, the log is still a useful and powerful fitness tool for athletes.

Question 35

You are having your athletes perform a standing long jump test. How many trials are the athletes allowed?

A. Four trials
B. Three trials
C. Two trials

Answer 35

B. Three trials

During a standing long jump, the athlete should get three trials. The best score of the three trials is accepted and recorded to the nearest 0.5 inches (1 cm).

It’s imperative to remember that the athlete must land on the feet for the jump to be scored.

Question 36

You have the opportunity to take your athletes to a higher altitude of 2,000 meters (6,562 feet) to live and train; however, you must account for acclimatization or the ability of the athletes to adjust to the new altitude. Given the new height of 2,000 meters, approximately how many days should you allow for acclimatization?

A. 6 to 8 days
B. 9 to 11 days
C. 12 to 14 days

Answer 36

C. 12 to 14 days

Many elite athletes train at altitude to produce an ergogenic effect. Acclimatization to altitude may occur between 12 to 14 days at moderate altitudes up to 2,300 meters (7,546 feet). With that said, altitudes greater than 2,300 meters can take months to fully acclimate to.

Question 37

What is the mechanism that is thought to be responsible for the increase in peak power when using resistance bands, especially during compound movements like the barbell back squat?

A. Post-activation potentiation effect
B. Constant external load effect
C. Hypertrophic effect

Answer 37

A. Post-activation potentiation effect

Resistance bands have become exceptionally popular for general fitness as well as sports performance training. Studies show that resistance bands can effectively trigger a post-activation potentiation effect (PAP), which increases the concentric rate of force development, resulting in a higher level of peak power.

Question 38

During which of the following phases of the design, layout, and organization of the strength and conditioning facility should you expect to create a master plan?

A. Construction phase
B. Design phase
C. Predesign phase

Answer 38

C. Predesign phase

The predesign phase is the first step in building a new facility and it requires the creation of a needs analysis, a feasibility study, and a master plan.

The master plan is the general plan for all phases of the new facility, and it typically includes the following:

• Building and construction plan
• Facility design
• Budget information
• Operational plan

Question 39

Which of the following analyzes strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats during the construction of a new fitness facility?

A. Feasibility study
B. Needs analysis
C. Design phase

Answer 39

A. Feasibility study

Also known as a SWOT analysis, a feasibility study analyzes strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats during the construction of a new fitness facility. Taking place during the predesign phase, the feasibility study ensures that the financial investment will yield a viable and sustainable return.

Question 40

You are testing the cardiovascular fitness of your athletes but it is during the summer. Which of the following is not a recommendation for testing during the summer heat?

A. Drinking fluids during the testing
B. Providing salt tablets to athletes to retain water
C. Monitoring heart rate

Answer 40

B. Providing salt tablets to athletes to retain water

Salt tablets are not recommended during testing because of the potential side effects of upset stomach and raised blood pressure, which can impact results. The best way to hydrate your athletes is with plain water and snack breaks.

In order to minimize health risks and obtain accurate results when testing athletes in hot environments, the strength and conditioning professional should follow these guidelines:

• Make sure the athlete has engaged in enough training to establish a baseline
• Avoid testing under extreme conditions
• Make sure athletes are acclimatized
• Athletes should be well hydrated
• Athletes should be encouraged to drink during exercise
• Wear light-colored clothing
• Heart rate may be monitored
• Be attentive to symptoms of heatstroke or heat exhaustion
• Make sure medical coverage is readily available

Question 41

During the starting position of a seated barbell shoulder press, what is the first thing that an athlete should do?

A. Grasp the bar with a closed, pronated grip
B. Signal the spotter for assistance
C. Place the body in the five-point body contact position

Answer 41

C. Place the body in the five-point body contact position

The first thing that an athlete should do during a seated barbell shoulder press is place the body in the five-point body contact position. This will ensure proper posture, form, and execution of the movement for the entirety of the exercise. After this, the athlete can grasp the bar with a closed, pronated grip and signal the spotter for assistance.

In fact, when coaching an athlete and a spotter, make sure the spotter knows to remind the athlete to place the body in the five-point body contact position. This buddy system will help to avoid injury and improve performance.

Question 42

When developing a mission statement, which of the following suggested criteria should you follow?

A. Long and detailed as it relates to your gym’s history and ethics
B. Clear and easy to understand so every member and athlete comprehend it
C. Narrow in scope, pertaining to your specific gym

Answer 42

B. Clear and easy to understand so every member and athlete comprehend it

When developing a mission statement, these are suggested criteria that you should use to help craft it:

• Keep it short and sharply focused
• Keep it clear and easy to understand
• Define why the organization exists
• Do not prescribe means
• Keep it broad in scope
• Provide direction for upholding code of ethics
• Address and match the organization’s scope of practice
• Inspire commitment

Question 43

Before an athlete is allowed access to the strength and conditioning facility, which of the following should he/she present to the sports medicine coach first?

A. Signed standard of care form
B. Informed consent form
C. Preparticipation screening and clearance

Answer 43

C. Preparticipation screening and clearance

Before an athlete is allowed access to the strength and conditioning facility, he/she must receive a preparticipation screening and clearance form stating that he/she is ready to participate in training.

While an informed consent form is also required, the preparticipation screening and clearance form is required first.

Question 44

Which of the following is not considered when assessing athletic program needs?

A. What equipment needs to be repaired and modified?
B. What will the training experience of the athletes be?
C. How many athletic teams will want to use the facility?

Answer 44

C. How many athletic teams will want to use the facility?

One of the more important considerations in building a strength and conditioning facility is the needs and requirements of the athletes and athletic program. When it comes time to assess such needs, the facility designers should be able to answer these questions:

• How many athletes will be using the facility?
• What are the training goals of the athletes, coaches, and administration?
• What are the demographics of the athletes?
• What will the training experience of the athletes be?
• How will the athletes be scheduled?
• What equipment needs to be repaired and modified?

The desire of potential customers is not considered; only the athletes who will actually be using the facility.

Once all of these questions are answered, the process of designing the facility will be much easier.

Question 45

When designing an aerobic endurance program for an athlete, which of the following captures the recommended order of the steps you should follow?

A. Mode / Intensity / Progression / Duration / Frequency
B. Mode / Duration / Intensity / Frequency / Progression
C. Mode / Frequency / Intensity / Duration / Progression

Answer 45

C. Mode / Frequency / Intensity / Duration / Progression

When designing an aerobic endurance program for an athlete, the following captures the recommended order of the steps:

1. Exercise Mode: The specific activity performed by the athlete (e.g., swimming, cycling, etc.)
2. Training Frequency: The number of training sessions.
3. Training Intensity: The amount of energy that is expended when exercising. The goal is to safely and effectively overload the athlete so that aerobic capacity increases.
4. Exercise Duration: Length of a training session.
5. Exercise Progression: How to change the program to continue challenging the athlete.

Question 46

When having athletes perform the YMCA bench press test, a metronome is used to measure the cadence of the movement. How many beats per minute should the metronome be set to?

A. 60 beats per minute
B. 30 beats per minute
C. 90 beats per minute

Answer 46

A. 60 beats per minute

Use a 35lb barbell for women and an 80lb barbell for men.

When having athletes perform the YMCA bench press test, a metronome should be set to 60 beats per minute to ensure a rate of 30 repetitions per minute or the cadence of one beat up, one beat down.

Once the athlete can no longer keep up with this cadence with proper form, the test is over. As always, make sure that the athlete has a spotter to monitor exercise form and execution.

Question 47

You have an injured athlete who has rested for the allotted amount of time prescribed by his/her doctor and now he/she is ready to begin rehabilitation training. You’ve developed a De Lorne-style program for him/her. Which of the following repetition schemes is characteristic of the De Lorne system?

A. 4 sets of 10-to-1 repetition(s) / light-to-heavy resistance
B. 3 sets of 10 repetitions / pyramid-style program / light-to-heavy resistance
C. 3 sets of 10 repetitions / pyramid-style program / heavy-to-light resistance

Answer 47

B. 3 sets of 10 repetitions / pyramid-style program / light-to-heavy resistance

The De Lorne-style programming for resistance training focuses on three sets of 10 repetitions in a pyramid-style program. Moving from light-to-heavy resistance, the athlete will perform 50% of the 10 repetition maximum on the first set. On the second set, the athlete will use 75% of the 10RM and finally 100% on the third and final set.

The Oxford system is similar to this except it uses heavy-to-light resistance.

Finally, the DAPRE system uses 4 sets of repetitions ranging from 10 to 1.

Question 48

You are working with a newer athlete who has been steadily progressing for six months. Why would it be a good idea to start using variable-resistance training methods?

A. To ensure constant load tension during concentric phases
B. To minimize the amount of force application during power exercises
C. To complement the changing mechanical advantages associated with constant-loaded exercises

Answer 48

C. To complement the changing mechanical advantages associated with constant-loaded exercises

Resistance training practices focus on applying overload to the body. There are three primary methods to do this: constant external, accommodating, and variable resistance. If you’ve been working with a new client for six months, there is a great chance that you’ve been using primarily constant-external practices. In order to complement the changing mechanical advantages associated with constant-loaded exercises, it would be a great idea to begin using variable-resistance training methods.

Question 49

All of the following are proven benefits of warming up before training or competition except:

A. Faster muscle contractions and relaxation of both agonist and antagonist muscles
B. Increased viscous resistance in muscles and joints
C. Improvements in muscle strength and power

Answer 49

B. Increased viscous resistance in muscles and joints

A warm-up will actually decrease the viscous resistance in muscles and joints, not increase it.

Warming up is now almost universally accepted as an integral part of any training program or competition. A warm-up can effectively prepare athletes and active individuals for the activity that will follow. All of the following are proven and commonly touted benefits of warming up:

• Faster muscle contractions and relaxation of both agonist and antagonist muscles
• Improvements in the rate of force development and reaction time
• Improvements in muscle strength and power
• Improved oxygen delivery
• Increased blood flow to active muscles
• Enhanced metabolic reactions
• Increased psychological preparedness for performance

Question 50

Which of the following is the best way to keep your fitness facility safe and avoid potential lawsuits?

A. Proper supervision
B. Keeping equipment clean and disinfected
C. Requiring signed documentation to enter the gym floor

Answer 50

A. Proper supervision

Inadequate supervision was cited in an estimated 80% of court cases in which athletic injuries occurred. All athletes should be constantly supervised, which requires the presence of a qualified strength and conditioning professional for overseeing all activities.

Question 51

An athlete is performing depth jumps as a part of his/her training program. Which of the following is the ideal resting time between repetitions and sets, respectively?

A. 2 to 4 seconds; 120 to 180 seconds
B. 1 to 2 second(s); 60 to 120 seconds
C. 0 to 1 second(s); 30 to 60 seconds

Answer 51

A. 2 to 4 seconds; 120 to 180 seconds

Depth jumps are a type of plyometric exercise. Because plyometric drills involve maximal efforts to improve anaerobic power, complete and adequate recovery is required. Studies suggest that ideal recovery between repetitions may be 2 to 4 seconds while recovery between sets can be 120 to 180 seconds (2 to 3 minutes).

Question 52

An athlete places his/her hands wide and tucks the thumb underneath the index and middle fingers. What type of grip is he/she using?

A. Clean grip
B. Wide grip
C. Snatch grip

Answer 52

C. Snatch grip

A snatch grip is a type of overhand grip that places the hands wide on the barbell. The thumb is tucked underneath the index and middle fingers also called a hook grip. The latter is done to increase grip strength.

A clean grip is similar to a snatch grip except that the hands are placed just outside of shoulder-width; it is not considered a wide grip.

Question 53

How long should you wait after the grip on the caliper has been released before you read the dial during a skinfold measurement?

A. Between 3 and 4 seconds after the grip on the caliper has been released
B. 5 seconds after the grip on the caliper has been released
C. Between 1 and 2 seconds after the grip on the caliper has been released

Answer 53

C. Between 1 and 2 seconds after the grip on the caliper has been released

During a skinfold measurement, place the caliper prongs perpendicular to the fold 0.5 to 1 inch from the thumb and index finger. Release the caliper grip so that its spring tension is exerted on the skinfold. Wait between 1 and 2 seconds after the grip on the caliper has been released before reading the dial.

Question 54

You are reviewing the range of scores from a recent one-repetition maximum bench press test. What is the term used to describe the middlemost score?

A. Mode
B. Median
C. Mean

Answer 54

B. Median

When a set of test scores are arranged in order of magnitude, the middlemost score is referred to as the median. With an even number of scores, the median is the average of the two middlemost scores. When scores have a wide range, the median tends to be a better measure of central tendency than the mean.

Question 55

Which of the following types of criterion-referenced validity is described as the high positive correlation between results of the test being assessed and those of the recognized measure of the construct?

A. Predictive validity
B. Convergent validity
C. Discriminant validity

Answer 55

B. Convergent validity

Convergent validity is the type of concurrent validity that field tests used by strength and conditioning professionals should exhibit. Convergent validity is evidenced by a high positive correlation between results of the test being assessed and those of the recognized measure of the construct.

Discriminant validity is the ability of a test to distinguish between two different constructs and is evidenced by a low correlation between the results of the test and those of tests in a different construct.

Predictive validity is the extent to which the test score corresponds to future behavior or performance.

Question 56

Which of the following rehabilitation systems involves four sets of an exercise, with repetitions ranging from 10 to possibly only one during the final set?

A. Kinetic chain system
B. Oxford system
C. DAPRE system

Answer 56

DAPRE system

DAPRE complements resistance training during recovery, rehabilitation, and reconditioning.

Knight’s daily adjustable progressive resistive exercise (DAPRE) system requires and allows more manipulation of intensity and volume than other systems (e.g., Oxford). DAPRE involves four sets, with repetitions ranging from 10 to possibly only one during the final set.

• The first set requires 10 repetitions of 50% of the estimated 1RM
• The second set requires six repetitions of 75% of the estimated 1RM
• The third third set requires the maximum number of repetitions of 100% of the estimated 1RM
• The number of repetitions performed during the third set determines the adjustment to be made in resistance for the fourth set

Question 57

During the one-arm dumbbell row, the athlete should pull the dumbbell toward the body, keeping the elbow in which position?

A. Slightly out and away from the body at a 45-degree angle
B. Completely out to the side forming a 90-degree angle
C. Close to the body

Answer 57

C. Close to the body

When performing a one-arm dumbbell row, the athlete should pull the dumbbell toward the torso, keeping the elbow close to the body. The athlete should also take care to keep the torso rigid, back neutral, and knees slightly flexed. Once the dumbbell reaches the level of the side of the torso, he/she can lower it to the starting position.

Question 58

Which two critical components create the two-stage process for a needs analysis?

A. Evaluation of the sport and assessment of the athlete
B. Evaluation of the athlete’s sports performance and assessment of dietary habits
C. Evaluation of the athlete’s goals and assessment of the athlete’s sports experience

Answer 58

A. Evaluation of the sport and assessment of the athlete

The two-stage process that makes up a needs analysis is based on an evaluation of the sport and an assessment of the athlete.

During the evaluation of the sport, unique characteristics of the sport are determined to help the exercise professional design a program specific to those requirements and characteristics.

Assessment of the athlete includes evaluating training (and injury) status, conducting a variety of tests, reviewing the results, and determining the athlete’s primary goal of training.

Question 59

You are creating a program to improve the sprinting ability of your athletes. Which of the following is not commonly considered when designing a sprinting-focused program?

A. Emphasizing further development of SSC (stretch-shortening cycle)
B. Emphasizing extended stretching exercises
C. Emphasizing brief ground support

Answer 59

B. Emphasizing extended stretching exercises

The overarching goal of sprinting is to achieve optimal stride length and stride frequency through the correct application of force into the ground. When designing a program that focuses on improving sprint ability, you should emphasize two primary areas:

1. Emphasize brief ground support as a means of achieving a rapid stride rate.
2. Emphasize further development of SSC (stretch-shortening cycle) as a means to increase the amplitude of impulse for each step of the sprint.

Question 60

Which of the following types of tests is administered one or more times during the training period to assess progress and modify the program as needed?

A. Formative evaluation
B. Midtest
C. Post-test

Answer 60

B. Midtest

Midtest

Test administered one or more times during the training period to assess progress and modify the program as needed. A midtest is essential for ensuring maximum benefit and a continual road to progress for the athletes.

Formative evaluation

Based on the midtest(s) and it supports the review of progress and the need for change in the program.

Post-test

Administered after the training period to determine the success of the training.

Question 61

One of your athletes is training to run a marathon. What is the recommended intensity that you should be monitoring and ensuring in your athlete during workouts?

A. 70% VO2 max
B. 50% VO2 max
C. 90% VO2 max

Answer 61

A. 70% VO2 max

An athlete who wants to run a marathon will be engaging in long, slow-distance training (LSD). The recommended intensity for this type of training is 70% VO2 max (or about 80% of maximum heart rate).

It’s important to note that the “slow” in LSD refers to being slightly slower than race pace; however, the total training distance should be greater than the race length. For example, if the total race length is 2 hours, you would have your athlete run slightly slower than race pace for 2 hours and 30 minutes.

Question 62

Which of the following is not a recommended record that should be kept on file at the strength and conditioning facility in regards to the maintenance of the facility?

A. Return-to-participation clearance
B. Client’s medical health history
C. Equipment user manuals

Answer 62

B. Client’s medical health history

Client’s medical health history is not a recommended record to keep on file at the facility as it serves no purpose in the maintenance of the facility.

Proper documentation and record-keeping are essential to the management and monitoring of the strength and conditioning programs and facilities. Here is a full list of recommended records that every facility should have on file.

• Personnel credentials
• Professional standards and guidelines
• Policies and procedures
• Written emergency plan
• Equipment user manuals
• Equipment and facility maintenance
• Preparticipation medical clearance
• Return-to-participation clearance
• Protective legal documentation
• Training logs, evaluation forms, and instruction notes

Question 63

Which of the following is not a common reason for a difference between two sets of scores?

A. Intrasubject variability
B. Failure of the test to provide consistent results
C. Faulty technology

Answer 63

C. Faulty technology

Faulty technology, while possible, is not a common reason because the device(s) can easily be replaced or exchanged.

The most common reasons for a difference between two sets of scores include the following:

1. Intrasubject variability: A lack of consistent performance by the person being tested
2. Lack of interrater reliability: When two or more raters disagree
3. Intrarater variability: One rater is not reliable
4. The test itself: Failure of the test to provide consistent results

Question 64

When compared to carbohydrates, fatty acid chains contain a higher ratio of which two molecules relative to oxygen?

A. Nitrogen and hydrogen
B. Carbon and hydrogen
C. Carbon and nitrogen

Answer 64

B. Carbon and hydrogen

Carbohydrates and fatty acids both contain carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen molecules, but fatty acid chains have a greater proportion of carbon and hydrogen compared to oxygen and thus provide more energy per gram.

Fats provide approximately 9 kcal/g while carbohydrates and protein supply roughly 4 kcal/g.