Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology Nursing: N1230 > Exam One > Flashcards

Exam One Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

What is the National Institutes of Health (NIH) Revitalization Act?

A

Ensures women and minorities are included in clinical research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Pre-Clinical Drug Testing and what does it study?

A
  • Performed on animals or human cells/tissues (outside of the body)
  • Studies toxic/pharmacological effects of drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is informed consent and what does it include?

HINT: PECIVC

A
  • The right to be informed, participate voluntarily, and without coercion
  • Includes purpose of the study, what is expected of patient, and potential consequences of the study
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define autonomy

A

Right to make decisions for oneself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List the core ethical principals

A
  • Respect for persons
  • Beneficence
  • Justice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define beneficence

A
  • Duty to protect research subjects from harm

- Ensuring benefits of the clinical study are greater than the risks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define non-maleficence

HINT: Beneficence = Non-Maleficence

A

The act of “do no harm”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is risk-benefit ratio and who determines it?

A
  • Risks of a clinical study must be balanced with the anticipated benefits
  • Determined by the Institutional Review Board (IRB)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who/What is in-vitro testing performed on?

A

Human cells or tissues (outside of the body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Who/What is in-vivo testing performed on?

A

Whole, living organisms (i.e. animals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In-Vitro and In-Vivo testing are a part of what?

A

Pre-clinical drug testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Best Pharmaceuticals for Children Act?

A

Requires that drugs marketed for children be tested on children for safety and effectiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the Pediatric Research Equity Act?

A
  • Recognizes a child’s response to drugs are not solely affected by size and weight
  • Notes that “children are not just small adults”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the purpose of Phase 1 Drug Research? Who is it conducted on?

A
  • Tests for safety of the drug (i.e. safe dosage ranges and side affects)
  • Conducted on 20-100 healthy individuals with no underlying health conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the purpose of Phase 2 Drug Research? Who is it conducted on?

A
  • Tests for effectiveness of the drug

- Conducted on 100-300 people who currently have the condition the drug is meant to treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the purpose of Phase 3 Drug Research? Who is it conducted on?

A
  • Tests for effectiveness compared to marketed drugs that treat the same condition
  • Conducted on large groups of >1000
  • Involves double-blind, randomized trials
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the purpose of Phase 4 Drug Research? Who is it conducted on?

A
  • Tests the drug after approved for marketing for long term affects and safety
  • Can be prescribed and marketed to various populations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the importance of randomized controlled trials?

A
  • Most reliable way to evaluate drug therapy
  • Ensures differences in outcome result from drug treatment, NOT differences in subjects
  • Prevents bias and promotes fairness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a double blind study?

A

Neither the researcher or research subject know who is receiving experimental treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is an experimental group?

A

A group that receives the drug/treatment being tested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a control group?

A

A group that receives no drug, a different drug, placebo, or the same drug at a different dose, frequency, or route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the American Nurses Association Code of Ethics?

A
  • States the nurses primary ethical duty is to care for the patient
  • Last revision addressed ethical considerations regarding social media, electronic health records, and expanding the nursing role in clinical research
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the United States Pharmacopeia and National Formulary?

A
  • Authoritative source for drug standards in the US
  • Drugs included have met high standards of quality and safety
  • Initials “USP” will follow the official drug name to denote global recognition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Nurse accountability for controlled substances includes?

A
  • Verify orders before administering drug
  • Account for all controlled drugs
  • Maintain log of controlled substances
  • Document all discarded drugs, witnessed by another nurse
  • Timely documentation of drug administration
  • Document patient response
  • Keep all controlled drugs in locked storage container and double lock narcotics
  • Mandatory reporting of suspected or known drug diversion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a Schedule I controlled substance? Give examples.

A
  • Not safe or accepted for medical use
  • Highest abuse/addiction potential
  • Examples: heroin, LSD, peyote, crack cocaine, PCP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a Schedule II controlled substance? Give examples.

A
  • Safe and accepted for medical use
  • High abuse/addiction potential
  • Examples: cocaine, morphine, oxycodone, methadone, fentanyl
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a Schedule III controlled substance? Give examples.

A
  • Less risk of abuse/addiction than Schedule II drugs

- Examples: acetaminophen with codeine, ketamine, anabolic steroids, testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a Schedule IV controlled substance? Give examples.

A
  • Less risk of abuse/addiction than Schedule I, II, or III drugs
  • Examples: diazepam, lorazepam, tramadol, zolpidem
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a Schedule V controlled substance? Give examples.

A
  • Lowest potential for abuse
  • Contain limited quantities of narcotics
  • Examples: cough preparations with <200mg of codeine per 100mL (Robitussin AC, phenergan with codeine, pregabalin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are chemical drug names?

A
  • Describes the chemical structures of drugs

- Not commonly used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are generic drug names?

A
  • Official, nonproprietary, universal drug name
  • Not owned by any drug company
  • Only one name for each drug
  • No trademark, lowercase first letter
  • Same active ingredients as brand name drugs
  • May have different inert ingredients than brand name drug
  • Requires FDA approval
  • Example: acetaminophen, ibuprofen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are trade/brand drug names?

A
  • Name owned by a drug company
  • Uppercase first letter, trademark follows name
  • Easier to spell and pronounce
  • Example: Tylenol, Advil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the responsibilities of the FDA?

A

Ensure drugs are labeled correctly, effective for marketed condition, and safe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is ‘Respect for Persons’?

A

Patients should be allowed to make their own decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is an example of fairness?

A

When performing a drug study, if one group is receiving substantial benefits, stop study and allow all people of study to use the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are counterfeit drugs?

A
  • May contain wrong ingredients
  • May have insufficient amount of active ingredients
  • May have no active ingredients
  • May contain impurities and contaminants
  • May be distributed in fake packaging
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the nurses role in regards to counterfeit drugs?

A

Educate the patient!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is The Sherley Amendment?

A
  • Prohibits false therapeutic claims on drug labels
  • Mrs. Winslow’s Soothing Syrup, advertised to treat colic and teething, resulted in infant deaths because it contained morphine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act?

A
  • Requires FDA to ensure a drug is safe before marketing
  • Requires FDA to ensure drugs are tested for harmful effects
  • Requires FDA to ensure drugs are labeled with correct information, including adverse effects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act?

A
  • Designed to lower problems of drug abuse by incorporating:
    1) promotion and research into prevention and treatment of abuse
    2) strengthening enforcement of authority
    3) establishing treatment and rehabilitation facilities
    4) creating schedules for drugs based on addictive tendencies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the Dietary Supplement and Education Act?

A
  • Classified dietary supplements as food
  • Enforced labeling requirements for FDA
  • Authorized FDA to promote safe manufacturing practices
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?

A
  • Protects workers health insurance when they change or lose jobs
  • Sets privacy standards for individuals health information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the Food and Drug Administration Safety and Innovation Act?

A

-Enhances safety of the global drug supply chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is pharmacogenetics and what does it do?

A
  • How people respond to drug therapy related to their genetic makeup
  • Studies how patients genome affects drug response
  • Helps individualize optimal drug treatment regimes
  • Helps decrease drug reaction
  • Promotes drug regime adherence
  • Reduces costs of healthcare
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Pharmacogenetics is the same as what?

A

Pharmagonetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What type of patients may benefit from pharmacogenetics?

A
  • Those taking multiple prescription drugs
  • Those not responding to current therapy
  • Those having adverse drug reactions
  • Those taking black box warning drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Is pharmacogenetic testing available for every drug?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What legal and ethical considerations should be made regarding pharmacogenetics, specifically autonomy?

A
  • Patient may change their mind about genetic testing

- Patient may consent or refuse genetic testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Define justice.

A

Equal and fair treatment for all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the four phases of pharmacokinetics?

A
  • Absorption
  • Distribution
  • Metabolism
  • Excretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

Body acting on the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is pharmacodynamics?

A

Drug acting on the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the three phases of pharmacodynamics?

A
  • Receptor binding
  • Post-receptor effects
  • Chemical reaction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is drug absorption?

A

Drug movement from the GI tract into the bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does drug absorption require?

A
  • Disintegration

- Dissolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is disintegration?

A

Breakdown of oral drugs into small particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is dissolution?

A
  • Process of combining small drug particles with liquid to form a solution
  • Not required if drug is already in liquid form
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the different methods of absorption?

A
  • Passive transport
  • Active transport
  • Pinocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the most common, cheapest, and easiest route to administer drugs?

A

Enteral (oral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What drug resists disintegration in the gastric acid of the stomach? Where is this drug absorbed?

A
  • Enteric Coated (EC) drugs

- Small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What factors affect drug absorption?

A
  • Blood flow, pain, stress, gastric pH
  • Food texture, fat content, temperature
  • Route of administration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What factors cause minimal drug absorption?

A

-Decreased blood flow (i.e. shock or extreme decrease in blood pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which route of drug administration has the fastest onset of action?

A

IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which route of drug administration is slowed, depending on blood flow to the area?

A

Subcutaneous (SubQ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which route of drug administration has a slow onset and is unpredictable?

A

Oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which drug route is slower than IV, but faster than Subcutaneous?

A

IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Passive transport occurs through what?

A
  • Diffusion

- Facilitated Diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is diffusion?

A

Movement across a cell membrane from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is facilitated diffusion?

A

Movement across a cell membrane from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration using a carrier protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which transport route does not require energy?

A

Passive transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is active transport?

A
  • The movement of a drug across a concentration gradient

- Requires a carrier protein or enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which transport route requires energy?

A

Active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is pinocytosis?

A

A cell carries the drug across the membrane by engulfing the drug particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What organ metabolizes most drugs?

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is first pass affect, or first pass metabolism?

A

When the liver metabolizes a drug to an inactive form and it is excreted, reducing the amount of active drug available to exert a pharmacological effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

Percentage of the administered drug that reaches systemic circulation

77
Q

Drugs move from the GI tract to the liver via the what?

A

Portal vein

78
Q

What factors affect bioavailability?

A
  • Absorption
  • First pass affect
  • Drug form
  • Route of administration
  • Gastric mucosa and motility
  • Administration with food or other drugs
  • Changes in liver metabolism
79
Q

Decreased liver function increases what?

A

Bioavailability

80
Q

What is drug distribution?

A

Movement of drug from circulation to body fluids and tissues

81
Q

What factors influence drug distribution?

A
  • Protein binding
  • Free drugs
  • Blood brain barrier (BBB)
82
Q

As drugs are distributed in the plasma, many bind with what?

A

Plasma proteins

83
Q

What happens to a drug if it binds to a protein?

A
  • It is unable to affect the rest of the body/interact with tissue receptors
  • Becomes inactive
84
Q

What is a free drug?

A
  • Portion of a drug that is not bound to protein

- Able to exit blood vessels and reach a site of action resulting in a pharmacological effect

85
Q

What is the blood brain barrier? What is its purpose?

A
  • Blood vessels of the brain, made of special endothelial lining, compressed tightly together
  • Protects the brain from foreign substances
86
Q

What drugs are able to cross the blood brain barrier?

A
  • Highly-lipid soluble drugs

- Drugs with low molecular weight (benzodiazepines)

87
Q

Drug metabolism is also known as what?

A

Biotransformation

88
Q

What is drug metabolism? Where does it occur?

A
  • Process of the body chemically changing drug into a form that can be excreted
  • Occurs primarily in the liver
89
Q

If the liver function is decreased, what happens to the drug effects?

A

Increase

90
Q

What is prodrug? Why is it used?

HINT: Codeine and Morphine

A
  • Biologically inactive compound which is metabolized inside the body to produce an active drug
  • Improves drug delivery, decrease toxicity, targets specific cells/tissues
91
Q

What is a half-life?

A

Period of time required for concentration or amount of drug in body to be reduce by one-half

92
Q

What affects a drugs half-life?

A
  • Metabolism

- Elimination

93
Q

What does the half-life help determine?

A

Dosing intervals

94
Q

If liver and kidney function is decreased, the half-life will do what?

A

Increase

95
Q

Long half-life equals _____ frequent dosing.

A

Less

96
Q

Short half-life equals _____ frequent dosing.

A

More

97
Q

What is a steady state?

A

When the amount of drug administered equals the amount of drug eliminated

98
Q

Steady state requires how many half-lives?

A

Four (4)

99
Q

What is a loading dose? Give an example.

A
  • Large initial dose or series of doses to rapidly achieve therapeutic concentration and steady state
  • Example: Z-pac
100
Q

Name the different ways that drugs are excreted? What is the main route of drug excretion?

A
  • Kidney (Main route)
  • Liver
  • Lungs
  • Saliva, sweat, and breastmilk
101
Q

How are drugs excreted from the liver?

A

Through bile

102
Q

How are drugs excreted through the lungs?

A

Exhalation

103
Q

Liver dysfunction leads to what?

A

Decreased metabolism

104
Q

Kidney dysfunction leads to what?

A

Decreased excretion

105
Q

Urine pH will affect what phase of pharmacokinetics?

A

Excretion

106
Q

Acidic urine promotes the elimination of what drugs?

A

Alkalotic (Basic)

107
Q

Alkaline urine promotes the elimination of what drugs?

A

Acidic

108
Q

What drug is excreted rapidly in alkaline urine?

A

Salicylic acid (Aspirin)

109
Q

What tests determine renal function?

A
  • Creatinine

- BUN

110
Q

What is a primary effect?

A

Desirable response

111
Q

What is a secondary effect?

A

Desirable or undesirable response

112
Q

What is potency?

A

Amount of drug needed to initiate a physiological response

113
Q

What is high potency?

A

High therapeutic response at a low dosage

114
Q

What is low potency?

A

Low therapeutic response at a low dosage

115
Q

What is maximal efficacy?

A

No matter how much drug you take it will not work

116
Q

What is the difference between therapeutic dose and toxic dose known as?

A

Therapeutic index

117
Q

What medications have a narrow therapeutic index?

A
  • Warfarin
  • Digoxin
  • Phenytoin
118
Q

Define onset.

A

Time it takes drug to reach minimum effective concentration

119
Q

Define peak.

A

When drug reaches highest concentration in blood

120
Q

What is minimum effective concentration?

A

Minimum amount of drug necessary to produce an effect on body

121
Q

What is duration?

A

Length of time taken for a drug to exert a therapeutic effect

122
Q

What are peak and trough drug levels? What are they monitored for?

A
  • Rate of drug absorption and rate of drug excretion

- Monitor for drugs with small therapeutic index

123
Q

Which level is more commonly monitored, peak or trough? When do we draw this level?

A
  • Trough

- Right before the next drug dose is scheduled to be administered

124
Q

What is the peak time of an IV drug?

A

30-60 minutes

125
Q

What is the peak time of an oral drug?

A

2-3 hours

126
Q

What is the receptor theory?

A

-Drugs bind to receptors to activate or inactivate them

127
Q

Activating a receptor does what?

A

Produces a response

128
Q

Inactivating a receptor does what?

A

Blocks a response

129
Q

What is the role of agonists?

A

Activate receptors to produce a desire response

130
Q

What is the role of antagonists?

A

Prevent receptor activation and block the response

131
Q

Describe nonspecific drugs?

A

Affect different sites of the same receptor

132
Q

Describe nonselective drugs?

A

Affected different receptors

133
Q

What is an example of a nonspecific drug?

A

Bethanechol

134
Q

What is an example of a nonselective drug?

A

Epinephrine

135
Q

What is drug tolerance?

A

Decreased response to drug, requiring an increase in dosage to get desired affect

136
Q

What is tachyphylaxis?

A

When a drug suddenly stops working after one or several doses

137
Q

What is a side effect?

A
  • Predictable and often mild

- Secondary drug effect

138
Q

What is an adverse reaction?

A
  • Unexpected and undesirable reaction to drug
  • More severe than side effects
  • Can occur at normal dosage
139
Q

What is drug toxicity?

A
  • Drug level exceeds therapeutic range

- Over accumulation of drug

140
Q

Who is at risk for drug interactions? Who is at the highest risk?

A
  • Chronic health
  • Patients taking multiple medications
  • Patients taking different dietary supplements/herbs
  • Patients who see more than 1 HCP
  • Patient who use multiple pharmacies
  • Older adults (highest risk)
141
Q

What are drug interactions?

A

When one drug affects another

142
Q

What percentage of older adults take 5 or more different medications?

A

20%

143
Q

What factors affect changes in absorption?

A
  • Increase or decrease in gastric emptying time
  • Changes in gastric pH
  • Formation of drug complexes
144
Q

What happens if the production of hepatic enzymes are induced?

A

Drug is metabolized more quickly

145
Q

What happens if the production of hepatic enzymes are inhibited?

A

Drug is metabolized more slowly

146
Q

What are impotent inhibitors that increase toxicity?

A
  • Alcohol
  • Food
  • Diet
  • Grapefruit juice
147
Q

When two or more drugs are excreted through the same route, they do what?

A

Fight

148
Q

What is an additive interaction? Give an example.

A
  • Sum of effects of two drugs

- Hydralazine and nitro (cause vasodilation and low blood pressure)

149
Q

What is a synergistic interaction? Give an example.

A
  • Effect is much greater than effects of either drug alone

- Amoxicillin and Coagulonate (antibiotics)

150
Q

What is an antagonistic interaction?

A
  • One drug reduces or blocks effects of other drug

- Desirable nalaxone and protamine sulfate

151
Q

What occurs during a drug-nutrient interaction?

A

Food may increase, decrease or delay drug response

152
Q

What is an example of a drug-nutrient interaction?

A

MAOI’s taken with tyramine-rich foods such as cheese, wine, organ meats, beer, yogurt, sour cream, bananas can result in hypertensive crisis

153
Q

What occurs during a drug-laboratory interaction?

A

-Drugs may cause misinterpretation of drug results

154
Q

What is drug-induced photosensitivity?

A
  • Skin reaction caused by sunlight exposure

- Can be avoided

155
Q

What drug treats leukemia?

A

Mercaptopurine

156
Q

What drug treats colon cancer and small lung cancer?

A
  • Irinotecan

- Want to eliminate if you have genetic variation

157
Q

What drug treats HIV and affects 10% of the public with its life threatening effects?

A

Abacavir

158
Q

What drug is a vitamin K antagonist, anticoagulant, increases the risk of bleeding, and is not widely used?

A

Warfarin

159
Q

What drug class does codeine and tramadol fall under? Some people also lack the enzyme to convert this drug for pain control.

A
  • Opoids

- Mostly affects Asians, Middle Easterns, and Caucasians

160
Q

What drug is an anti-analytic, increases immune response and can cause the development of Steven Johnson syndrome?

A

Carbamazepine

161
Q

What should you do as part of the assessment for the nursing process of pharmacogenetics?

A
  • Assess family history back three generations

- Determine side effects/adverse effects to drug therapy

162
Q

What are the nursing interventions of pharmacogenetics?

A
  • Refer identified patients to genetic counseling as needed
  • Guide patients in the implications and uses of genetic results
  • Ensure patient knows to report genetic findings to all HCP’s
163
Q

What are botanicals?

A

Additive substances that come from plants

164
Q

What is an herb?

A

Any plant used for culinary or medicinal purposes

165
Q

What is phytomedicine?

A

A type of medicine that focuses on the therapeutic value of plants

166
Q

What did the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA) do?

A

It is a US federal act that defined dietary supplements

167
Q

What is the Current Good Manufacturing Practices (CGMPs)?

A

US Food and Drug Administration standards requiring that package labels give the quality and strength of all contents and that products be free of contaminants or impurities

168
Q

What is Astralagus used for? What type of reaction can occur?

A
  • Used to boost the immune system and limit the effects of cold and flu symptoms
  • May interact with drugs that alter immune function such as cyclosporine
169
Q

What is Chamomile used for? What type of reaction can occur?

A
  • Used to treat sleeplessness, anxiety, and stomach ailments -Often used as a tea
  • Allergic reactions may occur in those allergic to ragweed.
170
Q

What is Cinnamon used for? What type of reaction can occur?

A
  • Used to treat bronchitis, GI problems, anorexia, and diabetes
  • May decrease blood clotting.
171
Q

What is Echinacea used for?

A
  • Used for colds, flu, and infections

- Stimulates the immune system.

172
Q

What is Garlic used for? What type of reaction can occur?

A
  • Used to lower cholesterol, decrease blood pressure, and reduce heart disease
  • Reduces blood clotting, risk for bleeding
173
Q

What is Ginkgo used for? What type of reaction can occur?

A

Used for asthma, bronchitis, fatigue, tinnitus, memory impairment, intermittent claudication, sexual dysfunction, and multiple sclerosis
-Increases bleeding risk

174
Q

What is Ginseng used for? What type of reaction can occur?

A
  • Used to boost the immune system, increase wellbeing, and stamina
  • Also used to treat erectile dysfunction, hepatitis C, menopausal symptoms, and to lower glucose and blood pressure
  • May cause hypoglycemia in diabetic patients
175
Q

What is Hawthorn used for? What type of reaction can occur?

A
  • Used for heart disease, digestive issues, and kidney disease
  • May interact with multiple drugs including those for erectile dysfunction, nitrates, and antihypertensives
176
Q

What is Licorice used for? What type of reaction can occur?

A
  • Used to treat stomach ulcers, bronchitis, sore throat, and viral hepatitis
  • May elevate BP, cause water retention, and lower potassium levels
177
Q

What is Kava Kava used for? What type of reaction can occur?

A
  • Used to aid relaxation and treat anxiety

- May cause liver damage, especially when taken with alcohol

178
Q

What is Milk Thistle used for? What type of reaction can occur?

A
  • Used to treat cirrhosis, chronic hepatitis, gall bladder disorders, elevated cholesterol, and type 2 diabetes
  • May cause allergic reaction in those allergic to ragweed
  • May also cause hypoglycemia
179
Q

What is Peppermint used for?

A

-Used to treat nausea, indigestion, IBS, cold symptoms, headaches, and muscle and nerve pain

180
Q

What is Saw Palmetto used for?

A

-Used to treat BPH, chronic pelvic pain, decreased libido, migraine, and hair loss

181
Q

What is St. John’s Wort used for? What type of reaction can occur?

A
  • Used to treat mental disorders, nerve pain, sleep disorders, malaria, and wounds
  • Has many drug interactions, like those that affect serotonin levels
182
Q

What is Turmeric used for? What type of reaction can occur?

A
  • Used for heartburn, stomach ulcers, gallstones, inflammation, and cancer
  • Need to avoid in those with gallbladder disease
183
Q

What is Valerian used for?

A

-Used for insomnia, anxiety, headaches, depression, irregular heart beat, and tremors

184
Q

When does the liver form enzymes?

A

When liver function is decreased

185
Q

List the different plasma proteins.

A
  • Albumin
  • Lipoproteins
  • Alpha-1-acid-glycoprotein (AGP)
186
Q

How does drug move throughout the body?

A
  • GI Tract
  • Portal Vein
  • Liver
  • Body
187
Q

What drug is given to treat salicylic acid toxicity in the body?

A

IV administration of sodium bicarbonate

188
Q

What three mechanisms affect drug-drug interaction?

A
  • Absorption
  • Metabolism
  • Excretion
189
Q

What education should you provide to patients taking herbal supplements?

A
  • Consult with HCP before taking
  • Report all herbal products to HCP
  • Inform HCP of any allergies associated with herbal products
  • Use caution if pregnant/breastfeeding
  • Do not take more than the recommended dose
  • Follow label instructions
  • Do not give to young children/infants
  • May contain multiple compounds not listed on the label

Pharmacology Nursing: N1230 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions