Exam June 2018 Flashcards

1
Q

What is principles based regulation?

A

Moving away from prescriptive rules towards giving firms responsibility to align objectives with regulatory requirements. Having rules to cover every aspect of financial services is neither practical nor desirable.

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2
Q

What is FSMA 2000 and Financial Services Market Act 2012?

A

FSMA is an act of Parliament notable for creating a single self regulating organisation - the FSA in 2001. Following the GFC the Financial Services Market Act 2012 amended the tripartite regulation of the FSA, BoE and HM Treasury and formed the FCA and PRA. While the FCA is also an independent regulator it is very much account to HM treasury and through it to Parliament.

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3
Q

What are the calculations for a DB pension scheme?

A

a 1/40 and 1/60 is number of years divided by 40 and 60 respectively then pumliplied by your final salary. There is no 3x on 40 and 60 schemes. for a 1/80 scheme your salary is paid 3x the amount on the first year TAX FREE.. They are linked to RPI..

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4
Q

What are the options regarding lifetime allowance on pensions?

A

Primary protection - on A day 05/04/2006 you could take the percentage over £1.5m on a sliding scale. so £1.7m = (1.7/1.5 = 113%)
Fixed contribution - will fix you at £1.25m but can’t top up.
Individual - will fix your level so if markets drop you can top up.

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5
Q

How much can you pay to your pension? How many years backdatable?
What are pensions contributions allowance once accessed?

A

£40,000 backdatable 3 years (£120k total)
Reduced to £10k once accessed.
In 2021 the age to access will rise to 57 and.
Pension contributions are tapered £2 for £1 over £150k to a minimum

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6
Q

What is capped drawdown?

A

For pensions before the freedom rules which came in 6th April 2015 there was a cap on draw downs of 150% of the GAD rate for income relative to what could be achieved from an annuity. Reviewed every 3 years if under the age of 75.

  • Max withdrawable is £40k and if you exceed this then you are considered to have entered flexi-access drawdown and you may lose tax benefits above the MPAA.
  • Money Purchase Annual Allowance MPAA will be set at £10k for 2018/19. Once you exceed your cap you cannot re-enter capped drawdown.
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7
Q

What is the Trustee Act 2000?

A
The Act provides statutory powers to trustees
Duty of care
Right to invest
Need to diversify
Principles based.
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8
Q

What is income payment protection insurance?

A

Inability to work through sickness or incapacity.
Deferred period affects premiums paid. Usually 4, 8, 13, 26, 52 and 104 weeks.
Individuals between 18 - 59 and cover stops at 65.
Restrictions if policy holder becomes unemployed for reasons other than illness or incapacity.
Paid tax free a sum usually around 50 - 75% of your gross salary
Resident in the UK
Benefit usually limited to a cap against the persons salary.
Premiums can be relatively expensive as it may be paid for a prolonged period.

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9
Q

What is critical illness cover?

A

A list of illnesses covered in the policy are specified.
Excludes AIDS and self inflicted injury or injury resulting from war or civil unrest. May nto cover pre exisitng conditions.
No tax paid on benefits.
Can be term or whole of life
A survival period of typically 14 - 30 days from diagnosis.
Underwriting from insurers.
Pays a lump sum on DIAGNOSIS of a wide range of critical illnesses which is expected to cause death within 12 months.
Available aged 18 - 64 and must end before the age of 70.
Premiums can be expensive for stand alone policies.

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10
Q

How are Bare trusts taxed?

A

The Income and gains are treated as those of the beneficiary and will be taxed at their marginal rate.
Beneficiaries can use the usual allowances.
PET

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11
Q

How are discretionary trusts taxed?

A

Income - Standard rate band (first £1000) is charged at 7.5% divs and 20% non-div. There after its charged 45% and 38.1% respectively. (max 5 trusts)
Gains - are taxed at 20% over a half allowance of £5,650.
Beneficiaries will receive income with a 45% tax credit whoch is reclaimable for BRT payers. The beneficiary will not be charged on gains as this is done within the trust..
IHT - CLT 20% and tapered for the extra 20% if the settlor dies within 7 years.
10 yearly charge up to 6%
Can claim holdover relief for CGT purposes when receiving shares as part of the transfer. CGT only payable when trust sells.

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12
Q

How are Interest In Possession Trusts taxed?
Income = Life tenant
Capitall = Remainderman - Trustees must balance the interests of both.

A

Income - Trustee charged at the same rate as individuals.
20% income (no 40% band) and 7.5% dividends. Beneficiary pays marginal rate on distributions.
Gains - 20% over half allowance of £5,650
IHT - CLT for trusts post 2006 so 20% payable above the NRB
10 yearly charge up to 6%
Can claim holdover relief for CGT purposes when receiving shares as part of the transfer. CGT only payable when trust sells.

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13
Q

What are the two types of Power of Attorney?

A

General POA - Covers financial affairs and can be used while the donor still has mental capacity. The POA ceases when the person granting loses mental capacity.
Enduring POA - Has authority under English law to act on some else’s behalf for legal and financial matters and can be used in force if the granter loses mental capacity.

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14
Q

How are intestate estates dealt with?

A

Wills must be in writing signed and witnessed.
Spouse receives first £250,000 plus chattels and half the residual amount.
Children receive a fair portion the other half if over 18.
If joint tenancy is in place this will take precedence.

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15
Q

What is GDPR?

A

The data protection principles set out hte main responsibilites of a firm:
- Lawfulness and transparency
- Info only for explicit purposes
- Adequate and relevant to what is needed for
- Accurate and up to date
Breaches to be stated within 72 hours to the Information Commissioners office.
Controllers will now utilise opt in marketing rather than opt out.
Data subjects have the right to object, withdraw and erase data.
Reasonable data requests must be free of charge.
Rectification of errors must be complete within one month.
Breaches of data use can result in fines the higher of €20m or 4% of worldwide turnover.

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16
Q

what is quick succession relief?
What is business property releif?
Agricultural property relief?

A

If you die quickly after receiving an inheritance before 5 years then the tax payable is reduced.
100% IHT relief on interests in unincorporated business and AIM shares.
50% - for controlling shareholdings in fully listed companies and land and machinery used for business.
100% on owner occupied farms and land on a grazing licence.

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17
Q

What is VAT?

What is corporation tax rate?

A

Companies with £85,000 taxable turnover.
20% standard rate on goods and services - Vehichles, furniture, consultency fees.
5% Reduced on Fuel, repairs and maintenance services
0% Exempt on provisions of credit and insurance
Corporation tax = 19%

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18
Q

What is the main Residence NRB?

A

£100k - 2017/18*
£125k - 2018/19
£150k - 2019/20
£175k - 2020/21
Available to each parent so 2 x £100k reduced
The RNRB will be reduced £2 for £1 on a persons ESTATE over £2m.
Both parents get a £325k NRB

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19
Q

Name 6 Exempt transfers for IHT purposes?

A

£250 to as many people as you like
£3000 backdated 1 year £6000 total
Regular gifts out of income which doesn’t diminish standard of living.
Gifts on marriage Parents £5k, Grandparents £2.5k and anyone £1k.
Interspouse transfers
Charitable gifts and political party gifts.
(loss to the estate principle - 2 vases worth more than one)

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20
Q

What is the CGT calculation.

A
  1. Same day
  2. 30 days following a sale to prevent bed and breakfasting utilising allowance.
  3. Pooled amount.
    Selling before end of tax year and buying back straight away to utilise CGT allowance now not possible for 30 days after sale.
    Bed and ISA is however allowed to utilise your ISA allowance.
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21
Q

What is the difference between business rollover relief and reinvestment relief.

A

BRR - gain on disposal of an asset is deducted from the base cost of a new qualifying asset it only becomes chargeable on disposal of second asset. Assets must be bought within 3 years.
- Reinvestment releif means CGT is deferred if buying new shares in another EIS and is payable when sale of the second EIS is made. (no deduction)

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22
Q

What is the ISA help to buy and LISA contributions?

A

You can mix and match however only £4000 can go into the LISA eligible for the 25% top up. £20,000 in total. £200 a month plus £1000 first year bonus for a help to buy. Only the bonus from one of the Lisa or HTB can be used for a first home. Transfers into a LISA are allowed to utilise better bonus option. NOT backdatable. 18 - 40 open 50 - save 60 - access

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23
Q

How are Single Premium Lift Assurance bonds taxed?

A

Onshore bonds - Net of 20% tax
Offshore bonds - No tax taken so HRT to pay 45%
Gain of the bond plus withdrawals divided by the number of FULL years held.
You would tax Interest at 20% for a HRT payer and 25% for an ART as the 20% has already been taken MULTIPLIED by the number of years.

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24
Q

What is a structured product?

A

Pre-packaged products created by combining an underlieing asset such as bonds, shares, indices, currencies and commodities with derivatives. Have unique risk return and cost savings advantages.
Listed SPs are usually listed as an instrument such as a zero coupon bond listed held and settled in CREST.
Treated as derivatives by the FCA COB rules.
Origins from guaranteed bonds offered by life offices in the 70s.
Can allow for capital protection and accelerated returns with autocall options and reducing strikes.
Risks - credit risk - capital guarantees only as strong as the underlying provider. Lehman issued products 2008.
Liquidity and pricing risk.
Complex isntruments
Counterparty risk - mitigated by use of gilts and highly credit worthy issuers.
Not always covered by the FSCS.

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25
Q

What is a Single Premium Life assurance bond?

A

Protected 100% under the FSCS.
Often issued by insurers so good guaranteed.
Can be with profits or unitised to allow for smoothing of returns. Reversionary bonus annual and discretionary once added cannot be withdrawn.
5% annual withdrawals tax deferred.
Can be used as a tax planning tool for a eyar a HRT payer becomes a BRT payer.
Market Value reducers may be applied to discourage early encashment.
Guarateed growth bond -

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26
Q

What is auto-enrolement

A

A minimum contribution of 2.4% between £6,032 and £46,350 2018/19 which will slowly increase to 8%.
Employees will have an option to opt-out within one month of employment.
Workers and Employers as well as government tax releif will gross this up to 8% of a workers salary.

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27
Q

How are chattels taxed?

A

Collectibles over 50 years old will be subject to CGT.
Paintings, antiques, furniture.
Cars are exempt from CGT!
LIVEX is a wine exchange.
Only needs to be disclosed on the tax return if over £6000.
Maximum chargeable gain is the lower of the actual gain (over £6000) or 5/3 multiplied by the sale price minus £6000

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28
Q

Defined Benefit lump sums.

A

Can be accessed using a commutation factor at the expense of some of the income from the scheme. The higher the commutation factor the more accessible cash.

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29
Q

What are the key LTA limits? QNUPS and QROPS.

A

£1.03m after which 55% is taxable.
QNUPS -Qualifying Non-Uk Pension Scheme - No lifetime allowance limit for IHT purposes so popular with football players. and can serve an international retirement plan.
QROPS - For people planning to leave the UK multiple smaller pensions can be consolidated into a qualifying recognised overseas pension scheme that maintains the same HMRC rules.

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30
Q

Questions you should ask?

A

Personal - DOB, domicile, residency
Financial - Wills, Income, IPP, CIC, mortgage flexible or interest only? Pension contributions.
Objectives - Retirement planning, school fees
Risk - Attitude and understanding
Tax - Using ISA limits and pension contributions, SPLAB
Time horizon - Investment cycles
Ethics - SRI, Responsible investing.

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31
Q

What are the FCA 11 high level principles?

A
I See Many Fair Maidens at the 5C's Regatta
Integrity
Skill Care and Diligence
Management and control
Financial prudence
Market conduct
Customer interests
Communications
Conflict of interest
Customers Relationships of trust
Client Assets
Relation with regulators
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32
Q

What are the COBS sourcebooks

A

ACTHON-CAT-COM - SUIT-APP-DEALING
COBS 2 - Act honestly fairly and professionally
COBS 3 - Categorisation
COBS 4 - Client communications
COBS 9 - Suitability
COBS 10 - Appropriateness
COBS 11 - Dealing and managing - best execution

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33
Q

What is the complaints handling process and when can the Financial Ombudsman be contacted?

A

Semi annual reports must be sent to the FCA stating complaints closed within 4 weeks, 4-8 weeks and 8 weks plus.
Non Mifid records must be kept 3 years and 5 years for mifid records.
Ombudsman contactable after 8 weeks or after a final response is issued.
Elegible complainants are private individuals, charities, trusts less thean £1m.
Non elegible = eligible counterparties
and professional customers.
Max award = £150k for ifnancial loss, suffering, dmage to reputation, stress and inconvenience.

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34
Q

What is the CISI Code of Conduct principles?

A

The Lord George principles

  1. Act honestly and fairly
  2. Integrity in fulfilling resposibility for finance indistry
  3. Observe applicable law
  4. Integrity in market dealing
  5. Mange conflicts of interest
  6. Attain a level of professional competence
  7. Decline acting in matters ypou are not competent
  8. Uphold highest personal and professional standards
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35
Q

What are the main issues SYSC need to cover?

A

The FCA expects senior managers to put in place effective controls:
Organisation - Clear appropriate reporting lines
Compliance - Responsibilities properly documented.
Risk assessment - If appropriate a separate risk assessment function should be established.
Management Info - Info supplied to the board
Audit - appropriate number of NEDs
Records - appropriate systems and controls to fulfil regulatory and statutory obligations.

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36
Q

Applying for authorisation to the FCA. What are the requirements?

A

A firm carrying out regulated activities must apply for authorisation.
Can take up to 6 months to confirm and an annual fee when applying.
Must have head office in the UK
Firms must be fit and proper

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37
Q

What is an approved person. What is replacing it?

A

The firm (principle) must ensure that the appointed representative (agent) complies with:
Fit and Proper test
Act with honesty and integrity and abide by the FCA principles.
The FCA will write to the person confirming part 4a permissions - authorisation
The rule for CF1 to CF30 will change to become the Senior Managers & certification Regime.

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38
Q

What is the senior managers and certification regime?

A

Replaced the approved person regime..
Firms will need to certify to the FCA that the individual performing their significant harm function is fit and proper at least ANNUALLY.
Employees will have prescribed responsibilities to ensure accountability..
Senior Manager Function (SMFs) apply to all firms except limited scope firms in which: ‘Governing functions’ - chief executive or executive director and ‘Required functions’ - compliance and MLRO, will apply. Enhanced firms will need additional such as Cheif finance functions. Only larger firms will have these additional ‘limited scope functions.’
Firms will have a certification regime to ensure employees carrying out jobs capable of harm are fit and proper, and adhere to the high level standards aka I see many fair maidens.
- Testimonials from previous 6 employers to ensure unfit employees are note recycled through new employement.
(non dual regulated ie fca only firms still have approved persons regime)

39
Q

What is a REIT?

A

A company which owns and manages property on behalf of shareholders. . Exempt from corporation tax.
Closed ended
Must carry on at least 75% tax exempt PIB net income and total asset value.
Ordinary shares only
The REIT is generally exempt from taxation at trust level if it distributes at least 90% of income to share holders, this exempts it from capital gain tax and corporate taxes within.
REITs are seldom taxed at the trust level which generally gives good income distribution taxable at the investors marginal rate on gains and dividends.
Can be held within an ISA.
The company msut be UK listed on a recognised stock exchange (not AIM)

40
Q

What is a property authorised investment fund? PAIF

A

Open ended
Must maintain carry on at least 60% tax exempt PIB
tradable on regular dealing days.
Can be accumulating or distributing share classes
No minimum distribution requirement for a PAIF!
Tax exempt on gains and income at the fund level for OEICs. OEICs being the vehichle of choice for PAIFs going forward.
Must be authorised and regulated by the FCA

41
Q

What is money laundering and what are the jail terms? What is the difference between ML and Terrorist financing?

A
Disguising the proceeds of crime (POCA 2002)
Placement
Layering
Integration
It is an offence to:
conceal
arrange
acquire 14 years or unlimited fine ^
facilitate
Tip off 5 years or unlimited fine ^
Terrorist financing is the opposite - taking good money and using it to fund terrorist activity.
42
Q

What is the PRA?

A

Part of the bank of England
Promote Safety and Soundness of authorised persons (in the context of companies)
Ensure suitable protections for policyholders
Regulating hte largest banks, insurance and investment companies capable of systemic risk.
Only prudential oversight - FCA will be overseen by the FCA. These firms are dual regulated.

43
Q

What is the FCA?

A

Accountable to HM Treasury
Statutory objective - Ensure relevant markets funciton well.
Operational objectives -
- Secure appropriate protection for consumers
- Protect and enhance the integrity of the UK financial system
- Promote effective competition in consumer interests.
Outcomes focusd regulaton with greater powers to step in and make changes such as Wonga whos APR was obscene.

44
Q

What must be satisfied for a firm to receive authorisation.

A

Close links - All business must be closely enough linked so that the FCA can maintain oversight in all areas.
Head office must be in the UK
Individuals performing controlled functions should be fit and proper
Suitability - Services provided must be suitable to a firms requirements to be granted part 4a permissions

45
Q

what is the financial policy committee?

What is the MPC?

A

Part of the bank of England
Chaired by the Governor of the bank of england - Mark Carney.
Bi-annual financial stability report.
Responsible for setting sectoral capital requirements. Stress testing to ensure resilience of firms.
“Removing systemic risk with the view of protecting and enhancing the resilience of the UK financial system.”
Adjusting the resilience of the banking system by adjusting CounterCyclical capital Buffer rates. (CCyB rates) To ensure a greater cushion in a downturn.
MPC = Official interest rates and QE forward guidance.

46
Q

What is MPPI?

A

Mortgage Payment Protection Insurance.
Payments for a mortgage continue to be paid if the borrower is unable to work because of accident sickness or unemployment.
Protection is provided on a level basis so adjusted with interest rate changes.

47
Q

What are the six available lawful bases for processing personal data?

A

At least one of the following must apply when a firm processes personal data:
Consent - individuals give clear consent
Contract - processing neccessary for a contract
Legal Obligation - needed to comply with law
Vital Interests -needed to protect someones life
Public Task - public interests
Legitimate interests - unless there is a good reason to protect someones legitimate interests

48
Q

Long term care plans.

Long term Care Insurance

A
  • Unless a clients financial assets have been paid away under a PET or they hold a SPLAB before care was needed!!!, local councils will force individuals to pay their own expensive care premiums.
    IMMEDIATE NEEDS
  • Immediate care plans - subject to approval and medical evidence, acts as a tax exempt immediate annuity.
    Paid directly to the care home provider in a very cost effective way.
  • Cost-benefit analysis advisable as it can impact family inheritances etc.
    PRE - FUNDED
    LTCI should be considered as expensive nursing home cares can deplete a persons assets making IHT planning a wasted effort.
  • Definitions of disability will be judged agains Activities of daily living - ADLs. Benefits will be payable when a person becomes unable to perform activities such as dressing or feeding themselves.
  • Benefits paid after a deferred period 13 weeks or more.
  • Typically monthly income payments made when the definition of disability ie two or three ADLs has been established undoable.
  • Typically no tax levied on payments to care organisations.
    Drugs, self inflicted injuries, AIDs will likely not be covered
49
Q

What is Accident, Sickness and Unemployment Cover?

A

ASU can provide a lump sum or income in the even of an accident. Other general policies may cover unemployment.
ASU policies tend to be time limited. Usually max of two years.
Tax free payment.
Relatively inexpensive.
A percentage of salary.
Waiting period from inability to work 30 - 60 days

50
Q

When should a firm provide a suitability report?

A

Buying/selling shares in a regulated CIS
Buying/selling shares through an Investment Trust Saving scheme where shares are held in an ISA
Buy/sell cancelling rights in a personal stakeholder pension.
When making recommendations in relation to a life policy
Personal recommendations in relation to a stakeholder product.

51
Q

What is a personal portfolio bond?

A

A type of insurance policy.
Benefits are linked to a portfolio of assets.
Bond is held of tax avoidance purposes held with non-uk insurer.

52
Q

What are the rules re POTAM?

A

A bidder must publicise when it owns 3% of a target company.
Once acquiring 14.99% a week must elapse before purchase of more shares.
A further pause at 25%
When 30% is aquired a bidder must make an offer for all remaining shares.
The bidder has 60 days from date documents are posted to shareholders in order to receive more than 50% of the vote
Bid must state full terms eg cash or shares being offered.

53
Q

Differences between Unit trusts and Investment Trusts?

A

AMC and OCF
income shares pay out dividends and accumulation shares reinvest
daily weekly pricing
Shares bought from the managers not an exchange
Not taxed on income or gain within the structure
- No dealing costs and generally single priced.

IT - Split capital Income shares pay regular dividends and have a predetermined redemption price. Capital shares aka Zeros grow and usually have a redemption price on a wind up date 5-10 year terms taxed as gain. Income shares paid after preferred stock.
- Can gear and exchange traded.
liable to corporation tax on net revenue profits
capital gains are exempt.
- Must have 70% of income from securites and distribute at least 85% of investment income. No holding must represent more than 15%
- Broker charges when buying and selling.
- Both can be held in an ISA.

54
Q

How is Woodland Taxed?

A

Growing of Timber can take 60 years to mature so investors receive no income for years. Investments held for 2 years forgo IHT. Land with mixed woodland may fall outside.
No income tax or corperation tax on the harvest and sale of timber.
No CGT on the increase of timber itself. CGT is payable on the land it is grown on though!

55
Q

What is FATCA?

A

US citizens with assets outside the US.

30% withholding tax for foreign financial institutions FFIs which fail to comply with FATCA.

56
Q

How are property unit trusts taxed?

A

Unlike OEICs which are tax exempt within the structure the PUT is only CGT exempt but will pay 20% on income arising.
Authorised = retail investors
unauthorised = institutional ivnestors.
Offshore property unit trusts are more tax efficient and the tax liability falls on the end investor.
Unit trusts are generally dual priced and bid offer spread can widen for less liquid underlying assets.

57
Q

How are OEICs taxed?

A

ICVCs and OEICs are taxed in a similar way to unit trusts. Corporation tax chargable at 20% not 19%. These days only rent is subject to this tax (not the case in in PAIFs).
Interest and foreign dividends are not taxable. Capital gains within the OEIC are not taxable.
Distributions dividends are taxed at investors marginal rate. 7.5% BRT over the £5000 personal allowance. 32.5% and 38.1% thereafter.
Fixed interest funds pay tax as income. Over £1000 allowance for a BRT payer (£500 HRT)
Price of oeics are not subject to dealing brokerage charges and are generally single priced based on the nav.

58
Q

What is passporting

A

Firms auhtorised in EEA state
Passport the authorisation into another EEA state
Authorisation obtained in home state can allow a branch to be opened in the host state. It is relied upon that the home state regulator has confirmed the firm to be fit and proper.
While opening a branch is allowed a completely separate subsidiary would require authorisation from the FCA.
-Must have head office in an EEA country
- Only allows coverage of activities in host state already allowed in the home state
-Must advise home state regulator of location of activities and areas of passport cover.

59
Q

Details of a level term life assurance policy?

A

Pays a tax free level lump sum on death if life assured dies before the expiry of the policy.
Guaranteed sum assured
Can be written for long periods.
No surrender value
Premiums will remain level throughout usually cheap.

60
Q

What is a Family income benefit?

A

Can provide the cheapest cover.
Pay out a regular tax free capital sum monthly or quarterly from the point of death till the end of the term selected at the outset.

61
Q

What is a whole of life policy?

A

Can be wholly life cover or wholly investment or anywhere in between.
Premiums paid for life.
Life office have certainty they will have to pay out the sum assured at some point based on actuarial principles which will affect premiums paid.
Often used for estate planning to mitigate IHT as assured will never benefit personally.
Joint life second death will pay the IHT on second death.

62
Q

What is a non-profit whole of life policy?
What is a with profits whole of life policy?
What is a Unit-linked whole of life policy?

A

NP - Level premiums. Premiums calculated on an actuarial basis. Sum is assured and paid whenever death occurs.. Cessation at 80 or older for the premiums on some policies.
WP - same as NP death benefit is the sum assured plus bonuses are declared before death. Most are in final wind up. MVR on surrender.
UL - Most popular. Can vary weighting to investment or life cover. Premium levels reviewed every 10 years and more often as you get older. For unit-linked whole of life policies your money will be split – some is used to buy the life assurance to pay the sum assured. The rest will be invested in an investment fund. If they find the investment fund isn’t performing well enough to cover the cost of benefits, your provider might suggest increasing your regular contribution or else reducing the sum assured.
(MVA only applies to With-profits not unit linked)

63
Q

What is an endowment policy?

A

Pays a benefit on a fixed date or on the assured’s death if earlier. Classed as permanent contracts and can be used as collateral.
Proceeds of a qualifying policy lose their tax-free status if you stop paying premiums or cash a policy in fewer than 10 years after taking it out, or before three-quarters of the way through its term (whichever comes first)
Upfornt charges

64
Q

How are purchased life annuities taxed?
What is an escalating annuity?
What is an ‘Annuity Certain?’

A

PLA are taxed as part income (taxable) and part return of capital (non taxable). This should mean higher rates than for conventional annuities but in practice there is little difference.

  • Escalating annuities will be RPI linked which means they may pay less at the start but in time could outstrip a level annuity.
  • Continues to be paid for a specified term even after the annuitant dies.
65
Q

When can a pension be taken early?

A

People who retire due to ill health
Needs a written opinion from a medical practitioner that the member is incaable of performing job cause of mental or physical illness.
Members of occupational schemes who have contactual rights to retire early.
Old police contracts.
Special occupations such as sports people wil receive a 2.5% discount to the LTA for every year before the age of 55 that they retire.

66
Q

Define a futures contract. Appraise key features of a FTSE 100 Index Futures.

A

A futures contract is a legaly binding obligation between two parties for one to buy and the other to sell a pre-specified amount and quality of an asset at a pre-specified price on a pre specified future date..
FTSE100 Index futures based on UK’s largest companies by market cap.
The future is priced in index points with a tick value of £10 per index point.
If you believe the index is going to fall you could sell FTSE 100 futures to act as a hedge
They are exchange traded over the NYSE Euronext Liffe.
Very liquid
Can be cheap.
The buyer agrees to take delivery of the asset or more commonly a cash settlement.

67
Q

Main sources of research for unbiased research and advice on ethical investment issues?

A

ieRis - The ethical Investment Research Service.
Leading independant provider of research in ethical performance of companies.
Provides comprehensive research of nearly 3000 companies in Europe, North America and Asia Pacific.
Covers over 60 social, environmental and ethical areas.
EUROSIF - European Sustainable Investment Forum - European group aiming to address sustainability through financial markets. Members include pension funds and financial service providers. Eurosif’s SRI Fund service provides free informaiton on slection criteria and performance of SRI funds across Europe.
CSR - Corporate Social Responsibility - The European Commission sees CSR as part of the business contribution to sustainable European growth and jobs strategy. A more rational use of natural resources.
GRI - Global reporting Initiative - Pioneered the development of the world’s most widely used sustainability reporting framework.

68
Q

Three methods of constructing a benchmark?

A

Comparison to a relevant bond/stock market index - main indices
Comparison to a relevant universe or similar funds - measuring against other fund managers with similar objectives.
Comparison to custom benchmarks spanning multiple asset classes - WMA

69
Q

Appraise the main type of Exchange Traded Commodities?

A

No realistic way of investing in actual commodities til ETC’s became available.
ETC’s track the price of an underlying commodity index.
Two types - single such as gold and oil and and ones which track an index.
Open ended Collective
Exchange traded over the LSE.

70
Q

What is a SIPP?

A

Personal pension plan aimed at sophisticated investors.
A pension wrapper capable of holding investments in a tax efficient manner.
Same rules and allowances as personal pension
SIPPs have a schem provider, administrator and trustee etc.
Can be provided by insurance companies, banks and building societies.
Scheme administrator is responsible for ensuring its operated in accordance with HMRC rules and the trustee safeguards the assets.
Usually a fixed nominal fee £100 -£1000 a year .
Standardised allowance for asset held within the SIPP.
Chattels can no longer be held.
Loans are not permitted.
Can purchase commercial property.
A SIPP can borrow 50% of its value to purchase commercial property.

71
Q

What is a money market fund?
What are the three types of money market funds?
Issues to consider?

A

Allow for a return in excess of what can be acieived on deposit for short term cash balances.
Potential safe haven asset for a market falls.
Short term home for cash balances
Short term - maturity of less than 60 days.
Regular money - weighted average duration UP to 6 months.
Enhanced money market funds - Average duration up to one year.
Issues - return relative to cash deposits.
Charges and how they will diminish returns.
Accessibility
Credit worthiness of the underlying assets
Experience of the management team.
Short term interest rate fluctuations can create price volatility so they are not a proxy for cash.

72
Q

What does the FCA deem an eligible complainant?

A

Eligible complainants are classified retail clients who are/will/have been a customer to the firm in which they complain.
- Private individuals
- Businesses with revenue less than £1m
- Charities with annual income less than £1m
- Trustees of trusts with less than £1m nav.
(eligible counter parties and professional clients are rarely eligible..

73
Q

How would you assess the default risk of a bank / building society?

A

Tier one capital ratio - Higher % is better and measures adequacy of a banks capital position.
Credit rating - issued by ratings agencies and give indicaiton of bank stability.
CDS rates - the cost of insuring against default .Most UK banks have rates between 100 and 300 basis points. Higher = more risk.

74
Q

How do you measure the sensitivity of different bonds?

A

Coupon and time to maturity affects its pull to maturity.
Macaulay duration is expressed in years. The higher the duration the more sensitive the bonds price is to changes in interest rates.

75
Q

What is an ETF?

A

A CIS quoted and traded intraday on a stock exchange.
Open ended like a ICVC.
Invest in a basket of commodities, bonds, currencies.
Can be active or passively managed.
Low TER
No Stamp Duty
Liquid
Low tracking error.
Typically domiciled:
Irish = structured as ICVC
Luxembourg = structured as SICAV
Market makers quote two way prices.
Easily create new units at NAV as professional dealers facilitate subscriptions with the transfer of physical shares.
Arbitrage on price vs NAV could offer a risk free profit to ‘authorised participants’. This ensures ETFs trade close to NAV.
Authorised participants manage the creation and redemption process which generally takes place in the primary market where as investors buy/sell in the secondary market.

76
Q

ETF Risks?

A
  • Counterparty risk: Mainly regarding synthetics which buy a total return swap from a counterparty (usually an investment bank). If they go bust then you may not get your money back. Collateral is often used however but may not be sufficient. Lehman brothers.
  • Liquidity for smaller ETFs ‘crowded trade risk’
  • Lack of transparency for complex non vanilla etfs.
  • Concerns with the use of derivatives (short vol trades and credit suisse)
  • Collateral Risk - Concerns collateral will become illiquid in harsh sell offs for synthetic ETFs. Under UCITS III synthetic ETFs have to be at least 90% covered by collateral - often gold.
  • Bid offer spreads can widen intraday.
  • No active manager to take money of the table for passive funds.
77
Q

What is a PPF?

A

Pension Protection Fund -
As a consequence of the Maxwell Scandal and high prfile pension collapses the PPF was set up 6th April 2005.
- Pays out when an sponsoring employer becomes insolvent.
- Where schemes become underfunded through fraud.
- The scheme must be a DB or hybrid scheme.
- An insolvency event must have happened..
- No possibility the scheme can be rescued.

78
Q

What are the main established tracking methods?

A

Full replication - expensive holding all constituents exactly.
Stratified sampling - representative sample of securities. Can create bias.
Optimisation - computer modelling technique which is low cost.
Synthetic - use of a total return swap rather than holding assets.
Smart beta - alternative factor and fundamental based indices.

79
Q

What is a small self-administered Scheme??

A

SSAS - Schemes are trust-based and established individually, usually by directors of limited companies for specified employees of the company.
They are very like SIPPS.
Like SIPPS they are often used to buy commercial property tax efficiently with the ability to take out a mortgage up to 50%

80
Q
  1. What is business insurance protection?
  2. What is key person protection insurance?
  3. What is shareholder protection insurance?
  4. What is partnership protection insurance?
A
  1. Indemnity cover for claims against the business. Income if the owner is unable to work and work ceases. Payment to cover the loss in profits in the event a key member dies. Money to pay out a major shareholder on death so that existing shareholders buy shares and cash go to shareholders estate.
  2. Death or serious illness of a key employee covered. Individuals with key skills and knowledge to a companies success.. Can costa . business in not completing key contracts.
  3. If a major shareholder dies, the company will ensure capital isn’t lost so they may survive. Beneficiaries receiving shares may not have know how or would prefer cash. Articles of association usually gives existing shareholders first offer.
  4. Allows surviving partner to purchase the share of the business from the deceased. Joint life first death policies. Payment of a policy goes out on first death.
81
Q

What is CSR?

A

Corporate Social Responsibility - Integrating social and Environmental issues into business operations.
Organisations such as the Global Reporting Initiative are looking to standardise the format of environmental reporting. Climate change, Ozone-Depleting Chemicals OCDs, Greenhouse gases and pesticides.

82
Q

What is the difference between the Macaulay duration and modified duration?

A
Macaulay = weighted average time ot receive a bonds cash flows.
Modified = change in a bonds price for a 1% change in interest rates.
83
Q

How might you invest in infrastructure?

A
  • Initiatives such as the Private Finance Initiative (PFI) or Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs), used by the government to attract private capital in projects. Formerly open to high net worth individuals and institutions the relatively high yields attract retail investors normally through their brokers.
  • GCP Infrastructure Investments which buys and
    holds loans used to finance infrastructure investment.
  • John Laing Infrastructure fund who invest in schools,
    hospitals and prisons operated for governments on long-term contracts. The fund is given an annual payment ( often for 25-30 years ) usually linked to inflation for providing and maintaining the facilities.
  • Direct equity - Vinci, SSE and Centrica.
84
Q

What is the FCA statement of principle?

A

An approved person is expected to follow:
1. Act with integrity
2. Act with due skill, care and diligence.
3. Observe proper standards of market conduct.
4. Deal with the FCA and regulators openly.
Significant influence functions:
5. Effective controls
6. Skill care and diligence in managing the business
7. Reasonable steps to ensure controlled functions comply with regulatory requirements.

85
Q

Fixed income risks?

A
Callable bonds - early redemption risk.
Inflation risk - real value of income flows.
Default risk - no capital repayment.
Seniority risk - rank of debt
Credit risk - certainty of bond being honoured.
Interest risk - will affect the price.
Exchange rate risk - non home ccy bonds
Govt bonds no default risk.
86
Q

What are offshore bonds?

A
  • Generally issued by subsidiaries of UK insurance companies in Channel Islands, IoM and Lux.
  • Charges tend to be competitive to onshore.
  • Classified as Non qualifying investment bonds.
  • Offshore companies are generally subject to little or no tax in host country.
  • Top slicing relief
  • Underlying investment fund for any gains, dividends, rent or interest are taxed at 0% within the fund.
  • Overseas dividend income will be subject to irrevocable withholding tax.
  • This allows the underlying fund to roll up gross without any tax on the fund during its growth.
  • All growth AND dividends are taxed under UK income tax rules 20/40/45%.
  • Advantage - *because income can roll up gross it can eventually generate a greater return.
  • *Income tax liability is reduced proportionally for time spent as non-UK resident.
  • Usual 5% withdrawals tax deferred, Means tested as outside your estate for residential care check my local authorities and
  • Wide investment parameters
  • Number of relevant years for top slicing always equates to complete years.
  • Remittance rules for Res-non-doms don’t apply to for offshore bonds so only become chargeable when brought onshore.
87
Q

What is a charitable trust?

A

Defined under the Charities Act 2006 as purposes beneficial to the community.
Can fund a series of scholarships and beneficiaries don’t need to be named in advance
Defined by HMRC tax code as:
-Releif of poverty
- Advancement of religion
- Advancement of education
- Purposes beneficial to the community
Flows go through to the cause without attracting tax.

88
Q

What are the aims of RDR?

A

INVESTMENT firms should categorise their services as either independant or restricted.

  • Advise that remuneration can distort consumer outcomes
  • Improve clarity by which firms describe their services.
  • Independent = unbiased, unrestricted based on fair analysis of the relevant market.
  • Restricted = must ensure the customer is suitably informed.
  • Removes commission based remuneration. Charges agreed with clients.
  • L4 qualification and code of ethics SPS Statement of Professional Standing employed.
  • Ensure independent advisers review the whole of the market.
  • Disclosure in writing stating beforehand that they will be providing independent or restricted advice.
89
Q

Name 5 Retail Investment Products which RDR defines under independant advice?

A
Packaged products
Regulated CIS's
Unregulated CIS's
Investment Trust Savings Schemes
Life assurance policies
All investments in Investment Trusts
Structured Investment products
90
Q

What is necessary from an index?

A

An index must be representative of performance which could realistically been achieved:

  • Specified and unambiguous
  • Appropriate to the nature of the fund
  • Appropriate to the currency of the fund
  • Investable
  • Measurable returns calculated on a frequent basis.
91
Q

What is entrepreneur relief?

A

If you own more than 5% of a company and receive proceeds from the sale of your own or a family business you will be charged 10% CGT up to a limit of £10m after which 20% is chargeable.

92
Q

How is income received from property rental taxed?

A

It falls in the Non Savings income bracket. It is not interest or a dividend. Along with all pension distributions.

93
Q

How is the FSCS funded and what are the limits of cover?

A

Funded by levies placed on firms authorised by the FCA and PRA.

  • Retail deposits - 100% up to £85,000
  • Protected investments - 100% up to £50,000 UTs
  • Compulsory insurance - 100%
94
Q

What is a discounted gift trust?

A

Clients put money into a trust and the trust buys a SPLAB..
The trust pays the 5% to the client each year but it must be underwritten by a doctor.
Aimed to reduce IHT liability.
Over the 7 years 5% withdrawals are treated as return of capital is discounted from the IHT tax charge.