Exam III Flashcards

0
Q

Salping/o, -salpinx

A

Uterine tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Hyster/o, metr/

A

Uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Colp/o

A

Vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ophor/o

A

Ovary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Men/o

A

Menstruation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mamm/o, mast/o

A

Breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

-Pareuria, coitus

A

Intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Endometriosis

A

A condition involving colonization of the abdominal/pelvic cavity with islands of endometrial tissue, which is the lining layer of the uterus that sloughs off during menstruation. If endometrial tissue flushes up the uterine tube and spills into the abdominal cavity (peritoneal cavity) the tissue can attach to abdominal organs such as bladder, rectum, intestinal loops, and then cycle along with the uterus in response to monthly changes in ovarian hormones. Bleeding into the abdominal irritates the lining membrane, the peritoneum, and causes abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

A

although males have a closed abdominal cavity, the female abdominal cavity has a direct anatomical path from the outside world via the female reproductive tract. Bacteria can make their way up the vagina, through the uterus, and traverse the uterine tubes which open into the abdominal cavity. Inflammation of the lining of the abdominal cavity, the peritoneum, causes abdominal pain. Although there are many potential causes of PID, gonorrheal infection is one of them. Chronic Inflammation of the uterine tubes can occlude them resulting in infertility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Prolapsed uterus

A

the uterus is almost directly above the vagina. In fact, the cervix, the neck region, of the uterus extends into the upper vagina. Ligaments hold the uterus in proper position so that it does not prolapse or herniate into the vagina. Severe prolapse can result in the uterine cervix protruding from the vaginal opening. Surgical repair is typically required to restore the uterus to its proper anatomical position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Obstetrician

A

literally “midwife” in Latin. A physician specializing in the diagnosis and management of pregnancy and delivering babies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gynecologist

A

a physician specializing in diseases of the female reproductive system and surgery of this area. Most physicians currently specialize in combined practice of OB/GYN.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Episiotomy

A

a surgical procedure cutting into the perineal area, the area between the vagina and anus in order to prevent tearing of tissues when the baby’s head traverses the vaginal opening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hysterosalpingogram

A

special X-rays of the uterus and uterine tubes involving passing an opaque dye backwards up through the uterus to determine if the tubes are patent. Since the tubes are open into the abdominal (peritoneal) cavity, if patent, dye should spill out of the end of the tubes and be manifest on the X-ray.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Colposcopy

A

using a magnifying instrument to inspect the interior of the vagina and cervix, the entrance to the uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dilatation and curettage (D & C)

A

dilating the cervix, the entrance into the uterus, and passing instruments that enable scraping off superficial layers of the endometrium. May be done as an early therapeutic abortion, or following a normal pregnancy to remove residual tissue remaining in the uterus, or may be done as a diagnostic procedure to examine lining tissue of the uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mammoplasty

A

Surgical reconstruction of the breast may involve breast enlargement or reduction or cosmetic reconstruction after mastectomy. What are the risk factors of developing breast cancer? Check out this women’s health link for answers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pudendal block

A

An anesthetic administered to block sensation around the lower vagina and perineum. This facilitates performing an episiotomy (see above) allowing passage of the baby’s head while avoiding uncontrolled tearing of tissues. By the way, pudendal, an ancient name for external genitalia, means “that which we should be ashamed of” in Latin. Even Adam and Eve wore fig leaves!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

-gravida

A

Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

-para

A

Live birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Part/o, toc/o

A

Labor/birth/delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Abruptio placentae

A

(Latin, “breaking off”). Premature separation of a normally implanted placenta before full term. Occurs in only about 1% of pregnancies. However, it has a 20-40% fetal mortality rate and is a significant contributor to maternal mortality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Placenta previa

A

(Latin, “leading the way”). A placenta implanted over the cervical region of the uterus blocking the entrance to the birth canal. Occurs in less than one percent of pregnancies, but can cause significant bleeding and require a complicated delivery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Eclampsia

A

(toxemia of pregnancy )- a serious and life-threatening condition that may develop during pregnancy involving hypertension, convulsions and coma. A less severe form, preeclampsia, may develop but can be managed if identified and treated early.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Ectopic pregnancy

A

(Greek, “out of place”). A pregnancy implanted anywhere outside of the uterus. The uterine tube (Fallopian tube) is the most common location, also called a “tubal pregnancy”. The abdominal cavity is the least common location. Occurs in about 2% of pregnancies. When it occurs, it is a surgical emergency, because the uterine tube cannot sustain tremendous expansion like the uterus. Eventually, the uterine tube will rupture with severe, possibly fatal, hemorrhaging.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Oste/o

A

bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Chondr/o

A

cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Arthr/o

A

Joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Myel/o

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ten/o, tendin/o

A

tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Ligament/o

A

ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Burs/o

A

Bursa, “bag”, (shock absorber between tendons and bones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

My/o, myos/o

A

muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

-porosis

A

porous

34
Q

-malacia

A

softening

35
Q

-asthenia

A

weakness, loss of strength

36
Q

-trophy

A

Development, stimulation, maintenance

37
Q

-algia, algesia

A

pain

38
Q

Arthritis

A

As we age, our joint tissues become less resilient to wear and tear and start to degenerate manifesting as swelling, pain, and oftentimes, loss of mobility of joints. Changes occur in both joint soft tissues and the opposing bones, a condition called osteoarthritis. A more serious form of disease is called rheumatoid arthritis. The latter is an autoimmune disease wherein the body produces antibodies against joint tissues causing chronic inflammation resulting in severe joint damage, pain and immobility.

39
Q

Osteoporosis

A

“Porous bone.” The bane of the old, especially, women. The hard, rock-like quality of bone is dependent upon calcium. When too much calcium is dissolved from bones or not enough replaced, bones lose density and are easily fractured. Estrogen, the female sex hormone, helps maintain proper calcium levels in bones. Once the ovaries stop producing the hormone, women are at higher risk of developing osteoporosis. A collapse of bony vertebrae of the spinal column results in loss of height and stooped posture. Hip fractures are a common occurrence.

40
Q

Osteomalacia

A

“Soft bones.” If not enough calcium is deposited during early childhood development, the bones do not become rock-hard, but rubbery. Both adequate calcium in the diet and vitamin D, primarily, from normal sunlight exposure or supplementation, are necessary for normal bone development. Before vitamin supplementation to milk, “rickets,” another name for osteomalacia in children, was common resulting in the classic bowed legs of the afflicted child.

41
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome

A

People whose job involves repeated flexing of their wrist (typing, house painting) may develop tingling and/or pain in their thumb, index and middle fingers along with weakness of movements of the thumb, especially, grasping an object. The main nerve for finely controlled thumb movements passes through a bony/ligamentous canal on the bottom of the wrist. Repetitive flexing movements may inflame and thicken the ligament over the “tunnel” through the carpal (wrist) bones trapping and compressing the nerve.

42
Q

Tendonitis

A

Repeated strain on a tendon, attachment of a muscle to bone, can inflame the tendon resulting in pain and difficulty with movement involving the muscle. Tendons have a poor blood supply; therefore, they typically take a long time to heal on the order of six weeks or more.

43
Q

Rotator cuff tear

A

Muscles surrounding the shoulder joint are involved in rotating the shoulder with upper arm and hand forward and backward, among other movements. The tendons of these muscles also contribute to the structural strength of the shoulder joint. Hard, fast movements, such as in tennis and baseball can tear one of these tendons resulting in pain and decreased mobility of the shoulder. Surgery may be needed to repair a torn tendon.

44
Q

Bursitis

A

A bursa is a small, closed bag with a minimum amount of lubricatory fluid that serves as a shock absorber where bones make close contact and to minimize trauma and friction where tendons cross bones and joints. Inflammation leads to pain and immobility in a joint area.

45
Q

Muscular dystrophy

A

Muscular dystrophy is a group of inherited diseases in which the muscles that control movement progressively weaken. The prefix, dys-, means abnormal. The root, -trophy, refers to maintaining normal nourishment, structure and function. The most common form in children is called Duchenne muscular dystrophy and affects only males. It usually appears between the ages of 2 to 6 and the afflicted live typically into late teens to early 20s.

46
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

“Muscular weakness, profound”. This is an autoimmune disease that involves production of antibodies that interfere with nerves stimulating muscle contractions. Face and neck muscles are the most obviously affected, manifesting as drooping eyelids, double vision, difficulty swallowing and general fatigue. There is no actual paralysis of muscles involved, but a rapid fatiguing of function.

47
Q

Lupus erythematosus

A

An autoimmune disease wherein the body produces antibodies against a variety of organs, especially connective tissues of skin and joints. Mild Lupus may involve a distinctive butterfly-shaped rash over the nose and cheeks. Mild lupus may also involve myalgia and arthralgia (remember these words?) Severe or systemic lupus (SLE) involves inflammation of multiple organ systems such as the heart, lungs, or kidneys. By the way, lupus means “wolf” in Latin. Maybe a reference to the facial rash that might give a patient a wolf-like appearance.

48
Q

Orthopaedist

A

“To straighten up children.” Orthopaedics is a surgical subspecialty that in the past devoted much of its time to treating musculoskeletal deformities in children. Now with improved prenatal diagnosis and better nutrition, orthopaedists still treat children with spine and limb deformities but also adults with complicated bone fractures, damaged tendons or ligaments, or needing surgery to replace a damaged hip or knee joint.

49
Q

Rheumatologist

A

“To study the flux of fluids.” Say, what? Rheuma is an old medical term for a watery discharge. Among other diseases, rheumatologists treat joint diseases such as the various forms of arthritis including rheumatoid arthritis. Inflamed joints accumulate “fluid” and swell among other signs and symptoms. This medical subspecialty also evaluates and treats osteoporosis, tendonitis, gout and lupus among many other chronic musculoskeletal pain disorders.

50
Q

Osteopath/osteopathic physician (D.O.)

A

The name sounds like a specialty limited to bone disease, but actually, osteopathic physicians are one of two arms of the medical profession that differ in history and philosophy. At one time there were many kinds of medical schools originating from various philosophies; allopathic, osteopathic, homeopathic. Osteopathy originated in the 1890s in response to despair at the lack of effectiveness of many forms of then primitive treatments. Osteopathy developed an emphasis on the influence of the musculoskeletal system and its interrelationship to other body systems. D.O.s make use of osteopathic manipulation (bones, ligaments, joints) along with medication, surgery and all other medical treatments used by M.D. physicians. Also, preventive care has always been a major emphasis of osteopathic care. M.D.s and D.O.s are licensed by all state medical boards. Learn about the doctor of osteopathic medicine program at Des Moines University.

51
Q

Podiatrists

A

traditionally known as “foot doctors,” are surgical subspecialists in diseases and structural problems of the feet. They not only provide care for corns, calluses, ingrown toenails and heel spurs, but also treat foot and ankle injuries, deformities and diseases. Many systemic diseases manifest signs and symptoms in appearance of the feet such as poor wound healing in diabetes. They also can prescribe special shoes and inserts to treat chronic foot pain and walking problems. Podiatrists may further specialize in sports medicine, geriatrics or diabetic foot care. Learn about the doctor of podiatric medicine program at Des Moines University.

52
Q

Physical therapist

A

This health care professional has at least two years of specialized training beyond a college degree. PTs are rehabilitation specialists treating a multitude of medical problems including patients recovering from joint surgery, limb amputation, a stroke, heart attack and suffering with chronic neuromuscular diseases. In addition to other treatment modalities, they teach patients exercises to strengthen their body, increase mobility and how to prevent recurrence of injury. Learn about the doctor of physical therapy program at Des Moines University.

53
Q

Arthroscopy

A

A fiberoptic instrument is introduced into a joint cavity in order to visualize surfaces of bones entering into a joint, find tears in internal joint structures and evaluate sources of inflammation.

54
Q

Bone scan

A

A radioactive element in very small amounts, not enough to cause any radiation injury to the patient, is introduced into the blood stream. The specially selected element accumulates in bone and using a much more sophisticated version of the old Geiger Counter instrument, the distribution of the element is used to diagnose potential bone tumors among other bone pathologies.

55
Q

Electromyography

A

A big, scary word! But, you are experienced by now in taking them apart. I like to start at the end and work backward: “a recording of muscle electrical activity.” Fine needles are introduced into muscles in order to make recordings of contractile activity. This procedure is useful in evaluating causes of paralysis, diagnosing muscular dystrophy and other neuromuscular disorders.

56
Q

Muscle biopsy

A

Cutting out a small tissue sample of muscle in order to examine it under a microscope. This procedure can be useful in diagnosing muscular dystrophy and other neuromuscular disorders.

57
Q

Carcinoma

A

Carcinoma is the most common form of cancer. Carcinoma develops from sheets of cells that cover a surface (example: skin) or line a body cavity (example: glandular lining of stomach). Some names for tumors of this type would be: adenocarcinoma of the prostate, adenocarcinoma of the lung, gastric adenocarcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma (what organ is involved?). Note that the term carcinoma typically appears in the name.

58
Q

Sarcoma

A

A rare form of cancer arises from connective and supportive tissues, examples: bone, fat, muscle, and other connective tissues. Some names of this type of tumor would be: osteosarcoma (malignancy of bone), liposarcoma (fat) and gastrointestinal stromal tumor. Note that the term sarcoma does not always appear in the name.

59
Q

Tumor markers

A

Tumor markers are substances that are produced by tumors or the body’s response to presence of a tumor. Tumor markers found in various body fluids, such as the blood, can be useful in the detection and response to treatment of certain cancers. However, most tumor markers are not specific for cancer and they may be present or even elevated with benign diseases. The absence of a tumor marker can also be useful in confirming successful cancer treatment; whereas an increase in the tumor marker level may indicate recurrence. Two well known markers are Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) for prostate cancer and CA-125 for ovarian cancer.

60
Q

Radiation

A

It is ironic that the same agent that can cause cancer can be used to destroy cancer, but a common mechanism is at work. Fairly low to moderate doses of radiation can cause DNA damage, which may result in the malignant transformation of normal cells into cancer cells. But, high dose radiation focused on cells can destroy the cancerous cells. However, even with highly focused radiation treatment, normal surrounding tissues are exposed to the radiation and may lead to secondary cancers.

Some terms you will hear about are:

Radiosensitive – cancer degenerates in response to radiation

Radioresistant – the cancer may have a partial response or doesn’t respond at all

Fractionation – a treatment radiation dose is broken down into multiple exposures over several weeks to minimize side effects

61
Q

Analgesics

A
pain pills for headaches, muscle aches, and pains
Ex. Aleve (naproxen)
 Aspirin
 Celebrex (celecoxib)
 Codeine
 Motrin (ibuprofen)
 Tylenol (acetaminophen)
62
Q

Antacids

A
indigestion pills for heartburn
Prevacid (lansoprazole)
 Prilosec (omeprazole)-OTC
 Tums
 Zantac (ranitidine)
63
Q

Antiarthritic

A
rheumatism pills for rheumatoid arthritis 
Aspirin
 Aleve (naproxin)
 Celebrex (celecoxib)
 Humira (adalimumab)
 Remicade (infliximab)
64
Q

Antibiotics

A
bug killers for microbial infections
Amoxil (amoxicillin)
 Erythromycin
 Keflex (cephalexin)
 Pen-Vee (Penicillin)
 Septra (sulfamethoxazole)
 Vibramycin (doxycycline)
65
Q

Anticoagulants

A

blood thinners to prevent blood clots
Coumadin (warfarin)
Heparin
Plavix (clopidogrel)

66
Q

Cryosurgery

A

destroying malignant tissue by freezing it with a cold probe. Often used for soft tissues like liver or kidney.

67
Q

Fulguration

A

“Lightning” in Latin. Malignant tissue is destroyed with an electrocautery instrument (electric current).

68
Q

Excisional biopsy

A

simultaneous tissue sampling and removal of a tumor with a safe margin of normal tissue. Frequently done with suspicious skin lesions; example, malignant melanoma.

69
Q

Resect

A

to cut and remove a segment of an organ containing a tumor.

70
Q

En bloc resection

A

removal of the tumor and any surrounding organs or tissues that may be involved. This is often necessary for large abdominal sarcomas.

71
Q

Well Differentiated vs. Poorly Differentiated

A

well differentiated is good news and poorly differentiated is bad news

72
Q

Anticonvulsants

A
prevent seizures 
Dilantin (phenytoin)
 Phenobarbital
 Neurontin
 (gabapentin)
73
Q

Antidepressants

A

relieve depression
Elavil (amitriptyline)
Prozac (fluoxetine)
Zoloft (sertraline)

74
Q

Antihistamines

A

stops runny nose, wheezing and itchiness
Allegra (fexofenadine)
Benadryl (diphenhydramine)
Claritin (loratadine)

75
Q

Antihyperlipidemics

A
lowers cholesterol levels
Lipitor (atorvastatin)
 Niaspan (Niacin)
 Pravachol (pravastatin)
 Questran (cholestyramine)
 Zocor (simvastatin)
76
Q

Antihypertensives

A
lowers high blood pressure
 Norvasc (amlodipine besylate)
 Captopen (captopril)
 Inderal (propranolol)
 Lotensin (benazepril)
 Tenormin (atenolol)
 Zestril (lisinopril)
77
Q

Cardiac drugs

A
treats abnormal heart rhythms, heart failure, angina pain
Cardizem (diltiazem)
 Cordarone (amiodarone)
 Inderal (propranolol)
 Lanoxin (digoxin)
 Nitrostat (nitroglycerin)
78
Q

Diuretics

A

lowers high blood pressure, treat congestive heart
failure
Hydrodiuril (hydrochlorothiazide)
Lasix (furosemide)

79
Q

Erectile Dysfunction

A

impotency
Cialis (tadalafil)
Levitra(vardenafil)
Viagra (sildenafil)

80
Q

Hypnotics

A

insomnia
Ambien (zolpidemtartrate)
Lunesta (eszopiclone)
Sonata (zaleplon)

81
Q

Hypoglycemic agents

A
lowers high blood sugar
Diabeta (Glyburide)
 Glucophage (metformin)
 Glucotrol (glipizide)
 Insulin
82
Q

Osteoporosis therapy

A

strengthens bones
Actonel (risendronate)
Boniva (ibandronate)
Fosamax (alendronate

83
Q

Tranquilizers

A

anxiety
Valium (diazepam)
Xanax (alprazolam)