Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NSG 530 Exam II > Exam II Study > Flashcards

Exam II Study Flashcards

1
Q

Virus is contained both DNA and RNA. True or false.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Viruses are incapable of independent reproduction and cannot be killed by antimicrobials true or false

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Disease caused by fungi are called

A

Mycoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Are mycoses treatable with penicillin?

A

No, they occur with other infections that are not treatable with penicillin. They can be opportunistic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a live diverse that is weakened

A

Attenuated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Antibiotic resistance is usually a result of genetic mutations that can be transmitted directly to a neighboring microorganism by what type of exchange

A

Plasma exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a clinical hallmark of immuno deficiency?

A

A propensity to unusual or recurrent severe infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The ability to spread from one individual to another and cause disease

A

Communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The ability of pathogens to induce an immune response

A

Immunogenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Damaging tissues is the pathogens mechanism of action true or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Measles virus is a low virulence, true or false

A

True. Virulence is the capacity of a pathogen to cause severe disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

True or false rabies is of high virulence?

A

True. Violence is the capacity of a pathogen to cause severe disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What enzymes can damage the plasma membrane of whales or can an activate enzymes critical to protein synthesis?

A

Exotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of enzyme activates the inflammatory response and produce fever

A

Endotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

____________ released by blood-borne bacteria caused the release of vasoactive enzymes that increase the permeability of blood vessels.

A

Endotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The breakdown of red blood cells is called

A

Hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The growth of bacteria in the blood is called

A

Septicemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Decreased BP, decrease O2 delivery, cardiovascular shock, and subsequent death are complication of what type of shock?

A

Symptoms of gram-negative septic shock are produced by endotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Once in the blood _____ toxins caused the release of vasoactive peptides and pens that affect blood vessels, producing bases dilation which reduces blood pressure causes, decreased oxygen and produces subsequent cardiovascular shock

A

That’s an endotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the four stages of infection?

A
  1. Incubation
  2. Prodromal Stage
  3. Invasion or Acute illness stage
  4. Convalescence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bacteria have ________ factors that promote their ability to cause infection and cell injury, including pili, flagella capsules enzymes competition for iron and toxin

A

Virulence factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

__________ results from the proliferation of bacteria into the blood

A

Septicemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What happens when toxins are released by blood-borne bacteria?

A

They release vasoactive enzymes that increase the permeability of blood vessels. This leakage causes hypotension then the results in septic shock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

True or false viruses are intracellular parasites?

A

True, they invade hotels, and use their medical processes to proliferate cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are diseases called caused by fungi called?

A

Mycoses - Either a yeast or a mold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the most common cause of fungal infection in humans?

A

Candida Alacan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pathogens can use various mechanisms to resist the effects of antibiotics, including what?

A
  1. Transmission of resistance jeans to new generations of bacteria.
  2. Enzyme degradation of the antibiotic.
  3. Ejection of the antibiotic from the pathogen.
  4. Modification of the cell wall to prevent binding or uptake of the antibiotic.
  5. modification of the target of the antibiotic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Explain vaccines

A

They are a biological preparation of an antigen that stimulates production of antibodies or cellular immunity against a specific pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Explain passive immunotherapy

A

Administration of performed antibodies for protection against specific pathogen, such as hepatitis A or B and rabies 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

____________ is an immune response misdirected against the host owned tissues

A

Hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When a hypersensitivity immune response is misdirected against the host on tissue, it is known as

A

Auto immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When a hypersensitivity is an immune response or directed against the beneficial, foreign tissues, such as transfusions or transplants, it is known as

A

Alloimmunity (iso)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hypersensitivity is a immune response that can be exaggerated against environmental antigens is known as

A

Allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Mechanisms of hypersensitivity are classified as what?

A
  1. Type I (Immunoglobulin E [IgE] mediated reactions
  2. Type II (tissues specific) reactions
  3. Type III (Immune complex mediated.) reactions.
  4. Type IV (Cell mediating.) reactions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Explain type one hypersensitivity

A

IGE mediated reactions occur after an antigen reacts with IGE on a mass cell. This leads to mast Cell degranulation, and then the release of histamine and other inflammatory substances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Explain typeII hypersensitivity

A

Type II our tissue specific reactions caused by four possible mechanisms:
1. Complement mediated lysis.
2. Oposonization and phagocytosis.
3. Antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity.
4. Modulation of cellular function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Explain type III hypersensitivity reactions

A

These are immune complex mediated. They are caused by the formation of immune complexes that are deposited in target tissues. They complement cascade generating fragments that attract neutrophils into the inflammatory site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Give an example of an immune complex disease that can be systemic

A

Serum sickness, Reynard phenomenon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Give an example of an immune complex disease that is localized

A

Arthus reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Explain type IV hypersensitivity reactions

A

They are caused by specifically sensitized. He sells which either killed target sells directly or release limpkin that activate other cells, such as macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

_________ disease is a lot of tolerance of self antigens.

A

Auto immune

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

An autoimmune disease can there be a genetic predisposition?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What type of hypersensitivity can an autoimmune disease be?

A

Type II or type III hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Explain aloe immunity

A

Systems reaction against antigens on the tissue of other members of the same species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Give examples of allo immune disorders

A
  1. Transient neonatal disease where the mom’s immune system becomes sensitized against antigens in the fetus.
  2. Transplant rejection and transfusion reactions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Explain immuno deficiency

A

It’s basically the failure of mechanisms of self-defense to function in their normal capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Immuno deficiencies are either primary or secondary true or false

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Explain, congenital immuno deficiencies

A

They are caused by genetic deficits that disrupt lymphocyte development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Explain acquired him you know deficiencies for secondary

A

Please, our secondary disease or other physiologic alteration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The most common infections in individuals with defects of cell mediated immune responses

A

Fungal and viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The most common infections and individuals with defects of the humoral immune response or compliment, function, or primarily what

A

Bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A total lack of T cell function, and a severe either partial or total lack of cell function is known as what

A

Severe combined immuno deficiency (SCID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Wiskott- Aldririch (WAS) syndrome is caused by an increased production of which antibody

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Cancer Tx: Surgery

A

To prevent cancer
Biopsy’s for Dax and staging
Lymph node sampling
Palliative surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Cancer Tx: Radiation

A

Goal is to stop cancer without excessive toxicity
Avoid damage to normal structures
++++Ionizing radiation damages the cancers cell’s DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Cancer Tx: Chemotherapy

A

-Takes advantage of specific vulnerability in target cancer cells
-It’s cool - give in many different combos that are designed to fight the cancer from many different weaknesses at the same time
- A complication is death though due to rapidly dividing cells that are not cancerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Cancer Tx: Induction chemotherapy

A

For shrinkage of disappearance of tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Cancer Tx: neoadjuvant therapy

A

-Given before localized treatment to shrink the tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Immunotherapy

A

Tumor cell vaccines effective in protecting against infective agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Immunotherapy for metastatic ________ cancer has been approved by FDA

A

Prostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is targeted disruption in Cancer Tx?

A
  • It is used in combination with chemotherapy
  • HIghly specific making them less toxic than conventional chemotherapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Lipomas

A

Benign growths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Meningioma

A

Benign tumor

64
Q

Cancers arising in eptithelial tissues are called

A

Carcinomas

65
Q

Cancers arising in eptithelial tissues are called

A

Carcinomas

66
Q

Lymphatic tissues are called

A

Lymphomas

67
Q

Pleomorphic

A

Marked variability of size and shape

68
Q

What do tumors markers include

A

Hormones, enzymes, genes, antigens and antibodies

69
Q

Kapoks sarcoma is associated with

A

HIV

70
Q

Adjuvant (given after surgery) is indicated in the tax of individuals with

A

Metasis

71
Q

Should you use Bracyhtherapy in the tx of lung cancer?

A

Nope

72
Q

What cancer is brachytherapy useful in the tx of?

A

Cervical, prostate and head and neck cancers

73
Q

True or false patterns of cancer are influenced by environmental, not lifestyle factors?

A

True

74
Q

True or false patterns of cancer are influenced by environmental, not lifestyle factors?

A

True

75
Q

_______ tissue immune cells promote chronic inflammation

A

Stromal. They can precede AAANd initiate cancer changes

76
Q

Major causes of morbidity and mortality worldwide

A

Incidence trends.
Decreasing for men
Staying the same for women
Increased in people 0-19
Liver much higher in men

77
Q

Mortality Trends

A
  • Death rates in the US decreasing for men, women and children
    -Death rates for liver cancers increased at highest rate of all cancer types. Men more than double
78
Q

Degree to which an organism’s development is contingent on its environment

A

Developmental plasticity

79
Q

Most important cause of preventable cancers

A

Tobaccco use - Lung, lower up tract, so teach, kidneys, pancreas, cervices, uterus - affects pretty much every organ

80
Q

Name 2 defense systems for countering effects of xenobiotics (toxic chemical in food)

A

Detoxification enzymes
And
Antioxidant systems

81
Q

Three factors r/t obesity and cancer

A

-Insulin -IGF-1 Axis
-Sex hormones
-Adipokines or adipocyte-derived cytokines

82
Q

Name some ways physical activity can reduce cancer risk

A
  • Decreased insulin
    -IGF
  • Increases free radicals scavenger systems
  • Alters inflammatory mediators
    -Improves immune function
83
Q

What is the leading environmental cause of death worldwide?

A

Air pollution

84
Q

Whats worse indoor or outdoor pollution?

A

Indoor

85
Q

True or false. Tobacco smoke (passive) causes formation of reactive oxygen free radicals and DNA damage

A

That’s true mofo

86
Q

_______ gas trapped in houses forms decay products that are carcinogenic

A

Radon

87
Q

Ionizing Radiations

A
  • Increase risk for leukemias, multiple myeloma and thyroid, breast , lung
  • Age at time of exposure is a factor in cancer - early ages and older age at highest risk
88
Q

Ionizing radiation - mutations in germ cells are hereditable?

A

True

89
Q

What are the non-targeted effects of ionizing radiation?

A
  • Cells not directly touches by radiation, but nearby cells or ones in communication with irratidates cells
  • Genomic instability
    -By stander effects
90
Q

Effects to cells that received no direct radiation exposure

A

Bystander effects

91
Q

Does radiation-induces cancer have latent period and if so how long?

A

5-10 years

92
Q

________ cell carcinoma: Lower epidermis or outer layer of skin

A

Basal cell carcninoma

93
Q

________ cell carcinoma: surface of skin, sun exposed areas

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

94
Q

Electromagnetic radiation

A

-energy in form of magnetic or electric waves like from phone, wireless devices
-Who know if they are carcinogenic the jury is still out

95
Q

Which viruses account for a majority of liver cancers

A

Hep B and C viruses

96
Q

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, various lymphomas and gastric adeneocarcinom ,

A

Epstein-Barr Virus (or mono) brought on by kissing

97
Q

S/s of Epstein Bar or Mono

A

Swollen cervical lymph nodes

98
Q

Most common STD in US

A

HPV

99
Q

Which 2 types of HPV are responsible for the majority of cance3rs

A

16 and 18

100
Q

____________ inheritance is the heritable transmission to future generations of environmentally caused phenotypes

A

Trans generational inheritances

101
Q

______ is the role of genes in the development and disease

A

Epigentsics

102
Q

What 3 types of cancers are linked to consumption of water with high levels of arsenic?

A
  1. Bladder
  2. Skin
  3. Lung caners
103
Q

What is the leading cause of death from disease in children?

A

Cancer

104
Q

Most childhood cancers originate from the mesodermal germ layer. T/f?

A

True

105
Q

The mesodermal germ layer gives rise to what?

A
  • Connective tissue
  • Bone cartilage
  • Muscle
  • blood vessels
  • gonads
  • kidneys
  • lymphatic system
106
Q

What are the most common childhood cancers?

A
  1. Leukemias
  2. Sarcomas
    Tumors of the nervous system - primarily the brain or head
107
Q

T/f - Most childhood cancers do not have predisposing environmental factors?

A

True - they’re too young

  • Also CC have short latency period - less chance of early warning signs
  • happens super fast
108
Q

What is chromosome amplification?

A

Duplication of a small piece of chromosome over and over.
Results in increased expression of an oncogene
EG neuroblastoma

109
Q

Neuroblastoma

A
  • 50 percent in kids under 2
  • Extra cranial - outside the brain - easily can metastasize
110
Q

2 types of chromosome instibility

A

1 loss of heterozygosity
2. “Two hit hypothesis” - you get a bad gene from mom or dada then something somatic happens

111
Q

2 types of chromosome instibility

A

1 loss of heterozygosity
2. “Two hit hypothesis” - you get a bad gene from mom or dada then something somatic happens

112
Q

What is the most prominent childhood cancer?

A

Reterinoblastoma. Can be passed on from parents

113
Q

What is caretaker genes

A
  • Encode for proteins that are involved in repairing DNA
114
Q

Congenital syndromes and cancers occur together like Down syndrome and ?

A

Leukemias

115
Q

Environmental factors that can contribute to CC?

A

Prenatal exposure like drugs or ionizing radiation -

116
Q

Epstein-Barr viruses and AIDS have a strong association with cancer development ?

A

T

117
Q

What is the prognosis of CC/

A

1 more than 80% cured
2. Survival rates higher in kids under 15
3. Younger kids are in clinical trials
4. BUT they’re at risk for cancer later in life
5. They can expect to see residual effects of treatment

118
Q

What residual and late effects can kids show after Cancer treatment

A

1 physical impairments
2. Reproduction dysfunction ion
3. Soft tissue and bone atrophy
4. Learning disability

119
Q

Osteosarcoma is associated with what syndrome?

A

Li-Fraumeni

120
Q

What is Li-Fraumeni?

A
  1. Autosomal dominant disorder involving:
  2. TP53 tumor suppressor gene
121
Q

True or false Heart has three layers enclosed in the pericardium?

A

True
1. Epicardium outer
2. Myocardium
3. Endocardium

ALL INSIDE THE PERICARDIUM

122
Q

True or false Heart has three layers enclosed in the pericardium?

A

True
1. Epicardium outer
2. Myocardium
3. Endocardium

ALL INSIDE THE PERICARDIUM

123
Q

What are the two atrioventricular valves

A

Tricuspid (Remember right)
Mitral or big upside (left)

124
Q

What are the two atrioventricular valves

A

Tricuspid (Remember right)

125
Q

What is the correct blood flow

A
  1. Blood from the right atrium through tricuspid valve to the right ventricle
  2. Blood then travels from right ventricle through t the pulmonic semilunar valve to the pulmonary circulation (getting oxygenated)
  3. Blood then travels to the left atrium, through the BICUSPID valve and to the left ventricle
  4. Blood leaves the left ventricle through t the aortic valve and enters the systemic circulation
126
Q

Correct conduction system of heart

A
  1. SA
  2. AV
  3. Bundle of HIS
  4. Right and left bundle branches
  5. Purkinje fibers
127
Q

Which wave shows atrial depolarization?

A

P wave. Opening of sodium plus, allowing more sodium to come into the cell and potassium out

128
Q

What is refractory period

A

After a delay

129
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system do for the heart innervation?

A

Responsible for fate of impulse generation, depolarization and depolarization

130
Q

Role of sympathetic nerves in cardiac innervation

A

Increases conductivity and strength of contraction

131
Q

What is a contractile unite of cell?

A

Sarcomere

132
Q

How many nucleus do cardiac fibers have?

A

Only unoooo

133
Q

How many nucleus do cardiac fibers have?

A

Only unoooo and they are Branched

134
Q

Heart rate x stroke volume =

A

Cadiac output - normal for adults is 5: per minute

135
Q

Stroke volume/End-disatolic volume

A

Ejection fraction AKA Frank Starling Law of the Heart

136
Q

Volume/pressure inside ventricle at end of diastole

A

Preload

137
Q

Resistance to ejection of blood from left ventricle

A

After load

138
Q

Which vessels carry oxygenated blood away from heart

A

Arterial Vessels - Arteries, arterials, capillaries, metarterioles

139
Q

Carry deoxygenated blood toward heart

A

Venous Vessels
Veins, venules

140
Q

Factors affecting blood flow

A
  1. Pressure - force exerted on a liquid per unit
  2. Resistance - Opposition to force
  3. Velocity - Speed of blood
  4. Vascular compliance
  5. Laminar Vs turbulent flow
141
Q

Regulation of blood pressure with arterial pressure

A

Systolic and diastolic blood pressure
MAP

142
Q

How does venous pressure affect blood pressure

A

Volume of fluid in veins and compliance of vessels walls

143
Q

A client is do with increased systemic vascular resistance. What will be the effect on the heart?

A

Left ventricle will be required to pump harder

144
Q

The ______ ventricle pumps blood to the pulmonary system

A

Right.

145
Q

What would happen to the right ventricle if there was an increase in pulmonary vascular system

A

It would become ineffective

146
Q

Special vascular system that picks up excess fluid and returns it to the bloodstream

A

Lymphatic system

147
Q

True or false the mesothelium is part of the pericardial cavity

A

True

148
Q

The papillary muscles are extensions of the myocardium that pull the cusps together and downward at the onset of ventricular contraction, true or false

A

True

149
Q

The __________ are openings in the aorta for the coronary arteries

A

Coronary Ostia

150
Q

The ________ conducts the potential along the atria

A

SA node

151
Q

The ________ conducts the potential along the atria

A

SA node

152
Q

The AV node conducts impulses to the _______

A

Ventricles

153
Q

The QRS complex represents the sum of all ___________ muscle cell DEPOLIRZATIONS

A

verntricular

154
Q

Threshold is related to

A

Depolarization

155
Q

The P wave represents

A

Atrial depolarization

156
Q

The QT interval reprsents “____________” of the ventricles

A

Electrical systole

NSG 530 Exam II (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions