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Embryology Review > Exam II > Flashcards

Exam II Flashcards

1
Q

What is the principle inductor in neural tube formation?

A

Notochord

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2
Q

How are Hox genes arranged from 3’ to 5’?

A

Hox1’s are most anterior and expressed at the 3’ end

Hox13 is most posterior and expressed at the 5’ end

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3
Q

What genes’ pattern determines cranial nerves and pharyngeal arch derivatives?

A

Hox genes

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4
Q

What type of gradient stimulates and initiates expression of Hox genes?

A

Retinoic acid

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5
Q

What hox genes determine the cranial/caudal extend of intermediate mesoderm?

A

Hox4 through Hox11

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6
Q

What Hox genes are responsible for refinement and differentiation of gut structures?

A

Hoxa-d9, Hoxa-d13

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7
Q

What are chordin, goosecoid, and Fox-2 responsible for?

A

Organizer regions like the notochord and prechordal plate

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8
Q

What signaling factor originates in epiblast and establishes the posterior signaling center for the primitive streak?

A

Nodal

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9
Q

What 2 signaling factors originate in the hypoblast and target nodal, confining it to the posterior epiblast?

A

Lefty-1

Cer-1

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10
Q

What does Wnt-3 do?

A

Signals nodal

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11
Q

What are Cerberus-like and DKK-1 for?

A

Posterior structures

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12
Q

What 3 signaling factors are responsible for neural induction?

A

Noggin
Chordin
Shh

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13
Q

What signaling factor originates in the primitive streak and is responsible for cell movement through the primitive streak?

A

Brachyury

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14
Q

What is Cerebrus-related 1 for?

A

Normal head formation

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15
Q

What 3 transcription factors are responsible for signaling in the primitive streak because they initiate Hox gene transcription?

A

Retinoic acid
Wnt
FGF

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16
Q

What signaling factor is responsible for: neural tube induction, formation of axial structures, intestinal portals, and limb development/polarity?

A

Shh

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17
Q

What signaling factor involved in the early primitive streak originates in the primitive node and targets chordin and noggin?

A

Goosecoid

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18
Q

What would be the result of a goosecoid gene mutation?

A

Craniofacial defects, short stature, auditory canal atresia, mandibular hypoplasia, skeletal abnormalities

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19
Q

What gene involved in the early primitive streak originates in the primitive streak and is responsible for notochord formation, and normal movement of cells through the PS?

A

Brachyury

Aka T gene

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20
Q

What would be the result of a mutation in the brachyury gene?

A

Vertebral malformations

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21
Q

What is the first sign of asymmetry in early development?

A

Asymmetrical beating of cilia around primitive node - results in directional current and expression of TGF-B

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22
Q

What two signaling factors are involved in early asymmetry?

A

Nodal

Lefty-1

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23
Q

What term refers to the shaping of the neural plate involving migration of ectodermal cells toward midline as they elongate along anterior-posterior axis?

A

Convergent extension - forms elongated narrow plate

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24
Q

What term refers to the cells becoming oriented along an axis in a flat plane?

A

Planar polarity

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25
Q

What causes planar polarity?

A

Asymmetric distribution of planar cell polarity proteins Disheveled and Prickle

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26
Q

What would occur in the absence of the planar polarity pathway?

A

Neural folds would remain far apart and neural tube closure is absent

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27
Q

In the anterior notochord, Gbx-2 is expressed in which region of the brain?

A

Hindbrain

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28
Q

In terms of spinal cord segmentation, presomitic mesoderm flanking the posterior regions of neural tube secrete ______ which maintains caudal neural plate cells in a proliferative state

A

FGF-8

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29
Q

In terms of spinal cord segmentation, as the neural tube advances posteriorly, some stem cells will fall out the stem cell zone and differentiate. What causes this differentiation and how does it do this?

A

Retinoic acid produced by flanking somites

blocks FGF-8 and Wnt-3a

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30
Q

During segmentation of the hindbrain, what signaling molecule is important for rhombomeres 3 and 5?

A

Krox-20

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31
Q

In terms of hindbrain segmentation, what signaling molecules are important in just rhombomere 5?

A

Kreisler and Hoxa-1

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32
Q

In terms of hindbrain segmentation, what is important for rhombomeres 4-7, as well as expression of Hoxa-1 and Hoxb-1?

A

Retinoic acid gradient

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33
Q

What two signaling factors establish the isthmic organizer?

A

Otx-2 and Gbx-2

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34
Q

What is the isthmic organizer for?

A

Organizing midbrain and cerebellum

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35
Q

What does the isthmic organizer release (anteriorly and posteriorly)?

A

Wnt-1 anteriorly, FGF-8 posteriorly

Induces gradients for anterior En-1 and posterior En-2

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36
Q

What are sclerotomes derived from?

A

Paraxial mesoderm

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37
Q

The following is/are derivatives of which part of the sclerotome?

Vertebral bodies and their intervertebral discs

A

Ventral

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38
Q

The following is/are derivatives of which part of the sclerotome?

Distal ribs, some tendons

A

Lateral

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39
Q

The following is/are derivatives of which part of the sclerotome?

Dorsal part of the neural arch, spinous process

A

Dorsal

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40
Q

The following is/are derivatives of which part of the sclerotome?

Pedicles and ventral parts of neural arches, proximal ribs, or transverse processes of vertebrae

A

Central

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41
Q

The following is/are derivatives of which part of the sclerotome?

Meninges and blood vessels of meninges

A

Medial (meningotome)

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42
Q

What type of mesoderm does the cardiogenic plate arise from?

A

Splanchnic mesoderm

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43
Q

What are the 2 derivatives of the lateral plate mesoderm?

A

2 layers: dorsal, ventral

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44
Q

Which layer of the lateral plate mesoderm is made up of splanchnic mesoderm?

A

Ventral layer

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45
Q

Which layer of the lateral plate mesoderm is made up of somatic mesoderm?

A

Dorsal layer

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46
Q

What parts derived from lateral plate mesoderm form the somatopleure?

A

Somatic mesoderm (from dorsal layer) + ectoderm

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47
Q

What parts from the lateral plate mesoderm form the splanchnopleure?

A

Splanchnic mesoderm (from the ventral layer) + endoderm

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48
Q

What is the major derivative of the intermediate mesoderm?

A

Urogenital system (pronephros -> mesonephros)

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49
Q

Does the following describe a somite or somitomere?

Initial pairs of segments of mesenchyme that begin to develop along and on either side of neural plate in paraxial mesoderm

A

Somitomere

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50
Q

__________ are more dense blocks of mesoderm that form along the notochord; in the caudal direction, a pair of somitomeres is transformed into a pair of these every few hours

A

Somites

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51
Q

As pairs of somites are formed, pairs of somitomeres are also forming at the anterior end of the _________ ________

A

Primitive node

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52
Q

New somitomeres are added _________ as the primitive streak regresses and the embryo elongates

A

Caudally

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53
Q

Expression of Pax-3 and Pax-7 (and paraxis) leads to the separation of the __________ into dorsal and ventral

A

Dermomyotome

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54
Q

Early heart formation through the primitive streak:

Anterior PS = ________
Middle PS = _________
Posterior PS = ________

A 
Anterior = outflow tract
Middle = ventricles
Posterior = atria
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55
Q

Endoderm formation requires _______ expression during gastrulation

A

Nodal

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56
Q

What major circulatory arc supplies the yolk sac?

A

Vitelline arc

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57
Q

Is the vitelline arc intraembryonic or extraembryonic?

A

Extraembryonic

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58
Q

What major circulatory arc goes through the body stalk and spreads its network in the placenta and chorionic tissues?

A

Allantoic arc

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59
Q

Is the allantoic arc intraembryonic or extraembryonic?

A

Extraembryonic

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60
Q

What major circulatory arc passes through the pharynx and pharyngeal arches, then collects cephalically paired dorsal aorta that distribute blood throughout the body?

A

Embryonic arc

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61
Q

Is the embryonic arc intraembryonic or extraembryonic?

A

Intraembryonic

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62
Q

What are the 3 main circulatory arcs?

A

Vitelline
Allantoic
Embryonic

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63
Q

Which circulatory arc is made up of dorsal aorta, aortic arches, anterior cardinal vein, common cardinal veins, posterior cardinal veins, atrium, ventricle, and ventral aorta?

A

Embryonic arc

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64
Q

The posterior/hindgut expresses which transcription factor?

A

Cdx-2

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65
Q

The anterior/foregut expresses which 3 transcription factors?

A

Hex
Sox-2
Foxa-2

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66
Q

What are the 4 extraembryonic layers?

A

Amnion
Yolk sac
Chorion
Allantois

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67
Q

What two germ layers make up the amnion?

A

Ectoderm

Mesoderm

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68
Q

What 2 germ layers make up the yolk sac?

A

Endoderm

Mesoderm

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69
Q

What 2 germ layers make up the chorion?

A

Ectoderm

Mesoderm

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70
Q

What 2 germ layers make up the allantois?

A

Endoderm

Mesoderm

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71
Q

What extraembryonic layer is derived from epiblast?

A

Amnion (inner cell mass)

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72
Q

What extraembryonic layer is derived from hypoblast?

A

Yolk sac

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73
Q

What extraembryonic layer interfaces with the placenta via the umbilical cord?

A

Allantois

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74
Q

What extraembryonic layer forms the maternal/fetal interface?

A

Chorion

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75
Q

In the mature placenta, the ____________ directly interfaces with maternal uterine connective tissue

A

Cytotrophoblast

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76
Q

The __________ ________ faces away from the chorionic villi and towards the chorionic cavity

A

Chorionic plate

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77
Q

Most embryonic tissues are derived from epiblast or hypoblast, but the chorion is derived from ___________

A

Trophoblast

78
Q

What term refers to too little amniotic fluid (less than 500 mL) leading to potential renal agenesis?

A

Oligohydramnios

79
Q

What term refers to excessive amniotic fluid (500-1000mL) leading to possible esophageal atresia and anencephaly

A

Hydramnios

80
Q

What term refers to a condition, related to erythroblastosis fetalis, when bilirubin released from lysed RBCs causes water accumulation in the fetus?

81
Q

What term refers to the condition of extremely high blood pressure in pregnancy that may lead to grand mal seizures or coma?

82
Q

What are Hofbauer cells?

A

Fetal macrophages

83
Q

What maternal/fetal membrane overlies the embryo and its chorionic vesicle?

A

Decidua capsularis

84
Q

What maternal/fetal membrane is the smooth part of the chorion next to the decidua basalis?

A

Chorion laevae

85
Q

What maternal/fetal membrane originates with ectoderm of the inner cell mass in implanting embryo?

86
Q

What is the only maternal/fetal membrane that DOES NOT rupture during childbirth?

A

Decidua parietalis

87
Q

The lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio is a reflection of what?

A

Fetal lung maturity – used to assess overall fetal development

Creatinine does the same

88
Q

If you found excess alpha-fetoprotein in the amniotic fluid, what would you conclude?

A

Alpha-fetoprotein is a protein of the CNS, and it would indicate a neural tube defect

89
Q

This condition is characterized by jaundice due to excess bile production leading to yellowing of internal and external structures

A

Kernicturus

90
Q

What condition is Kernicturus related to?

A

Immune hydrops - blood incompatibility between mother and fetus

91
Q

What secretes HCG?

A

Syncyciotrophoblast cells

92
Q

When is HCG at its maximum secretion?

A

10-12th week

93
Q

Prevention of involution of corpus luteum, as well as the growth of the CL is due to what hormone?

94
Q

What hormone is 30x its normal level in the mother toward the end of pregnancy?

95
Q

What secretes this estrogen during pregnancy?

A

The placenta, almost entirely from androgenic steroid (from mom and baby’s adrenal glands)

96
Q

What converts placental estrogen into estriol, estradiol, and estrone?

A

The trophoblast

97
Q

What hormone is responsible for relaxing the pelvic ligaments during pregnancy?

98
Q

What hormone is secreted by the corpus luteum and later in large quantities by the placenta?

A

Progesterone

99
Q

What hormone causes decreased insulin sensitivity and decreased insulin utilization by pregnant mom?

A

Human chorionic somatomammotropin

100
Q

What secretes human chorionic somatomammotropin?

A

Placenta beginning in 5th week

101
Q

What hormone causes decidual cells to develop in the endometrium, as well as decreases the contractility of the pregnant uterus, and increase the secretions of the fallopian tubes and uterus

A

Progesterone

102
Q

Are the following characteristics of the early or late placenta?

Thin
Highly permeable
Large surface area
High diffusion rate

103
Q

How would you describe the early placenta in terms of thickness, permeability, surface area, and diffusion rate?

A

Thick
Low permeability
Small surface area
Minimal diffusion

104
Q

What is the double Bohr effect?

A

Double shift in oxygen carrying capacity in maternal and fetal blood

105
Q

What condition characterized by absent limbs likely due to the drug Thalidomide?

A

phocomelia

106
Q

Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome is characterized by lung immaturity at birth, likely due to lack of surfactant. This leads to a glassy coating of the alveoli referred to as what?

A

Hyaline membrane disease

107
Q

What hemolytic disease is caused by an Rh+ baby being attacked by mom’s Rh-Antibodies leading to hemolysis of fetal RBCs? What can this condition lead to?

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis - can lead to fetal hydrops

108
Q

What disease is known as Trisomy 21 and is likely due to advanced maternal age?

A

Down syndrome

109
Q

What inborn error of metabolism leads to a buildup of phenylalanine in the body?

A

Phenylketonuria

110
Q

Lack of what major component of prenatal vitamins leads to neural tube defects like anencephaly?

A

Folic acid

111
Q

What term refers to primary errors of morphogenesis that are likely multifactorial with both environmental and genetic components?

A

Malformations

112
Q

What term refers to disturbances in otherwise normal morphogenesis - i.e., amniotic bands?

A

Disruptions

113
Q

What term refers to constellations of congenital anomalies that are thought to be pathological but cannot be traced to a single event (these are often caused by viral infections)

114
Q

What term refers to the series of events triggered by one factor (i.e. Oligohydramnios)

115
Q

What is the origin and function of melanoblasts?

A

Origin = neural crest

Function = produce pigment

116
Q

What is the origin and function of Langerhan’s cells?

A

Origin = bone marrow

Function = APC

117
Q

What is the origin and function of Merkel cells?

A

Origin = neural crest

Function = slow-adapting mechanoreceptors

118
Q

Activation of _______ leads to a 3-layered epidermis by the end of the 3rd month of pregnancy

119
Q

What are the 3 layers of the multilayered epidermis initiated by p63?

A

Basal (germinative) layer

Intermediate layer

Superficial peridermal layer

120
Q

In forming the intermediate layer of the epidermis, p63 is inactivated by _______

121
Q

The intermediate layer of the epidermis consists of what two sub-layers?

A

Stratum spinosum

Stratum granulosum

122
Q

Which sublayer of the intermediate layer of the epidermis is characterized by its interconnections with fillagrin?

A

Stratum granulosum

123
Q

What sub-layer of the intermediate layer of the epidermis is characterized by the loss of integrins and the appearance of granules (keratohyalin)?

A

Stratum spinosum

124
Q

When do epidermal ridges first appear?

A

Between 11-17 weeks (1 week later in feet/toes)

125
Q

What is the source of dorsal mesenchyme?

126
Q

What is the source of ventral and lateral mesenchyme?

A

Lateral plate mesoderm

127
Q

What is the source of limb mesenchyme?

A

Lateral plate mesoderm

128
Q

What is the source of cranial and anterior neck mesenchyme?

A

Neural crest

129
Q

What signaling factor is important in the development of dermal cells from mesenchymal cells?

130
Q

What is the term for when one germ layer instructs another how to differentiate?

A

Instructive induction

131
Q

What are the stages of hair development/growth?

A
  1. Anagen
  2. Catagen
  3. Telogen
  4. Exogen
132
Q

What stage of hair growth lasts 5-6 weeks and is characterized by hair that stops growing?

133
Q

What stage of hair growth lasts 1-2 weeks and is characterized by regression of hair follicles?

134
Q

What stage of hair growth is characterized by the shedding of hair?

135
Q

What stage of hair growth lasts 5-6 weeks and is characterized by hair that is actively growing?

136
Q

What hormones are important for mammary gland development?

A

Estrogen
Progesterone
Prolactin
Oxytocin

137
Q

What hormone involved in mammary gland development acts on the base of growth hormone to stimulate proliferation of fatty tissue?

138
Q

What hormone involved in mammary gland development leads to the milk let-down for lactation?

139
Q

What are the skeletal derivatives of mesodermal sclerotomes?

A

Vertebral column, ribs, sternum

140
Q

What are the skeletal derivatives of the lateral plate mesoderm?

A

Limb bones, girdles

141
Q

What are the skeletal derivatives of head mesoderm?

A

Calvaria and base of skull

142
Q

What are the skeletal derivatives of the neural crest?

A

Facial bones

143
Q

What are the 2 transcription factors required for membranous bone development?

A

Runx-2 and Osx

144
Q

What transcription factor causes chondroblasts to secrete collagen II and cartilage matrix during permanent cartilage development?

145
Q

Runx-2, ihh, and BMP-6 are used to induce cartilage hypertrophy during what type of bone development?

A

Endochondral

146
Q

What Hox gene is responsible for the occipital/cervical boundary?

147
Q

What Hox gene is responsible for the cervical/thoracic boundary?

148
Q

What Hox gene is responsible for the attached/floating ribs boundary?

149
Q

What Hox gene is responsible for the thoracic lumbar boundary?

150
Q

What Hox gene is responsible for the sacral-coccygeal boundary?

151
Q

Retinoic acid can cause shifts cranially/caudally. If administered early, retinoic acid will cause a __________ shift

152
Q

Retinoic acid can cause shifts cranially/caudally. If administered late, retinoic acid will cause a __________ shift

153
Q

The cranial/caudal shifts caused by retinoic acid are called ___________ ____________

A

Homeotic transformations

154
Q

A single Hox gene knockout or mutation would lead to what?

A

Minor changes only, paralogues would compensate

155
Q

If you had a knockout of all Hox-10 genes, what would happen?

A

Ribs form on all sacral and lumbar vertebrae

This suggests that Hox-10 represses influence of anterior Hox genes where they shouldn’t be acting

156
Q

What would happen if all Hox-11 genes were knocked out?

A

Hox-10 would not be suppressed, there would be deformation of the sacrum

157
Q

What is the primordia of the atlas?

A

Somites 1 and 2

158
Q

What is the primordia of the axis?

A

Somites 2 and 3

159
Q

The odontoid process or dens of which cervical vertebrae extends is essentially the primordia of for the centrum of which vertebrae?

A

Atlas

[the dens is a process on the axis, which has taken over the primordia of the centrum of the atlas]

160
Q

The sternum is derived from what type of mesoderm?

A

Lateral plate mesoderm

161
Q

The clavicle arises from ________ _________ via the intramembranous path

A

Neural crest

162
Q

The ________ is one of the first bones to become ossified

163
Q

What bone originates as cartilaginous beads that later fuse and subdivide into craniocaudal elements?

164
Q

What are the two components of the cartilaginous portion of the viscerocranium?

A

Pharyngeal arch I (Meckel’s cartilage, malleus, incus)

Pharyngeal arch II (Reichert’s cartilage, stapes, styloid)

165
Q

What are the 4 general components of a pharyngeal arch?

A

Skeletal element
Muscles
Branch of specific cranial nerve
Artery

166
Q

In terms of the neurocranium vs. viscerocranium, which one surrounds the oral cavity and pharynx?

A

Viscerocranium

167
Q

In terms of the neurocranium vs. viscerocranium, which one surrounds the brain?

A

Neurocranium

168
Q

What is derived from the parachordal cartilages?

A

Basiooccipital portion of chondrocranium

169
Q

What part of the viscerocranium involves the temporal, zygomatic, maxillary, nasal, lacrimal, palatine, vomer, pterygoids, mandible, and tympanic ring?

A

Membranous portion

170
Q

The elongation of primary ossification centers is due to ________

171
Q

What term refers to the structure formed by the intersection of more than 2 bones?

A

Fontanelle

172
Q

Describe fontanelle formation

A

FGF inhibits Noggin inhibits BMP causes closure of sutures

173
Q

What type of myotubes are formed by fusion of the earliest embryonic myoblasts?

174
Q

What type of myotubes are smaller and are formed along the primary from later (fetal) myoblasts?

175
Q

___________ cells are mitotic and myogenic. They are located between the sarcolemma and basal lamina of a myofiber. They are able to fuse with the muscle fiber and provide for growth.

176
Q

Can satellite cells form new muscle fibers?

A

No, they can only fuse to existing muscle fibers and provide for growth

177
Q

What is the origin of epaxial trunk musculature?

A

Dorsal myotome

178
Q

What is the origin of trunk epaxial tendons?

A

Syndetome layer within somites

179
Q

what is the origin of trunk hypaxial musculature?

A

Ventral buds of myotome

180
Q

What is the origin of trunk hypaxial tendons?

A

Lateral plate mesoderm

181
Q

What is the origin of limb musculature?

A

Ventrolateral dermomyotome

182
Q

What is the origin of limb tendons?

A

Lateral plate mesoderm

183
Q

What is the origin of most head and neck musculature?

A

Paraxial somitomeres

184
Q

What is the origin of the extraocular muscles?

A

Prechordal plate

185
Q

What is the origin of the cranial musculature?

A

Unsegmented paraxial mesoderm

186
Q

What is the origin of the lower jaw musculature?

A

Splanchnic mesoderm

187
Q

What is the origin of cardiac muscle?

A

Splanchnic mesoderm

188
Q

Does early cardiac muscle express MyoD?

189
Q

Describe early cardiac musculature

A

Begins contraction early and maintains mitotic ability by partially disassembling contractile apparatus prior to cell division

190
Q

Early cardiac cells remain ___________ and are attached via ______________ ________

A

Mononucleated

Intercalated discs

Embryology Review (1 decks)

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