Exam II Flashcards

1
Q

Reversible atonal injury leads to cell body enlargement and ____________

A

central chromatolysis

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2
Q

Irreversible atonal injury leads to cell body enlargement and ____________

A

Pyknosis

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3
Q

The “red neurons” in an image indicate the presence of ______________

A

Irreversible atonal injury

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4
Q

Which cells are primarily responsible for gliosis within the central nervous system

A

Astrocytes

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5
Q

Which 3 morphological changes are associated with severe cerebral edema

A

Flattening of the gyri
Compression of the ventricles
Narrowing of the sulci

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6
Q

What is most likely to develop following severe neurodegeneration

A

Hydrocephalus ex vacuo

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7
Q

What is the most common type of cerebral herniation

A

Subalcine (cingulate)

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8
Q

What are the two mechanisms of cerebrovascular disease

A

Thrombotic occlusions of vessel

Vascular rupture

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9
Q

A flame shaped hemorrhage inside the pons, following severe transtentorial herniation is known as_________________

A

Duret hemorrhage

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10
Q

What leukocyte S are present at the site of cerebral infarction within the first 24 hours

A

Neutrophils

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11
Q

Focal cerebral ischemia is the result of arterial occlusion and is most likely commonly cause by

A

Embolism

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12
Q

What is the most common cause of non-traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Rupture of a saccular (berry) aneurysm

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13
Q

The leading cause of a primary parenchymal hemorrhage is

A

Hypertension

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14
Q

What is the most common vascular malformation of the brain

A

Ateriovenous malformation

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15
Q

Health care provider should prefer an MRI of the brain to identify the structural changes associated with the development of concussion
T/F

A

False

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16
Q

Epidural hematomas involve the disruption of _________, while Subdural hematomas involve the disruption of _________

A

Arteries, veins

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17
Q

Spina bifida occulta and myelomeningocele are associated with maternal folate deficiency and are considered to be

A

Neural tube defect

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18
Q

A fluid filled cavity located within the spinal cord is called

A

Syringgomyelia (syrinx)

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19
Q

What is the most common cause for a central nervous system infection

A

Hemotogenous spread

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20
Q

Which form of meningitis demonstrates extremely high neutrophil counts on CSF examination

A

Acute pyogenic meningitis

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21
Q

Which of the following microbes may case spirochetal infections in the CNS

A
Treponema pallidum (syphallis) 
Borrelia burgdorferi (lymes)
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22
Q

Relapsing and remitting episodes of neurological impairments are characteristically associated with

A

Multiple sclerosis

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23
Q

A 31 year old female patient reports a rapid onset of: pain near her right suboccipital region, unilateral visual impairment, and 2 episodes of urinary incontinence in the past 48 hours. What follow up will provide you with the most information regarding risk for multiple sclerosis

A

Asking about family history of MS

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24
Q

Gastric carcinoma and chronic alcoholism are commonly associated with __________ deficiency and mat cause confusion, ataxia, and profound memory disturbances

A

Thiamine

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25
Q

Large deposits of beta-amyloid are most likely to be present in the brains of individuals suffering from

A

Alzheimer’s disease

26
Q

Motor disturbances that are the result of mated dopaminergic neurons of the substantial nigra are most likely to be attributed to

A

Parkinson’s disease

27
Q

Intracellular Lewy body inclusions indicate the presence of

A

Parkinson’s disease

28
Q

What neurodegenerative condition develops following the inheritance of a CAG trinucleotide repeat expansion which causes severe cerebral atrophy

A

Huntington’s disease

29
Q

What causes upper and lower motor neuron death

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

30
Q

What is the most aggressive type of diffuse astrocytoma

A

Glioblastoma

31
Q

What tumors of the CNS is most likely to develop along the central canal of the spinal cord

A

Ependymoma

32
Q

What is most likely to develop along the dura and may invade into the overlying bone

A

Meningioma

33
Q

What causes the most clinically significant vascular disorder

A

Arterial lesions

34
Q

Atherosclerosis is most likely to occur in

A

Large muscular arteries

35
Q

The tunica media is separated from the tunica adventitia by the

A

External elastic lamina

36
Q

Which layer of the vessel wall contains endothelial cells

A

Tunica intima

37
Q

Peripheral vascular resistance is regulated in the

A

Arterioles

38
Q

Compared to arteries veins are less prone to dilated and penetration by tumors
T/F

A

False

39
Q

What congenital vascular anomaly can lead to renovascular hypertension and is most common within females

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

40
Q

The release of atrial natriuretic peptide promotes

A

Sodium excretion

41
Q

What percentage of the general population is hypertensive

A

25%

42
Q

Without appropriate treatment ______ of hypertensive individuals will die from stroke

A

33%

43
Q

What is the standard response following vascular injury

A

Intimal thickening (irreversible)

44
Q

What are the categories of arteriosclerosis

A

Arteriosclerosis
Mockenberg medial sclerosis
Atherosclerosis

45
Q

Following vascular injury, extracellular matrix and _______ accumulate within the tunica media

A

Smooth muscle cells

46
Q

Metabolic syndrome is characterized by the presence of

A

Insulin resistance
Dyslipidimia
Central obesity

47
Q

The 2 key features of atheroma development are intimal thickening and lipid accumulation
T/F

A

True

48
Q

Eventually everyone older than _____ years will demonstrate the presence of fatty streaks

A

15

49
Q

What are the components of atherosclerotic plaques

A

Smooth muscle cells

Macrophages

50
Q

What are the major clinical concequences of atherosclerosis

A

MI
Peripheral vascular disease
Aortic aneurysm

51
Q

What individuals are at the greatest risk to developing an AAA

A

White males over the age of 50

52
Q

When blood splays apart the laminar planes of the tunica media to form a blood filled channel within the aortic wall it is called a

A

Vascular dissection

53
Q

An abdominal aortic aneurysm measuring 5.7cm in diameter is at an______risk of rupture each year

A

11%

Over 6cm 25%

54
Q

The mortality rate for elective AAA surgery is _____ while the rate for emergency surgery is 50%

A

5%

55
Q

The 2nd most common pathogenic mechanism for vasculitis are immune mediated inflammation and ______ ______

A

Physical trauma

Irradiation

56
Q

Which type of aortic dissection is the most sever and the most common type

A

Type A

57
Q

The abrupt onset of ocular symptoms most likely to be associated with

A

Giant cell arthritis

58
Q

Fibrinoid necrosis is most likely to be associated with what 2 conditions

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

Kawasaki disease

59
Q

Buerger disease occurs almost exclusively in

A

Smokers

60
Q

Kaposi sarcoma is a lymphatic neoplasm associated with which microbial agent

A

Human herpesvirus

61
Q

The development of hepatic angiosarcomas is commonly associated with exposure to what

A
Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
(And arsenic)