Exam I Topics Flashcards

1
Q

What are the five fetal circulation adaptations?

A
  1. umbilical vein
  2. ductus venous
  3. foramen ovale
  4. ductus arteriosus
  5. umbilical artery
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2
Q

What causes medial winging of the scapula?

A

Injury of the long thoracic nerve (innervates serratus anterior).

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3
Q

What color does air appear as on x-ray?

A

black

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4
Q

What color does bone appear as on an x-ray?

A

white

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5
Q

What is the mnemonic for reading an x-ray?

A

Airway
Bones
Cardiac silhouette
Diaphragm
Extra-pulmonary
Fields (lungs)
Gastric bubble
Hilum

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6
Q

What is a way to determine if a patient has inspired adequately during an x-ray?

A

9-10 ribs are visisble

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7
Q

Signs of hypovolemic “burn” shock

A

increased capillary permeability
leakage of intravascular fluids
decreased perfusion
decreased blood pressure
decreased cardiac output
increased heart rate

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8
Q

Parkland Formula

A

FR = 4 mL x Kg x TBSA %
1/2 of fluids in first 8 hours
1/2 of fluids in last 16 hours

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9
Q

What ribs are true?

A

1-7

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10
Q

What ribs are false?

A

8-10 (one piece of cartilage connects them)

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11
Q

What ribs are floating?

A

11 and 12 (doesn’t attach to the sternum)

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12
Q

How many vertebrae are there?

A

33

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13
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A

7

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14
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

A

12

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15
Q

How many lumber vertebrae are there?

A

5

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16
Q

How many sacral vertebrae are there?

A

5

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17
Q

How many coccyx segments are there?

A

4

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18
Q

Why do the vertebrae become larger as you get closer to the sacrum?

A

bears more weight

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19
Q

Cervical Lordosis

A

2 degree curve

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20
Q

Thoracic Kyphosis

A

1 degree curve

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21
Q

Lumbar Lordosis

A

2 degree curve

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22
Q

Sacral Kyphosis

A

1 degree curve

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23
Q

What is scoliosis?

A

lateral curvature of the spine
most commonly affects girls 12 -15 years old

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24
Q

What is lordosis?

A

increase in lumbar curvature

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25
Q

What is kyphosis?

A

increase in thoracic curvature
commonly seen in osteoporosis

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26
Q

Where do the spinal nerves exit?

A

intervertebral foramina

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27
Q

C1

A

Atlas
No vertebral body

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28
Q

C2

A

Axis

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29
Q

What does the Atlanto-Occipital Joint allow for?
(C1 Lateral Masses and Occipital Condyle)

A

Neck Flexion and Extension (nodding)
Lateral Flexion (Sideways tilt)

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30
Q

What does the Atlanto-Axial Joint allow for?
(C1 and C2)

A

Side to Side movement (No)

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31
Q

What is the name of the pivot point on C2?

A

Dens

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32
Q

What is a Hangman’s fracture?

A

fracture of C2 (axis)
hyperextension
best seen on lateral view x-ray

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33
Q

What region of the back do most sources of pain come from?

A

Lumbar

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34
Q

Ligament that limits extension, is wide, and located on vertebral bodies?

A

Anterior Longitudinal Ligament

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35
Q

Ligament that limits flexion and is located within the vertebral canal?

A

Posterior Longitudinal Ligament

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36
Q

Medial ligament of the neck that substitutes as bone for muscle attachment from C3-C5 spinous process?

A

Nuchal Ligament

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37
Q

Ligament that is located between the lamina and arrest abrupt flexion to prevent injury to the intervertebral discs

A

Ligament Flavum

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38
Q

How long is the spinal cord?

A

45 cm

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39
Q

At what level does the spinal cord end?

A

L1-L2

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40
Q

What is the primary function of the cauda equina?

A

send and receive messages between the lower limbs and the pelvic organs.
bladder
rectum
internal genitals

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41
Q

Outermost layer of the meninges

A

Duramater

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42
Q

Where are spinal blocks given?

A

Between L3 and L4 or L4 and L5

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43
Q

Most inner layer of the meninges that is a vascular membrane that covers the spinal cord

A

Pia mater

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44
Q

Middle layer of the meninges

A

Arachnoid mater

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45
Q

Space that is filled with cerebrospinal fluid

A

Subarachnoid space

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46
Q

What is cerebrospinal fluid formed by?

A

Choroid plexuses of the brain

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47
Q

What holds the spinal cord in place?

A

Film terminale

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48
Q

Subarachnoid space between conus medullaris and the end of the dural sac

A

Lumbar cistern

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49
Q

Location of the brachial plexus

A

Cervical Enlargement

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50
Q

Location of the lumbar and sacral plexus

A

Lumbar Enlargement

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51
Q

End of the spinal cord

A

Conus Medullaris

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52
Q

How many spinal nerves are there?

A

31

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53
Q

SAME DAVE

A

Sensory - Afferent
Motor - Efferent
Dorsal - Afferent
Ventral - Efferent

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54
Q

What do the posterior and anterior roots unite to form?

A

Spinal Nerves

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55
Q

Where do the spinal nerves exit the spine?

A

intervertebral foramina

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56
Q

Where do cervical spinal nerves exit?

A

Above their corresponding vertebral body
C7 exits between C6 and C7

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57
Q

Where do thoracic and lumbar spinal nerves exit?

A

Below their corresponding vertebral body
L3 exits between L3 and L4

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58
Q

Nerve root injury and compression

A

Radiculopathy (Referred Pain)

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59
Q

Jelly-like material that consists of mainly water and allows the vertebral disc to withstand forces of compression and torsion

A

Nucleus pulposus

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60
Q

Ring of ligament fibers that connects the spinal vertebrae and is on the outside of the intervertebral disc

A

Annulus fibrosus

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61
Q

Where do most disk herniations occur?

A

L4 and L5
L5 and S1

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62
Q

Insertion of the Trapezius

A

Clavicle (lateral third)
Acromion Process
Spine of Scapula

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63
Q

Origin of the Trapezius

A

Nuchal Ligament
Spinous Process of C7-T12
Superior Nuchal Line
External Occipital Protuberance

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64
Q

What nerve innervates the Trapezius?

A

Spinal Accessory (CN XI)

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65
Q

What artery supplies blood to the Trapezius?

A

Transverse Cervical Artery

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66
Q

What nerve is affected with lateral winging of the scapula?

A

Dorsal Scapular Nerve

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67
Q

What muscle allows for extension of the neck?

A

Splenius

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68
Q

What muscle allows for extension and lateral flexion of the spine?

A

Erector Spinae

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69
Q

Branches of the Axillary Artery
(HOTEL SPA)

A

Highest Thoracic Artery
o
Thoracoacromial Artery
e
Lateral Thoracic Artery

Subscapular Artery
Posterior Humeral Circumflex Artery
Anterior Humeral Circumflex Artery

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70
Q

What layer of the skin are melanocytes found in?

A

Epidermis

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71
Q

What layer of the skin are keratinocytes found in?

A

Epidermis

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72
Q

What layer of the skin are papillary ridges found in? (Fingerprints)

A

Epidermis

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73
Q

What layer of the skin are hair follicles found in?

A

Dermis

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74
Q

What layer of skin are sweat glands found in?

A

Dermis

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75
Q

These sweat glands regulate heat and are found on the palms, forehead, and neck

A

Eccrine

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76
Q

These sweat glands start to appear after puberty and are found in the groins and arm pits

A

Apocrine

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77
Q

These sweat glands secrete sebum and promotes hair health

A

Sebaceous

78
Q

What layer of the skin contains capillaries?

A

Dermis

79
Q

What layer of the skin contains arrector pilli muscles?

A

Dermis

80
Q

Peach fuzz or light hairs

A

Vellus hair

81
Q

Dark hair

A

Terminal hair

82
Q

What layer of skin do the hair and nails belong to?

A

Dermis

83
Q

Respond to mechanical stimuli such as stroking, stretching, or vibration

A

Mechanoreceptors

84
Q

Respond to hot or cold temperatures

A

Thermoreceptors

85
Q

Respond to certain types of chemicals

A

Chemoreceptors

86
Q

Respond to pain or tissue damaging stimuli

A

Nociceptors

87
Q

Mechanoreceptors that respond to pressure and low-frequency vibrations

A

Meissner’s corpuscles

88
Q

Detect transient pressure and high-frequency vibrations

A

Pacinian corpuscles

89
Q

Respond to light pressure

A

Merkel’s disks

90
Q

Detect stretch

A

Ruffini corpuscles

91
Q

Specific segment of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve

A

Dermatome

92
Q

What dermatome innervates the nipple

A

T4

93
Q

What dermatome innervates the belly button

A

T10

94
Q

What dermatome innervates the genitalia

A

S2 and S3

95
Q

What dermatome innervates the knee

A

L4

96
Q

What is the deepest layer of skin called?

A

Hypodermis or Subcutaneous tissue

97
Q

What layer of skin is adipose tissue found in?

A

Hypodermis

98
Q

What layer of skin also contains blood vessels?

A

Hypodermis

99
Q

What layer of skin contains lymph vessels?

A

Hypodermis

100
Q

What type of tissue attaches the dermis to muscle and bone and regulates heat and provides protection from falls

A

Subcutaneous Tissue

101
Q

Forms the inter-muscular septa which divide the limbs into compartments

A

Deep Fascia

102
Q

White cords and fibrous tissue that are made of collagen and attach muscle to bones

A

Tendons

103
Q

Flat or ribbon shaped tendons

A

Aponeuroses

104
Q

Laminae found in all regions and are very tough

A

Fascia

105
Q

Below the skin and connects the skin with deep fascia

A

Superficial fascia

106
Q

Subcutaneous Injections Examples

A

Insulin
Heparin
Allergy injections

107
Q

Lines that are followed in an attempt to reduce scarring and promote healing

A

Tension Lines (Langer’s Lines)

108
Q

This layer of the skin contains healing elements such as blood supply and cellular elects that create the extracellular matrix necessary for healing

A

Dermis

109
Q

When is fluid resuscitation required

A

Greater than 20% TBSA of a second degree burn

110
Q

Burn that is limited to the epidermal layer. It appears pink and is painful with edema.

A

First Degree Burn

111
Q

How long does take for first degree burns to heal?

A

3 - 5 days
No scarring

112
Q

Burn that affects the epidermis and papillary region of the dermis. Blisters and serous fluid. Cherry red and moist appearance. PAINFUL.

A

Superficial Second Degree Burn

113
Q

How long does it take a Superficial Second Degree Burn to heal?

A

7 - 28 days
Minimal scarring

114
Q

Burn that affects the epidermis and reticular region of the dermis. Pale or ivory with a moist appearance. PAINFUL.

A

Deep Second Degree Burn

115
Q

How long does it take a Deep Second Degree Burn to heal?

A

7 - 28 days
Variable Scarring

116
Q

Burn that extends into subcutaneous tissue. Appears white, yellow, or brown and leathery. Thromboses vessels, loss of elasticity. Possible escharotomy. PAINLESS. Requires grafting.

A

Third Degree Burn (Full Thickness)

117
Q

Burn that extends to muscle. Black charred appearance. May require amputation. NO PAIN. NO FUNCTION

A

Fourth Degree Burn

118
Q

Rule of 9s

A
119
Q

At what level is the Jugular (sternal) Notch found?

A

T2-T3

120
Q

Level of Sternal Angle

A

2nd Intercostal Space
T4-T5

121
Q

Level of Xyphoid Process

A

T8-T9

122
Q

Location of Apical Pulse (Point of Maximal Impulse)

A

5th Intercostal Space (Left Side)

123
Q

Where is the most common site of breast cancer

A

Upper lateral quadrant (tail of the breast)

124
Q

Where is breast cancer most likely to metastasize to?

A

Axillary Lymph Nodes

125
Q

What is the most common site of fracture on a rib?

A

Costal Angle

126
Q

What is located in the costal groove of a rib?

A

Veins
Arteries
Nerves

127
Q

Vena Caval Foramen

A

Inferior Vena Cava
Right Phrenic Nerve
T8

128
Q

Esophageal Hiatus

A

Esophagus
Esophageal Arteries
Vagus
T10

129
Q

Aortic Hiatus

A

Aorta
Azygous Vein
Thoracic Duct
T12

130
Q

What nerve innervates the serratus anterior (boxer muscle)

A

long thoracic nerve

131
Q

What artery supplies the serratus anterior

A

circumflex scapular artery

132
Q

Portion of the mediastinum that contains:
- Descending Aorta
- Azygous & Hemizygous Veins
- Esophagus
- Thoracic Duct

A

Posterior Mediastinum

133
Q

Portion of the mediastinum that contains:
- Thymus
- Lymph Nodes

A

Anterior Mediastinum

134
Q

Portion of the mediastinum that contains:
- Heart
- Pericardium
- Ascending Aorta
- Bronchi
- Trachea
- Vena Cava
- Pulmonary Veins
- Phrenic Nerves

A

Middle Mediastinum

135
Q

Relationship of Mediastinum anatomy from Superficial to Deep

A
  • Thymus
  • Veins
  • Arteries
  • Nerves
  • Trachea
  • Esophagus
  • Thoracic Duct
136
Q

Invasive method used for staging cancer of the of superior and middle mediastinum

A

Mediastinoscopy

137
Q

Where does the left recurrent nerve lay?

A

1cm lateral to the trachea

138
Q

Pleura closest to the organ

A

Visceral Pleura

139
Q

Pleura that lines the cavity.
Sensitive to pain, temperature, and touch.
Adheres to Mediastinum

A

Parietal Pleura

140
Q

How many lobes does the right lung have?

A

3

141
Q

How many lobes does the left lung have

A

2

142
Q

Tongue-like process off left upper lobe

A

Lingula

143
Q

Sympathetic innervation that dilates bronchioles and vessels

A

Cardiac Plexus

144
Q

Parasympathetic innervation that constricts bronchioles

A

Vagus Nerve

145
Q

Exits to carry presynaptic fibers to the neck, head, and down to the lower abdomen and pelvis

A

Fight or Flight
Thoracic and Lumbar

146
Q

Post-Synaptic and carry information TO the spinal nerve

A

Gray Communicans

147
Q

Pre-Synaptic and carry information FROM the Anterior Rami to the sympathetic trunk

A

White Communicans

148
Q

Where does the parasympathetic nervous system exit?

A

Cranial nuclei and Sacral

149
Q

Primary nerve of the parasympathetic nervous system

A

Vagus nerve (CN X)

150
Q

How many pulmonary arteries are there?

A

2

151
Q

How many pulmonary veins are there?

A

4

152
Q

Region where pulmonary blood vessels enter and leave

A

Hilum

153
Q

What are the primary bronchi

A

Right and Left

154
Q

Where does the right bronchial vein drain into?

A

azygous vein

155
Q

Where does the left bronchial vein drain into?

A

hemiazygous vein

156
Q

Vein on the right side of the body that transports deoxygenated blood from the posterior thorax and abdomen into the superior vena cava

A

Azygous vein

157
Q

Vein on the left side of the body that comes from the left renal vein

A

Hemiazygous

158
Q

Vein that drains the left superior hemithorax and into the azygous vein

A

Accessory hemiazygous

159
Q

Where does the hemizygous vein enter the thorax?

A

Aortic hiatus or diaphragmatic crura
T12

160
Q

Created when a laterally displaced azygous vein creates a deep pleural fissure into the apical segment of the right upper lung

A

azygous lobe

161
Q

Alveoli that allow for gas exchange. They are made of thin squamous cells and make up 95% of all alveoli

A

Type I Pnuemocyte

162
Q

Alveoli that make pulmonary surfactant (5% of alveolar cells)

A

Type II Pneumocyte

163
Q

Emergency medical condition where fluid builds up in the pericardial sac

A

Cardiac Tamponade

164
Q

Beck’s Triad

A
  • Hypotension
  • Jugular Venous Distention
  • Muffled Heart Sounds
    (Cardiac Tamponade)
165
Q

Needle aspiration performed under ultrasound guidance to treat cardiac tamponade. Performed along the left sternal border in the 5th intercostal space

A

Pericardiocentiusis

166
Q

Where do most clots develop at in the heart?

A
  • Left Atrium
  • LAD
167
Q

Oxygen rich blood travels from the placenta to either the liver or to the inferior vena cava

A

Umbilical Vein

168
Q

Direct connection between the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava

A

Ductus Venosus

169
Q

Direct connection between the left atrium and right atrium due to hypoxic pulmonary constriction.

A

Patent Foramen Ovale

170
Q

Direct connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta.

A

Ductus Arteriosus

171
Q

Once blood leaves via the aorta, the majority is diverted back to the placenta. This happens because the resistance in the placenta is so low

A

Umbilical Artery

172
Q

When a valve does not open fully due to calcium causing narrowing

A

Stenosis

173
Q

When a valve does not close properly

A

Regurgitation

174
Q

Superficial vibrations from the eddies (turbulent flow) is felt superficially on the thorax

A

Thrill

175
Q

Most common of cardiac defects that can lead to possible cardiac failure. (25% are congenital)

A

Ventricular Septal Defect

176
Q

Incomplete closure of the oval foramen

A

Atrial Septal Defect

177
Q

What is the largest part of the anterior heart?

A

Right ventricle

178
Q

Artery that rides in the AV Groove

A

Left Circumflex Artery

179
Q

What percentage of a coronary artery must be narrowed for heart surgery?

A

70%

180
Q

Treatments for Myocardial Infarction

A
  • Beta Blockers
  • Aspirin
  • Statin
  • CABG
  • Percutaneous Intervention (ballooning or stents)
181
Q

Ventricular Filling

A

Diastole

182
Q

Ventricular Shortening

A

Systole

183
Q

Obstruction of blood flow through this major vein is considered a medical emergency. It is often seen in patients with lung cancer

A

Superior Vena Cava

184
Q

Bifurcation of the trachea

A

Carina

185
Q

What nerve gives rise to the recurrent laryngeal nerves?

A

Vagus Nerve (CN X)

186
Q

What nerve innervates the diaphragm?

A

Phrenic nerve

187
Q

What does the right phrenic nerve pass through at T8

A

Caval Foramen

188
Q

Drains the right arm and shoulder, as well as the right side of the head (Lymph)

A

Right Lymphatic Duct

189
Q

Drains the entire left side of the body and from the middle of the abdomen down on the right side (Lymph)

A

Thoracic Duct

190
Q

Pathologies that cause tracheal deviation AWAY from affected side

A
  • Pneumothorax
  • Pleural Effusion
191
Q

Pathologies that cause tracheal deviation TOWARDS affected side

A
  • Lobectomy
  • Pleural Fibrosis