Exam I Material

Question 1

One primary goal of experimentation in science is to
a. Observe a system
b. Prove the validity of a theory
c. Disprove or fail to disprove a hypothesis
d. Demonstrate determinesm

Answer 1

c. Disprove or fail to disprove a hypothesis

Question 2

One primary reason for applying statistical hypothesis testing is
a. To remove the human element and bias
b. To measure the mean of a sample
c. To quantify the magnitude of difference between two experimental groups
d. To quantify outliers

Answer 2

c. To quantify the magnitude of difference between two experimental groups

Question 3

One primary use of statistical hypothesis testing is
a. To draw confident conclusions about samples
b. To draw confident conclusions about individuals
c. To draw confident conclusions about populations

Answer 3

c. To draw confident conclusions about populations

Question 4

Which of the following best describes Popper’s concept of falsifiability?
a. The ability of a theory to be proven true
b. The capacity of a theory to be proven wrong
c. The widespread acceptance of a theory
d. The ability of a theory to make accurate predictions

Answer 4

d. The ability of a theory to make accurate predictions

Question 5

Why did Popper criticize the Marxist theory of history?
a. He believed it was too accurate
b. He felt it could be adapted to fit any historical data
c. He believed it was not based on empirical evidence
d. He felt that it was not revolutionary enough

Answer 5

c. He believed it was not based on empirical evidence

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT in line with Popper’s view on scientific theories?
a. All scientific theories are ultimately provisional
b. A theory is scientific if it has been proven true
c. The more a theory forbids the better
d. A theory should be able to withstand attempts at falsification

Answer 6

b. A theory is scientific if it has been proven true

Question 7

A histogram displays
a. A comparison of sample means with sample variance
b. A comparison of sample medians
c. A mathematical representation of the hypothetical population distribution
d. All of the measured values and their respective frequencies

Answer 7

d. All of the measured values and their respective frequencies

Question 8

What is one advantage to a higher field strength ( Bo) for imaging with MRI
a. Smaller image size
b. Longer scan lengths
c. Higher resolution/signal-to-noise
d. Lower resolution/signal-to-noise

Answer 8

c. Higher resolution/signal-to-noise

Question 9

A function of B0 in MR imaging is
a. To align protons with the field lines
b. To vary proton spin speeds for localization
c. To generate signal in the x-y plane
d. To receive and decode the echo

Answer 9

c. To generate signal in the x-y plane

Question 10

In a T1 weighted MR image, white matter appears
a. Brightest
b. Darkest
c. Gray or medium brightness
d. Not present

Answer 10

a. Brightest

Question 11

A function of RF transmission in MR imaging is
a. To align protons with the field lines
b. To vary proton spin speeds for localization
c. To generate signal in the x-y plane
d. To receive and decode the echo

Answer 11

d. To receive and decode the echo

Question 12

What technique is used to deconvolute (separate the component frequencies) the RF signal received as an echo from the excitation pulse?
a. Analysis of Variance
b. Fourier Transform
c. Pascal Transform
d. Analysis of Frequency

Answer 12

b. Fourier Transform

Question 13

Positron Emission Tomography is similar to MRI except that
a. It can generate functional images of the brain
b. It can localize brain activity to a relatively precise point in the brain
c. It makes use of radioactive decay to generate the image
d. It can localize sites of increased glucose metabolism

Answer 13

c. It makes use of radioactive decay to generate the image

Question 14

Surface optical imaging measures
a. Color changes that result as blood oxygenation changes
b. Cell population discharge frequency
c. Cell population discharge intensity
d. Photons emitted as a result of ionizing electrical activity in the brain

Answer 14

a. Color changes that result as blood oxygenation changes

Question 15

In the Bares test, the reward for successful completion of the task is
a. Escape from water
b. Escape from bright light/open space
c. Food
d. Cocaine

Answer 15

b. Escape from bright light/open space

Question 16

The alpha value is
a. The threshold for significance
b. the magnitude of group differences
c. the probability of getting a specific sample mean
d. the largest value in a sample

Answer 16

a. The threshold for significance

Question 17

A standard assay for motor coordination and balance is
a. The running wheel
b. Homecage activity observation
c. Visual cliff
d. Rotorod

Answer 17

d. Rotorod

Question 18

The elevated plus maze is a standard test of
a. Anxiety behaviors
b. Learned helplessness
c. Depression
d. All of the above

Answer 18

a. Anxiety behaviors

Question 19

Why is it important to acclimate animals to handling prior to conducting experiments with them?
a. To ensure the animals are physically fit for the experiment.
b. To reduce stress and potential behavior alterations in the animals during the experiment.
c. To train the animals to perform specific tasks during the experiment.
d. To reduce the time needed to complete the experiment.
e. To ensure that the animals will be more responsive to food rewards

Answer 19

b. To reduce stress and potential behavior alterations in the animals during the experiment.

Question 20

Why are hamsters not a great fit for the elevated plus maze?
a. They are too stupid to know that closed arms are safe.
b. They are too ugly to have to look at for so long during the recording of experiments.
c. They smell bad
d. They are ethologically unsuited for the task as they are not afraid of heights or open space

Answer 20

d. They are ethologically unsuited for the task as they are not afraid of heights or open space

Question 21

One primary goal of experimentation in science is to
a. Observe a system
b. Prove the validity of a theory
c. Disprove or fail to disprove a hypothesis
d. Demonstrate determinism

Answer 21

c. Disprove or fail to disprove a hypothesis

Question 22

One primary reason for applying statistical hypothesis testing is
a. To remove the human element and bias
b. To measure the mean of a sample
c. To quantify the magnitude of difference between two experimental groups
d. To quantify outliers

Answer 22

c. To quantify the magnitude of difference between two experimental groups

Question 23

One primary use of statistical hypothesis testing is
a. To draw confident conclusions about samples
b. To draw confident conclusions about individuals
c. To draw confident conclusions about populations

Answer 23

c. To draw confident conclusions about populations

Question 24

Which of the following best describes Popper’s concept of falsifiability
a. The ability of a theory to be proven true
b. The capacity of a theory to be proven wrong
c. The widespread acceptance of a theory
d. The ability of a theory to make accurate predictions

Answer 24

b. The capacity of a theory to be proven wrong

Question 25

Why did Popper criticize the Marxist theory of history?
a. He believed it was too accurate
b. He felt it could be adapted to fit any historical data
c. He believed it was not based on empirical evidence
d. He felt that is was not revolutionary enough

Answer 25

He believed it was not based on empirical evidence

Question 26

Which of the following is NOT in line with Popper’s view on scientific theories?
a. All scientific theories are ultimately provisional
b. A theory is scientific if it has been proven true
c. The more a theory forbids the better
d. A theory should be able to withstand attempts at falsification

Answer 26

b. A theory is scientific if it has been proven true

Question 27

A histogram displays
a. A comparison of sample means with sample variance
b. A comparison of sample medians
c. A mathematical representation of the hypothetical population distribution
d. All of the measured values and their respective frequencies

Answer 27

d. All of the measured values and their respective frequencies

Question 28

What is one advantage to a higher field strength (Bo) for imaging with MRI
a. Smaller image size
b. Longer scan lengths
c. Higher resolution/signal-to-noise
d. Lower resolution/signal-to-noise

Answer 28

c. Higher resolution/signal-to-noise

Question 29

function of Bo in MR imaging is
a. To align protons with the field lines
b. To vary proton spin speeds for localization
c. To generate signal in the x-y plane
d. To receive and decode the echo

Answer 29

c. To generate signal in the x-y plane

Question 30

In a T1 weighted MR image, white matter appears
a. Brightest
b. Darkest
c. Gray or medium brightness
d. Not present

Answer 30

a. Brightest

Question 31

A function of RF transmission in MR imaging is
a. To align protons with field lines
b. To vary proton spin speeds for localization
c. To generate signal in the x-y plane
d. To receive and decode the echo

Answer 31

d. To receive and decode the echo

Question 32

BOLD signal intensity in fMRI is mostly directly related to
a. Neutron spin
b. Oxyhemoglobin
c. ATP
d. Proton change

Answer 32

b. Oxyhemoglobin

Question 33

What technique is used to deconvolute( separate the component frequencies) the RF signal received as an echo from the excitation
a. Analysis of variance
b. Fourier transform
c. Pascal transform
d. Analysis of frequency

Answer 33

b. Fourier transform

Question 34

Positron emission tomography is similar to MRI except that
a. It can generate functional images of the brain
b. It can localize brain activity to a relatively precise point in the brain
c. It makes use of radioactive decay to generate the image
d. It can localize sites of increased glucose metabolism

Answer 34

c. It makes use of radioactive decay to generate the image

Question 35

Surface optical imaging measures
a. Color changes that result as blood oxygenation changes
b. Cell population discharge frequency
c. Cell population discharge intensity
d. Photons emitted as a result of ionizing electrical activity in the brain

Answer 35

a. Color changes that result as blood oxygenation changes

Question 36

In the Barnes test, the reward for successful completion of the task is
a. Escape from water
b. Escape from bright light. Open space
c. Food
d. Cocaine

Answer 36

b. Escape from bright light. Open space

Question 37

The alpha value is
a. The threshold for significance
b. The magnitude of group differences
c. The probability of getting
d. The largest value in a sample

Answer 37

a. The threshold for significance

Question 38

A standard assay for motor coordination and balance is
a. The running wheel
b. Homecage activity observation
c. Visual cliff
d. Rotorod

Answer 38

d. Rotorod

Question 39

The elevated plus maze is a standard test of
a. Anxiety behaviors
b. Learned helplessness
c. Depression
d. All of the above

Answer 39

a. Anxiety behaviors

Question 40

The motivation to ________ and ___________ are pitted against each other in the elevated plus maze
a. Reproduce and seek excitement
b. Explore and seek safety
c. Explore and defend resources
d. Explore and conquer

Answer 40

b. Explore and seek safety

Question 41

What is the wobble that a proton exhibits as it rotates in an external magnetic field called?

Answer 41

Precession

Question 42

What happens to the precession when the proton is exposed to a pulse of RF energy that it can absorb?

Answer 42

• It processes in the xy plane

Question 43

What is the frequency of RF electromagnetic radiation called when it is the right frequency for the proton to absorb the energy?

Answer 43

Resonate frequency

Question 44

A model or assay has construct validity if

Answer 44

Construct validity: animal model has the same underlying mechanism for a behavior or disease state

Question 45

A model or assay has predictive validity if

Answer 45

Predictive validity: if treatments developed on a model have the same effects on humans or vice versa

Question 46

Identify one assumption that must be made in science

Answer 46

• Nature is lawful
• Nature is deterministic
• Nature is understandable

Question 47

Describe conditioned place preference; what does it test, and how?

Answer 47

Conditioned place preference (CPP) is a form of Pavlovian conditioning used to measure the motivational effects of objects or experiences.

Question 48

Describe novel object recognition; What does it test and how?

Answer 48

The novel object recognition test (NORT) for rodents has been widely used to investigate the neural mechanisms that underlie spatial (e.g., what) and nonspatial memory (e.g., where) as well as temporal order memory (e.g., when).

Question 49

Describe the triphasic response of the BOLD signal in fMRI and biological processes underlying to the signal and linking it to activity in the brain.

Answer 49

1. Initial drop in signal due to loss of oxygenated hemoglobin
2. Increase in signal due to oversupply of oxygenated blood due to microvasculature compensation
3. Decline in signal resulting from consumption

Question 50

In the context of statistical hypothesis testing, what does a low value for “p” tell us? Use the T-test as an example and be specific.

Answer 50

The p-value only tells you how likely the data you have observed is to have occurred under the null hypothesis. If the p-value is below your threshold of significance (typically p < 0.05), then you can reject the null hypothesis, but this does not necessarily mean that your alternative hypothesis is true

Question 51

Briefly describe when one would use the T-test when we would use the ANOVA and why

Answer 51

t-test is used to compare two experiment factors and an ANOVA is used to compate multiple experimental factors

Question 52

Grutzendler et al, 2002 (Long term Dendritic spine stability…), describe the different structures they observed and how they observed them to change. The authors also describe the addition and subtraction of spines in the adult cortex. Describe the pattern of spine addition and subtraction, and explain what it might suggest about memory formation.

Answer 52

• In Grutzendler et al. (2002), the authors observed dendritic spines in the adult mouse cortex using two-photon microscopy, allowing them to track individual spines over weeks to months. They found that a significant majority of spines, especially the larger ones, were highly stable over time, with some persisting for over a year. However, they also documented the addition and subtraction of smaller spines, suggesting a dynamic process of synaptic remodeling. Spine addition and subtraction occurred at a relatively low rate, but both processes were continuously present.
• The pattern of spine addition and subtraction, particularly involving smaller, more transient spines, suggests that synaptic plasticity in the adult brain is an ongoing process, though slower compared to early development. This dynamic turnover of spines could reflect the brain’s ability to adapt and incorporate new information, aligning with processes of memory formation and learning. Stable spines likely represent long-term memory storage, while the formation and elimination of new spines may correspond to the encoding of new memories or the refinement of neural circuits during learning tasks. This balance between stability and plasticity ensures that memory is maintained while also allowing the brain to adapt to new experiences.

Question 53

Describe how Morris, 1981, tested animals to rule out the S-R strategy for platform location

Answer 53

• In Morris (1981), the experiment tested rats’ spatial learning in the water maze to determine if they used a stimulus-response (S-R) strategy to find a hidden platform. The S-R strategy suggests that animals rely on direct cues or patterns (like a specific movement or location) to solve a task.
• To rule this out, Morris used a hidden platform submerged below the water’s surface, eliminating direct visual or tactile cues as guides. Rats had to navigate using distant, spatial cues (e.g., the shape of the room or objects outside the maze) rather than simply associating the platform’s location with a specific movement or stimulus within the pool.
• The key control experiment involved relocating the platform to different positions. If rats were relying on an S-R strategy, they would have swum to the original location where the platform had been. However, the rats quickly adapted to the new platform position, indicating they were using spatial memory and external cues to navigate, not a fixed response to a specific location. This demonstrated that their strategy was based on spatial mapping rather than an S-R response.

Question 54

Regarding the paper by Kanwisher et.al., how did the authors determine that they were working with a module, how did they determine the function of this module?

Answer 54

• Kanwisher et al. (1997) determined that they were working with a brain module by identifying a region in the fusiform gyrus, the Fusiform Face Area (FFA), that consistently showed strong, selective activation in response to faces compared to other stimuli like objects, houses, or hands. They localized this area using fMRI, showing it was reliably located across different participants.
• To determine the function of the FFA, they tested its response to various stimuli. The FFA was significantly more responsive to whole faces than scrambled faces or individual facial features, indicating it processed entire face configurations. Further, the FFA’s response was much stronger to faces than to objects of expertise (like cars), suggesting it was specialized for face recognition, not just visual expertise. Thus, the FFA was identified as a specialized brain module for face perception.