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Neuromuscular I > Exam I > Flashcards

Exam I Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 4 P’s?

A

(1) participation
(2) prediction
(3) prevention
(4) plasticity

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2
Q

what is participation?

A

functioning of a person in all areas of life

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3
Q

what is prediction?

A

prediction of optimal response to intervention choice

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4
Q

what is plasticity?

A

capacity of cerebral neurons and neural circuits to change

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5
Q

what is prevention? what are the 3 different types?

A

actions to prevent the onset of disease or disability

(1) Primary: prevention before it happens
(2) Secondary: prevention screening (detect and treat pre-clinical symptoms)
(3) Tertiary: improve movement and quality of life

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6
Q

what type of prevention is the main focus of PT practice?

A

tertiary

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7
Q

what is the Schenkman article about?

A

an integrated framework for decision making in neurologic physical therapy practice

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8
Q

what is the Potter article about? what are the 5 components?

A

Outcome Measures in Neurological PT

(1) Referral
(2) Initial observations
(3) History
(4) Systems Review
(5) Final selection

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9
Q

what is paralysis?

A

complete absence of muscle strength (inability to voluntarily recruit motor units)

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10
Q

what is paralysis synonymous with?

A

plegia

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11
Q

what is plegia?

A

complete absence of muscle strength (inability to voluntarily recruit motor units)

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12
Q

what is paresis?

A

muscle weakness

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13
Q

what is hemiplegia?

A

one sided paralysis

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14
Q

what is hemiparesis?

A

one sided weakness

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15
Q

what is paraplegia?

A

LE paralysis

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16
Q

what is tetraplegia?

A

UE & LE paralysis (AKA quadriplegia)

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17
Q

if there is a lesion in the left side of the brain, which side of the body is likely to have paresis?

A

right side

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18
Q

what are synergistic patterns associated with?

A

CVA

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19
Q

what is hypotonia?

A

low tone; decreased resistance to passive movement

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20
Q

what is hypotonia typically associated with? (2)

A

lower motor neuron lesions; also first 24-48 hours of UMN due to cerebral shock

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21
Q

what is flaccidity?

A

complete lack of resistance to passive movement

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22
Q

what is hypertonia?

A

elevated muscle tone; increased resistance to passive movement

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23
Q

what is spasticity?

A

form of hypertonia; the faster you passively elongate the muscle, the more resistance the muscle will provide

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24
Q

what condition is spasticity associated with?

A

CVA (stroke)

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25
Q

what is rigidity?

A

form of hypertonia; not velocity dependent; can affect agonist and antagonist muscles

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26
Q

what condition is rigidity associated with? (2)

A

Parkinson’s Disease / Huntington’s

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27
Q

what is dystonia? what is it associated with?

A

(1) excessive twisting and bizarre repetitive movements caused by axial and proximal limb musculature
(2) basal ganglia lesions (Parkinson’s disease)

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28
Q

what is chorea? what is it associated with?

A

(1) rapid and jerky limb movements

2) basal ganglia lesions (Huntington’s Chorea

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29
Q

what is athetosis? what is it associated with?

A

(1) slow, twisting, snake like movements

(2) CP

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30
Q

what are tremors? what is it associated with?

A

(1) rhythmical, oscillating and alternating movement of a body part
(2) Parkinson’s Disease

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31
Q

why is fatigue present with patients who present with involuntary movements?

A

because their muscles work harder attempting to correct involuntary movements

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32
Q

what is agnosia? damage to what side of the brain usually cause this disorder?

A

(1) can’t recognize an object using vision but if given an object will know what to do with
(2) right sided brain injury

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33
Q

what is unilateral neglect? damage to what side of the brain usually cause this disorder?

A

(1) inability to perceive and integrate stimuli on one side of the body
(2) right sided brain injury

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34
Q

what is apraxia? damage to what side of the brain usually cause this disorder?

A

(1) inability to execute movements despite normal sensation and strength
(2) left sided brain damage

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35
Q

what is Broca’s aphasia?

A

also known as expressive aphasia; intact auditory comprehension, but have trouble expressing what they want to say

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36
Q

what is Wernicke’s aphasia?

A

receptive aphasia; have difficulty understanding what is being asked and don’t understand what they’re saying is inaccurate or awkward

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37
Q

what is global aphasia?

A

a combination of expressive and receptive aphasia

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38
Q

where is Broca’s area?

A

frontal lobe of left (dominant) hemisphere

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39
Q

where is Wernicke’s area?

A

temporal lobe of left (dominant) hemisphere

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40
Q

what is dysarthria?

A

slurred speech

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41
Q

what is dysphagia?

A

impaired swallowing

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42
Q

what is abarognosis?

A

inability to determine the weight between objects

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43
Q

what is astereognosis?

A

inability to recognize objects using active touch of the hands

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44
Q

what is agraphesthesia?

A

inability to recognize a written number or letter traced on the skin

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45
Q

what is diplopia?

A

double vision

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46
Q

what is strabismus?

A

eyes have an altered visual axis (eyes aren’t parallel; one eye looking in different direction)

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47
Q

what is nystagmus?

A

rapid, rhythmic, repetitive involuntary eye movements

48
Q

what is homonymous hemianopsia?

A

partial blindness

49
Q

what is occipital blindness?

A

legally blind

50
Q

what is aphasia?

A

loss of ability to understand or express speech

51
Q

cranial nerves are related to what type of lesions? which side of the body will the lesion affect?

A

(1) LMN (peripheral neurons)

(2) affects ipsilateral side

52
Q

what side of the body do UMN lesions typically affect?

A

contralateral side

53
Q

what side of the body do LMN lesions typically affect?

A

ipsilateral side

54
Q

what is the difference between minimal detectable change (MDC) & minimally clinically important difference (MCID)?

A

(1) MDC: statistically significant difference

(2) MCID: clinically meaningful difference to the patient

55
Q

what is the difference between a direct and indirect impairment?

A

(1) direct impairments are a direct result of the injury / dysfunction
(2) indirect impairments are as a result of direct impairments
(ex. tremors (direct) cause difficulty ambulating (indirect)

56
Q

what is the difference between a resting tremor and an intention (action) tremor?

A

resting tremors occur at rest and intention tremors occur with the initiation of movement

57
Q

what does the Spinothalamic System regulate? (3)

A

protective sensation

(1) pain
(2) temperature
(3) crude touch and pressure

58
Q

what does the Dorsal Column-Medial Lemniscal System regulate? (4)

A

Discriminative sensations (Dorsal = Discriminative)

(1) vibration
(2) proprioception
(3) discriminative touch
(4) combined cortical sensations

59
Q

what are some examples of combined cortical sensations?

A

(1) Barognosis (weights)
(2) Sterognosis (object recognition)
(3) Graphesthesia (letter/number)
(4) Tactile Location
(5) Texture recognition
(6) 2-point discrimination

60
Q

what are characteristics of lethargy in regards to consciousness?

A

level of arousal is diminished; drowsy but able to answer questions

61
Q

what are characteristics of obtunded in regards to consciousness?

A

diminished arousal and awareness; difficult to arouse and when aroused the person is confused

62
Q

what are characteristics of stupor in regards to consciousness?

A

altered mental status and responsiveness to one’s environment; can only be aroused with vigorous stimuli

63
Q

what are characteristics of coma in regards to consciousness?

A

unconscious patient, can not be aroused, eyes remain closed, no sleep wake cycles

64
Q

what is reactive postural control?

A

occurs in response to an external force or perturbation (feedback mechanism)

65
Q

what is anticipatory postural control?

A

occurs in anticipation of a destabilization force (feed forward mechanism)

66
Q

what type of stroke is a type 1 stroke?

A

ischemic stroke

67
Q

what type of stroke is a type 2 stroke?

A

hemorrhagic stroke

68
Q

what is the pathophysiology of a stroke? (4)

A

(1) ischemia causes release of glutamate
(2) glutamate causes influx of Ca+ into the cell
(3) this influx causes activation of destructive Ca+ enzymes
(4) this causes neuronal cell death

69
Q

what are the warning signs of stroke?

A

Acronym FAST

Face
Arm
Speech
Time

70
Q

what are the symptoms associated with an anterior cerebral artery (ACA) stroke? (3)
where in the body does an ACA primarily affect?

A

(1) Contralateral hemiparesis or hemiplegia
(2) Contralateral sensation loss
(3) Mental confusion
(4) usually LOWER extremity

71
Q

what are the symptoms associated with a middle cerebral artery (MCA) stroke? (7)
where in the body does an ACA primarily affect?

A

1) Contralateral hemiparesis or hemiplegia
(2) Contralateral sensation loss
(3) Homonymous hemianopsia (loss of vision on right or left side)
(4) Neglect (if non-dominant hemisphere)
(5) Apraxia (dominant hemisphere)
(6) Aphasia (dominant hemisphere)
(7) Coma
(8) usually UPPER extremity

72
Q

what are the symptoms associated with a posterior cerebral artery (PCA) stroke? (4)

A

(1) Visual changes
(2) Homonymous hemianopsia (loss of vision on right or left side)
(3) Transient contralateral hemiparesis or hemiplegia
(4) Transient contralateral sensory loss

73
Q

what are the symptoms associated with a vetebrobasilar artery (VBA) stroke? (6)

A

(1) Ipsilatersal ataxia and coordination
(2) Coma
(3) Diplopia
(4) Tetraplegia
(5) Locked-in syndrome
(6) Death

74
Q

how does an ischemic stroke present on a CT?

A

shows up dark

75
Q

how does a hemorrhagic stroke present on a CT?

A

shows up bright

76
Q

what is tPA and when should it be used?

A

(1) tissue plasminogen activator

(2) it’s used to break up clots and should be administered if pt. has an ischemic stroke NOT a hemorrhagic stroke

77
Q

what is the ideal time frame to get a patient treatment for a stroke?

A

within 3 hours of onset of symptoms

78
Q

how does a right sided CVA present?

A

(1) Left sided hemiplegia / paresis
(2) Unilateral neglect
(3) Agnosia
(4) Poor judgement
(5) Unaware of deficits
(6) Uncontrollable emotion
(7) safety concerns because they think they’re better off than they really are

79
Q

how does a left sided CVA present?

A

(1) Right sided hemiplegia / paresis
(2) Aphasia
(3) Apraxia
(4) Slow and cautious
(5) Aware of deficits
(6) More likely to have clinical depression
(7) Need a lot of extrinsic motivation

80
Q

at what level does a lesion occur to cause decorticate rigidity?

A

diencephalon corticospinal tract lesion

81
Q

at what level does a lesion occur to cause decerebrate rigidity?

A

brainstem (between the superior colliculus and vestibular nucleus) corticospinal tract lesion

82
Q

how does decerebrate rigidity present clinically?

A

(1) extension of limbs and trunk
(2) elbows are extended, forearm pronated, shoulders adducted
(3) wrist and fingers flexed
(4) plantarflexion

83
Q

how does decorticate rigidity present clinically?

A

(1) upper limbs are flexed
(2) lower limbs are extended
(3) elbows, wrists, and fingers are flexed
(4) shoulders adducted
(5) legs are IR and plantarflexed

84
Q

what is the UE flexion synergy pattern?

A

(1) Scapular retraction
(2) Shoulder ABD and ER, flexion
(3) Elbow Flexion
(4) Forearm supination
(5) Wrist and finger flexion

85
Q

what is the UE extension synergy pattern?

A

(1) Scapular protraction
(2) Shoulder ADD and IR, extension
(3) Elbow extension
(4) Forearm pronation
(5) Wrist and finger flexion

86
Q

what is the LE flexion synergy pattern?

A

(Captain Morgan Pose)

(1) hip flexion, abduction, ER
(2) knee flexion
(3) ankle dorsiflexion and inversion
(4) toe dorsiflexion

87
Q

what is the LE extension synergy pattern?

A

(1) hip extension, adduction, IR
(2) knee extension
(3) ankle plantarflexion and eversion
(4) toe plantarflexion

88
Q

what are synergy patterns?

A

a combination of movements to compensate for the lack of isolated control at a specific joint; observed following 90% of strokes

89
Q

what is the purpose of a CT scan of the brain following a stroke?

A

(1) used to rule in/rule out a hemorrhagic stroke (for treatment)
(2) can’t determine ischemic stroke or cerebral edema until 3-5 days after the event

90
Q

what is the Spinothalamic tract from start to finish?

A

(1) 1st order neuron: periphery to dorsal horn
(2) 2nd order: dorsal horn crosses anterior / lateral of spinal cord up to VPL of thalamus
(3) 3rd order: VPL to primary somatosensory cortex

91
Q

what is the Dorsal Column - Medial Lemniscal System tract from start to finish?

A

(1) 1st order: peripheral nerves to medulla oblongata
(2) 2nd order: medulla oblongata to thalamus
(3) 3rd order: thalamus to ipsilateral primary sensory cortex

92
Q

what is dysmetria?

A

the inability to judge distance and when to stop; also called past pointing because a person will move past their point of intention

93
Q

what is dysdiadochokinesia?

A

loss of the ability to arrest one motor impulse and substitute the opposite (ex. pronate and supinate forearm); this leads to uncoordinated progression of movement

94
Q

what is the pathophysiology of PD?

A

(1) reduced dopamine production in the basal ganglia due to neuronal death in the substantia nigra
(2) this deprives the striatum of dopamine causing causes an over activity of both the direct and indirect loops
(3) excessive voluntary movement (tremors) and suppression of voluntary movement (bradykinesia / balance problems)

95
Q

what are the main differences between an UMN and LMN lesion? (3 each)

A 
UMN
(1) Contralateral symptoms 
(2) Hypertonia – velocity dependent 
(3) Reflexes increased
LMN
(1) Ipsilateral symptoms 
(2) Hypotonia – velocity independent 
(3) Reflexes decreased
96
Q

what is the Hoehn and Yahr classification for PD?

A

I - unilateral (no functional disability)
II - bilateral (no balance deficit)
III - bilateral (balance deficit) (independent and CAN work)
IV - severly disabled, can walk with assistance (CAN’T work)
V - confined to bed or w/c

97
Q

what is on-off phenomenon?

A

abrupt, random fluctuations in motor performance, occurs after years of taking the medications

98
Q

what is end dose deterioration?

A

worsening of symptoms toward the end of the medication effectiveness (meds are starting to wear off)

99
Q

what are the cardinal signs of PD?

A 
TRAP
Tremors
Rigidity
Akinesia / Bradykinesia
Postural Instability
100
Q

what makes a person a good candidate for DBS?

A

(1) responds well to L-dopa

(2) has started experiencing on-off syndrome

101
Q

what is the difference between coma, vegetative state, and MCS?

A 
Coma
(1) no sleep wake cycles
(2) does not respond to stimuli
Vegetative
(1) has sleep wake cycles
(2) manage basic cardiac, respiratory functions
(3) generalized response to stimuli
MCS
(1) has sleep wake cycles
(2) localization to stimuli
102
Q

what is the rating on the Glasgow Coma Scale for severe, moderate, and minor brain injuries?

A

(1) severe: 3-8
(2) moderate: 9-12
(3) mild: 13-15

103
Q

what is the best diagnostic tool for concussions?

A

SCAT

104
Q

what is the biggest risk factor predicting prolonged recovery in concussion (mTBI)? (4)

A

(1) acute “on field” dizziness
(2) greater number & severity of acute symptoms
(3) adults =>10 days of on-going symptoms
(4) children => 3 weeks of on-going symptoms

105
Q

what symptoms accompany each stage of CTE?

A

Stage 1: headache, can’t concentrate, irritable
Stage 2: depression (suicidal thoughts), STM loss
Stage 3: executive dysfunction, cognitive impairments
Stage 4: dementia, aggression, gait & speech abnormalities, parkinsonism

106
Q

what is the pathophysiology of a blunt force concussion? (3)

A

(1) Ion channel dysfunction: K+ leaves the cell, Ca+ and Na+ rush in
(2) Metabolic energy crisis: cerebral glucose demand is increased & cerebral blood flow is decreased
(3) Physiologic axonal stretching: microscopic axonal dysfunction

107
Q

what is the pathophysiology of a blast related concussion? (3)

A

(1) Primary injury - shock waves from blast disrupts brain tissue; widespread injury
(2) Secondary injury - fragments cause penetrating injury
(3) Tertiary injury - blunt trauma from striking solid surface

108
Q

what is level 1 of the RLA of cognitive functioning? what are trademarks of this stage?

A
  • No Response
    (1) patient doesn’t respond to any stimuli
    (2) appears to be in deep sleep
109
Q

what is level 2 of the RLA of cognitive functioning? what are trademarks of this stage?

A
  • Generalized Response
    (1) demonstrates generalized reflex response to painful stimuli
    (2) non-purposeful responses
    (3) ex: patient may groan when hand is pinched
110
Q

what is level 3 of the RLA of cognitive functioning? what are trademarks of this stage?

A
  • Localized Response
    (1) demonstrates withdrawal or vocalization to painful stimuli
    (2) turns away or towards auditory stimuli; follows moving object
    (3) ex: patient withdraws hand when pinched or turns head toward someone calling their name
111
Q

what is level 4 of the RLA of cognitive functioning? what are trademarks of this stage?

A
  • Confused / Agitated
    (1) purposefully attempts to remove restraints or tubes and crawl out of bed
    (2) absent short-term and long-term memory
    (3) may exhibit aggressive or flight behavior
    (4) ex. patient that tries to hit you when you take away their food
112
Q

what is level 5 of the RLA of cognitive functioning? what are trademarks of this stage?

A

Confused / Inappropriate

(1) may wander randomly or with a vague intention of going home
(2) may become agitated in response to eternal stimulation
(3) can converse for short periods but not oriented X3
(4) may be able to perform previously learned tasks; can’t learn new tasks
(5) ex: patient is able to put shirt on with strong cues and assistance from PT

113
Q

what is level 6 of the RLA of cognitive functioning? what are trademarks of this stage?

A

Confused / Appropriate

(1) inconsistently oriented X3
(2) can attend highly familiar tasks in non-distracting environment for 30 minutes
(3) max assistance for new learning with little or no carry over
(4) ex: patient is able to shower by themselves

114
Q

what is level 7 of the RLA of cognitive functioning? what are trademarks of this stage?

A

Automatic / Appropriate

(1) consistently oriented X3
(2) shows carryover for new learning but at a decreased rate with minimal supervision
(3) - Able to initiate social or recreational activities in structured environments; judgement still impaired (overestimates abilities)
(4) ex: patient is able to tell you their name and where they are; they also made themselves dinner last night.

115
Q

what is level 8 of the RLA of cognitive functioning? what are trademarks of this stage?

A

Purposeful / Appropriate

(1) consistently oriented X3
(2) independently attends to and completes familiar tasks for 1 hour in distracting environments
(3) can recall and integrate past and recent events
(4) uses assistive memory devices to recall daily schedule, “to do” lists
(5) ex: can drive a car, even with other people in the car

Neuromuscular I (2 decks)

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