Exam I Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Define autonomy.

A

Medical decision making capacity of an individual; requires capacity to make decisions.

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2
Q

Define beneficence.

A

Best interest of the patient (well-being, health, life). Should be the primary motivation in decision making. Is not always achieved despite best efforts by physician.

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3
Q

Define non-maleficence.

A

Acting with due care, measuring benefits and risks to comply with the perspective of the patient. Do no harm.
“Limits the power of HCPs to exacerbate rather than ameliorate their pt’s vulnerability”

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4
Q

Define justice.

A

Fair allocation of resources. Prohibits discrimination in provision of services.

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5
Q

Define the legal doctrines of confidentiality and the privilege of doctor-patient communication.

A

Confidentiality is standard in the [{United State of America]] by HIPAA laws, specifically the Privacy Rule, and various state laws, some more rigorous than HIPAA. However, numerous exceptions to the rules have been carved out over the years. For example, many American states require physicians to report gunshot wounds to the police and impaired drivers to the Department of Motor Vehicles. Confidentiality is also challenged in cases involving the diagnosis of a sexually transmitted disease in a patient who refuses to reveal the diagnosis to a spouse, and in the termination of a pregnancy in an underage patient, without the knowledge of the patient’s parents. Many states in the U.S. have laws governing parental notification in underage abortion

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6
Q

Distinguish competency from medical decision making capacity.

A

Capacity: The ability to understand the nature and effect of one’s acts. Capacity is a fluid concept; an individual may have the requisite capacity in one moment and lack capacity in another.
Competency. Competency is a legal finding. Competency proceedings, including guardianship and conservatorship hearings, are conducted to allow the court to determine the individual’s mental capacity. An individual is incompetent when declared by the court to be in need of a guardian or conservator. This determination is made only after the individual meets the proper “standards” under Iowa law.

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7
Q

Distinguish dependence vs. vulnerability.

A

Dependence: state of relying on being controlled by someone or something else. Independence is a myth - we are all dependent or interdependent. Multiple domains.

Vulnerability: state of being open to injury, degree of dependence correlates with degree of vulnerability.

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8
Q

Risk factors for vulnerable populations.

A

Adverse financial circumstances, poor health, hazardous environments, inadqeuate housing, extremes of age, presence of chronic or terminal illness or disability.

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9
Q

Define advocacy.

A

A response to vulnerability; obligation to foster autonomy to the extent possible and avoid discrimination, stereotyping, and paternalism that not infrequently accompany responses to vulnerability.

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10
Q

Name an important central feature of responding to patient vulnerability.

A

Taking into account the social context and factors that support or undermine the patient’s autonomy and to then respond in ways that consciously aim to support or foster the patient’s autonomy in the clinical setting.

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11
Q

What are the clinician’s obligation regarding vulnerability and pt care?

A

Twofold: respond to the pt’s immediate ailment & attend to the particular ways that each pt may be vulnerable, to find out which pt interests are at stake, and what resources the pt commands (or lacks) in order to protect the pt’s interests.

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12
Q

Stereotypes

A

Ageism (demented, assumption of too much experience, outmoded backward, infantilization - elderspeak).
Racism.
Sexism.
Cultural sensitivity.

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13
Q

Describe the physician’s responsibilities when disagreement occurs between family members and the wishes of the pts who lacks medical decision making capacity for his/her medical care. (Objective)

A

.

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14
Q

State the physician’s duties to minors, dependent and vulnerable adults, and their families. (Objective)

A

Meet needs, provide appropriate care, minimize risk of harm, avoid exploitation.
Foster autonomy to the extent possible.

Result is advocation.

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15
Q

Identify the ethical principles, virtues and goals that guide palliative care. (Objective)

A

Autonomy, Beneficence, Non-Maleficence, Justice

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16
Q

Understand how goals of care interact with other dimensions of decision making. (Objective)

A

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17
Q

Identify the ethical principles and virtues that guide end-of-life decisions that involve withholding or withdrawing life support, analgesia, sedation.

A

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18
Q

T/F. A dependent adult is a vulnerable adult.

A

True

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19
Q

Obligations to the vulnerable?

A

Meeting needs, providing appropriate care, minimize risks of harm avoid exploitation, counter sense of powerlessness & loss of agency.

20
Q

What is advocation?

A

When HCPs are cognizant of and responsive to the different sources of a patient’s vulnerability.

21
Q

Older patients & good communication.

A

Doctor has duty to listen and offer information, avoiding elderspeak, advocating for pt, using interpreters/facilities when needed.

22
Q

Older patients & consent.

A

Keep an open mind and do not have pre-existing assumptions about older people’s abilities or needs.

23
Q

T/F. Dx of mental impairment means the pt cannot make valid choices.

A

FALSE. There is an ethical obligation to help people make their own choices to the degree that they are able and to maximize their abilities by carrying out assessments in familiar premises and helping them choose at times when they are likely to be most lucid. (Referring to demented adults & elderly pts.)

24
Q

Older patients & privacy.

A

Older people have same confidentiality rights as others, should be consulted about disclosure of their information, including to their friends and relatives.

25
Q

Is implied consent sufficient for sharing the health information of an elderly pt within the health team?

A

Yes.

26
Q

Define delirium & causes.

A

Acute disconnection with reality. Multifactorial cause: polypharmacy, change in environment (hospitalization), associated illness/recent surgery sleep deprivation, metabolic deficits (malnutrition, anemia, azotemia). Must r/o ETOH/drug withdrawal.
*Approach all these before considering restraint.

27
Q

Fall precautions.

A

Review medication associated with risk of falls.
Detect, treat and manage deliriium, CV dz, incontinence (trying to pee & fall), osteoporosis.
Attend to losses in sight/hearing.
Safe footwear.
Improve balance via PT, devices (canes), etc.
Review environmental factors (flooring, lighting, handrails, room layout, distances between handholds, line of sight, clutter/extension cords).

28
Q

Protection vs. Restraint

A

For pts with impaired mental capacity, protective measures should restrict their freedom of movement as little as possible while providing them a safe environment. Discuss with competent older pts how they can safeguard their health & minimize accidents.

Restraint must be planned, discussed, documented, and proportionate to the risk.

29
Q

Types of neglect & abuse.

A

Physical abuse.
Verbal, emotional or psychological abuse.
Sexual abuse.
Financial abuse and exploitation.
Caregiver neglect, intentional or unintentional.

30
Q

Indications of neglect & abuse.

A

Withdrawn or sad affect.
Unprompted remarks about caregivers (may be positive!).
Recent weight loss.
Hygiene.
Pressure ulcers on skin.
Unexplained bruises or cuts.
*Physicians are mandatory reporters through county Dept of Human Services offices.

31
Q

Definition of minor.

A

Any person under the age of 18 is a minor, unless married prior to age 18 or incarcerated.

32
Q

Define “emancipated” minor.

A

Absent from the parental home with the consent of the parents.

Are self supporting AND assumed a new relationship inconsistent with being part of the family of the parents.

NOT solely on the basis of becoming pregnant or giving birth to a child.

Minors who have been adjudicated or emancipated do not need parental consent to receive mental, dental or psychiatric care.

33
Q

Title X definition

A

Public Health Service Act of 1970 designed to prioritize the needs of low income families or uninsured people who might not otherwise have access to these health care services. Ex) Planned parenthood, county public health clinics, some student health clinics.

Title X services must be available to ALL ADOLESCENTS, regardless of age. Minors can consent to services themselves. Title X CANNOT be contingent upon parental consent or notification.

34
Q

Title X Services

A

Family planning and provision of contraception, education and counseling.

Breast and pelvis exams.

Breast and cervical cancer screening.

Screenings and treatment for STDs and HIV.

Education about preventing STDs and HIV ad counseling for affected pts, referrals to other health care resources.

Pregnancy diagnosis.

Pregnancy counseling.

ABORTION IS EXCLUDED.

35
Q

Health care services for which minors may consent?

A

Contraceptive services, STD prevention/Dx/Tx, HIV/AIDS care, emergency care, substance abuse tx, victim medical services

36
Q

Contraceptive & STD services to minors in iowa - limits?

A

NOT required to obtain parental consent. Iowa minors are authorized to consent.

37
Q

How to protect minor’s privacy with HIV dx?

A

MUST go to Title X clinic or the doctor will be required to report a + test to the parent. Title X does not have to report to parent if +. Either place can test confidentially.

38
Q

Billing & Privacy

A

Services in clinic may be billed to parents’ insurance and revealed.

No right exists for minors for confidentiality of payment information if previous release was granted by third party payers.

Typically this would be granted by parent at time of enrollment.

39
Q

Substance abuse tx and privacy.

A

Do not require parental consent to enter tx program for substance abuse. Do not need to report to parents if minor receives substance abuse tx.

40
Q

Abortion & confidentiality

A

Abortion services is largely covered under state laws.

To receive abortion, require permission from BOTH parents + 48hr waiting period.

Exceptions:

Emancipated by judge.

If you feel your own health would be in jeopardy if your parents found out. Must prove to judge maturity, capability of informed consent, and this is in your best interests. Judge can grant waiver.

If the attending physician certifies the abortion is necessary to prevent the minor’s death and there is insufficient time to provide notice.

Pregnant minor declares she is victim of sexual abuse, neglect or physical abuse,

41
Q

Anatomical gifts & minors

A

If emancipated, or if minor receives parental signed approval and they are at least 14.

42
Q

Blood donation & minors

A

17 without parental consent. 16 with consent.

43
Q

Parents disclosure of minor’s PHI to third parties under HIPAA

A

Parents can authorize disclosure of minor’s PHI to third parties (insurance companies, etc)

44
Q

Breaking confidentiality

A

if public or another person is at risk. (Homicidal, suicidal, risk of health or victim of abuse or neglect.)

45
Q

Exceptions to general rule of disclosure of minor’s PHI under HIPAA

A

1) parent can authorize a confidential relationship between provider minor. the right to authorize disclosure transfers to minor.
2) when state law allows a minor to consent to care then the minor has sole authority to authorize disclosures.

46
Q

Limits of parent access to minor PHI under Title X

A

Providers CANNOT disclose info to parents or guardians about Title X services provided to minor without minor’s WRITTEN Authorization.

47
Q

Divorced parent’s access to minor’s PHI for non title X services?

A

BOTH parents have legal access unless otherwise ordered by court (medical, educational, and law enforcement records). However, parents do not have absolute right to records - best interest of child prevails.