Exam I Flashcards

1
Q

List the joints of the distal equine limb. Provide the scientific name and layman term.

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2
Q

Identify the anatomy.

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3
Q

Identify the anatomy. Use layman terms.

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4
Q

Why should we care about the anatomic location of equine joints?

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5
Q

Identify the joints in the equine foot. Mention the common name and if it is high/low motion.

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6
Q

Identify the joint (common name and scientific name). Is this joint high or low motion?

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7
Q

Identify the anatomy.

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8
Q
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9
Q

Where is the tendon sheath located? What is its purpose?

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10
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11
Q

Identify the anatomy of the carpus. Mention if they are high or low motion.

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12
Q

Identify the anatomy.

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13
Q

Which joints of the equine carpus communicate with one another?

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14
Q

What is meant by the term “I rides high” when it comes to equine medicine?

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15
Q

Idenifty the different joints of the tarsus/hock. Mention if they are high or low motion.

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16
Q

Which joints of the hock/tarsus always communicate?

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17
Q

Which joints of the hock/tarsus usually communicate?

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18
Q

Which joints of the hock/tarsus sometimes communicate?

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19
Q

Identify the joints being injected in these photos.

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20
Q

Identify the anatomy.

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21
Q
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22
Q

Identify the anatomy of the equine stifle.

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23
Q

What joins in the equine stifle communicate?

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24
Q

Identify the anatomy.

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25
Q

Identify the anatomy.

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26
Q

Identify the anatomy.

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27
Q

Identify the anatomy.

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28
Q

Name the origin and insertion of the superficial digital flexor tendon.

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29
Q

Name the origin and insertion of the deep digital flexor tendon.

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30
Q

Name the origin and insertion of the inferior check ligament.

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31
Q

Name the origin and insertion of the suspensory ligament.

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32
Q

Name the origin and insertion of the common long digital extensor.

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33
Q

Name the origin and insertion of the distal sesamoidean ligament.

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34
Q

Name the origin and insertion point of the collateral ligaments.

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35
Q

Where is the distal flexor tendon sheath? What is its purpose?

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36
Q

Where is the navicular bursa?

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37
Q
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38
Q

Identify the anatomy.

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39
Q

Identify the anatomy.

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40
Q

Identify the anatomy.

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41
Q

Identify the anatomy.

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42
Q

Identify the anatomy.

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43
Q

Identify the anatomy.

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44
Q

Identify the anatomy.

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45
Q

What is the purpose of the palmar/plantar annular ligaments?

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46
Q

What is the purpose of the collateral ligaments in the distal aspect of the equine leg?

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47
Q

Identify the anatomy.

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48
Q

What is equine conformation?

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49
Q

Why is equine conformation important?

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50
Q

The ideal equine conformation varies with ____ and ____.

A

Breed and discipline

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51
Q

Identify the conformation flaws. What pathology is associated with these conformations?

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52
Q

Identify the conformation flaws. What pathology is associated with these conformations?

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53
Q

Identify the conformation flaws. What pathology is associated with these conformations?

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54
Q

Identify the conformation flaws. What pathology is associated with these conformations?

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55
Q

Identify the conformation flaws. What pathology is associated with this conformation?

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56
Q

Identify the conformation flaws.

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57
Q

Identify the conformation flaws. What pathology is associated with these conformations?

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58
Q

When performing a lameness exam, what order should you do so?

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59
Q

What should be included in your history section of a lameness exam?

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60
Q

What should be included in your observation section of a lameness exam?

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61
Q

What should be included in your limb palpation section of a lameness exam?

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62
Q

What is effusion?

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63
Q

What specific joints should you assess for effusion?

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64
Q

What is edema?

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65
Q

What is a boney proliferation?

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66
Q

What should you be assessing for when preforming tendon and ligament palpation?

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67
Q

Describe the important of digital pulses when preforming a lameness exam.

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68
Q
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69
Q

Describe the importance of back palpation in a lameness exam.

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70
Q

Describe the importance of hoof testers in a lameness exam.

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71
Q

List the basic horse motions when performing a lameness exam.

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72
Q

List the advanced horse motions when performing a lameness exam.

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73
Q

Describe the use of a walk when performing a gait evaluation on a lame horse.

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74
Q

Describe the use of a trot when performing a gait evaluation on a lame horse.

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75
Q

Describe a 0/5 based on the AAEP lameness scale.

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76
Q

Describe a 1/5 based on the AAEP lameness scale.

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77
Q

Describe a 2/5 based on the AAEP lameness scale.

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78
Q

Describe a 3/5 based on the AAEP lameness scale.

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79
Q

Describe a 4/5 based on the AAEP lameness scale.

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80
Q

Describe a 5/5 based on the AAEP lameness scale.

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81
Q

Define sound.

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82
Q

Define head bob.

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83
Q

Define hip hike.

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84
Q

Define fetlock drop.

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85
Q

Define tracking up.

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86
Q

Define tracking up.

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87
Q

Define stride length.

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88
Q

Define stride length.

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89
Q

Differentiate between a sound limb and a lame limb during a gait analysis on a lame horse.

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90
Q

In general, what is a flexion test? How do we quantify our findings?

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91
Q

What joints are you testing during a forelimb flexion test?

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92
Q

What joints are you testing during a hindlimb flexion test?

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93
Q

How long should you hold for in a flexion test of the carpus/tarsus/stifle?

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94
Q

In general, what is a nerve block?

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95
Q

What are the general principals of nerve blocks?

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96
Q

What are some ways we can alleviate local anesthetic migration during a nerve block?

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97
Q

Describe 2% mepivicaine as a local anesthetic used in equine nerve blocks.

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98
Q

Describe 2% lidocaine as a local anesthetic used in equine nerve blocks.

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99
Q

Describe bupivicaine as a local anesthetic used in equine nerve blocks.

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100
Q

Describe how to preform a palmar digital nerve block, which structures are blocked?

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101
Q

Describe how to preform a abaxial sesamoid nerve block, which structures are blocked?

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102
Q

Describe how to preform a low 4 point nerve block, which structures are blocked?

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103
Q

What are the indications for radiographing an equine limb?

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104
Q

A ____ is making a 3D object into a 2D picture that you then need to reconstruct into a 3D image in your mind.

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105
Q
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106
Q

What are some positioning rules when it comes to imaging the equine limb?

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107
Q

What are some rules when it comes to markers in the equine limb radiographs?

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108
Q
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109
Q

Of these radiographs, which is good and which is bad?

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110
Q
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111
Q
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112
Q

Which of these radiographs is good?

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113
Q

Identify the radiographic views.

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114
Q

Identify the radiographic views.

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115
Q

Identify the radiographic view.

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116
Q

Identify the radiographic view.

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117
Q
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118
Q

Identify the radiographic view.

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119
Q

What if there are no radiographic abnormalities but you still suspect a bone injury?

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120
Q

What are some additional imaging modalities we can use on the equine limb other than radiology?

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121
Q

What are some basic ultrasonography principles?

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122
Q

Identify the different ultrasonographic terms.

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123
Q

What are the indications for ultrasonography in the equine limb?

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124
Q

How do we prepare the equine limbs for an ultrasound?

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125
Q
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126
Q

How can we categorize our ultrasonographic findings on the equine limb?

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127
Q

What should we suspect if we find an obvious increase in hypoechogenecity during an equine limb ultrasound?

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128
Q

What should we suspect if we find an increase in structure size during an equine limb ultrasound?

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129
Q

When you suspect a lesion, its critical that you _____.

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130
Q

Another name for nuclear scintigraphy is ____.

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131
Q

List the indications for nuclear scintigraphy in the equine limb.

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132
Q

What are some general principals with nuclear scintigraphy?

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133
Q

What are the indications for computed tomography?

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134
Q

What are the general principals of of computed tomography?

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135
Q

Describe the application of computed tomography.

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136
Q

Computed tomography is used for _____ and ____.

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137
Q

What are the indications for an MRI?

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138
Q

Describe basic MRI principles.

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139
Q

What are the advantages to CT vs MRI?

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140
Q

Describe the use of radiographs for soft tissue, bone and 3D imaging.

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141
Q

Describe the use of ultrasound for soft tissue, bone and 3D imaging.

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142
Q

Describe the use of CT for soft tissue, bone and 3D imaging.

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143
Q

Describe the use of MRI for soft tissue, bone and 3D imaging.

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144
Q

What is the hoof wall? What is its purpose?

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145
Q

How quickly does the horse hoof grow?

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146
Q

What is the periople?

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147
Q

Identify the anatomy.

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148
Q

Identify the anatomy.

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149
Q

What is the coronary band?

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150
Q

What is the toe?

A
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151
Q

What is the quarter?

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152
Q

What is the heel?

A
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153
Q

Identify the anatomy.

A
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154
Q

Identify the anatomy.

A
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155
Q

Identify the anatomy.

A
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156
Q
A
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157
Q
A
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158
Q

Where are the collateral cartilages? What is their function?

A
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159
Q

What is the function of the lamina?

A
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160
Q

What structures of the hoof provide traction?

A
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161
Q

What structures of the hoof provide shock absorption?

A
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162
Q

What structures of the hoof support the skeletal column?

A
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163
Q

What structures of the hoof provide protection to the inner structures?

A
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164
Q

What structures of the hoof assist with venous return or the peripheral pump?

A
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165
Q

The typical hoof timing interval is _____.

A
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166
Q

While trimming an equine hoof, you should also assess for ______.

A
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167
Q

What is a medio-lateral imbalance of the hoof?

A
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168
Q

What is an under run heel?

A
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169
Q

Toe dragging will impact the shape of the hoof and can be an indication of _____.

A
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170
Q

Identify the hoof pathology.

A
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171
Q

Identify the hoof pathology.

A
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172
Q

Identify the hoof pathology and the associated disease.

A
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173
Q

T/F: If a horse’s hooves grow differently, you should trim their feet so that the hooves are the same.

A
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174
Q

Identify the different farrier tools.

A
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175
Q

What is the difference between nippers and shoe pullers?

A
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176
Q

Identify the farrier tools.

A
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177
Q

Describe the general process of hoof trimming.

A
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178
Q

What are the goals for hoof trimming?

A
179
Q

In general, describe the importance of shoeing a horse.

A
180
Q

What are some signs a horse needs to be re-shod? (Organize from early signs to late signs)

A
181
Q

Describe steel as a shoe material.

A
182
Q

Describe aluminum as a shoe material.

A
183
Q

List the steps of shoeing.

A
184
Q

What is cold shoeing?

A
185
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages to cold shoeing?

A
186
Q

What is hot shoeing?

A
187
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages to hot shoeing?

A
188
Q

What factors determine a good quality showing job?

A
189
Q

Describe how you can remove a shoe.

A
190
Q

What is navicular disease? What other names does it go by?

A
191
Q

What age and breed of horse are most likely to get navicular disease?

A
192
Q

What anatomical structures make up the navicular apparatus?

A
193
Q

Identify the anatomy.

A
194
Q

Identify the anatomy.

A
195
Q

What is the etiology of navicular syndrome?

A
196
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with navicular syndrome?

A
197
Q

This is known as _____.

A
198
Q

How to we diagnose navicular syndrome?

A
199
Q

Describe the technique to radiographing the navicular bone.

A
200
Q

What should you be evaluating in a lateral radiograph of the navicular bone?

A
201
Q

What should you be evaluating in a horizontal DP radiograph of the navicular bone?

A
202
Q

What should you be evaluating in a 60-65 degree DP radiograph of the navicular bone?

A
203
Q

What should you be evaluating in a palmaroproximal palmarodistal oblique radiograph of the navicular bone?

A
204
Q

Identify the pathology in this radiograph.

A
205
Q

Identify the pathology in this radiograph.

A
206
Q

Identify the pathology in this radiograph.

A
207
Q

Identify the pathology in this radiograph.

A
208
Q

Identify the pathology in this radiograph.

A
209
Q

Identify the pathology in this radiograph.

A
210
Q

Identify the pathology in this radiograph.

A
211
Q

Identify the pathology in this radiograph.

A
212
Q

You suspect a horse has navicular bone pathology but there are no radiographic changes. What structure could be involved?

A
213
Q

What are some treatment options for navicular syndrome?

A
214
Q

What are the goals of shoeing/trimming the “navicular” horse?

A
215
Q
A
216
Q

Identify the anatomical structures.

A
217
Q
A
218
Q

Describe how to shoe the “navicular” horse.

A
219
Q

Describe the treatment of the navicular horse with corticosteroids?

A
220
Q

What is the corticosteroid of choice when treating the navicular horse?

A
221
Q

Describe the use of NSAIDs when treating the navicular horse.

A
222
Q

Describe the use of osteoclast inhibitors when treating the navicular horse.

A
223
Q

What is the prognosis for a horse with navicular disease?

A
224
Q

Describe a palmar digital neurectomy as it is a treatment for navicular disease.

A
225
Q

Describe the case selection for a navicular patient undergoing a palmar digital neurectomy.

A
226
Q

What are some potential complications to a palmar digital neurectomy?

A
227
Q

Identify the biomechanics of the foot.

A
228
Q

How can we influence the break over?

A
229
Q

How can we influence the path of the foot?

A
230
Q

How can we use a shoe to support the palmar structures of the foot?

A
231
Q

Identify the different shoes we can use to support the palmar structures of the foot.

A
232
Q

How can we use shoes to support the bony column of the limb?

A
233
Q

How can we use shoes to stabilize the hoof capsule?

A
234
Q

Why is it advantageous to use radiographs while shoeing a horse? What are some cases you would use radiographs while shoeing?

A
235
Q

What is the ideal low palmar angle?

A
236
Q

What should you be looking for during your physical exam of the equine foot?

A
237
Q

____ may or may not be clinically significant in the hoof wall.

A
238
Q

Where should you use your hoof testers on the equine foot?

A
239
Q

What diagnostics can we use when we have a horse with foot pathology?

A
240
Q

Differentiate between thrush and white line disease.

A
241
Q

Identify the pathology.

A
242
Q

What is the etiology of thrush or white line disease?

A
243
Q

How do we diagnose thrush and white line disease?

A
244
Q

How do we treat thrush and white line disease?

A
245
Q

Canker is most common in ___ horses.

A
246
Q

What is canker?

A
247
Q

What is the cause of canker?

A
248
Q

How can we diagnose canker?

A
249
Q

What is the treatment for canker?

A
250
Q

Identify the pathology. How would you treat it?

A
251
Q

What is the etiology of subsolar bruising?

A
252
Q

Identify the pathology, what is the cause?

A
253
Q

How can we diagnose subsolar bruising?

A
254
Q

How can we treat subsolar bruising?

A
255
Q

____ is one of the most common causes of severe lameness in horses.

A

Subsolar abscess

256
Q

What is the etiology and pathophysiology of subsolar abscesses?

A
257
Q

What is happening in these pictures?

A
258
Q

How do we diagnose subsolar abscesses?

A
259
Q

How do we treat subsolar abscesses?

A
260
Q

What are the different products we use to poultice the feet? What is the purpose?

A
261
Q

What products do we use to harden the hoof?

A
262
Q

What is the etiology of distal hoof wall defects?

A
263
Q

What is the etiology of proximal hoof wall defects?

A
264
Q

How can we tell if toe and quarter cracks are causing lameness?

A
265
Q

What is the treatment for hoof wall defects?

A
266
Q

When is a penetrating wound to the sole problematic?

A
267
Q

Identify the pathology.

A
268
Q

Your client calls that their horse has a penetrating wound to the sole, what do you tell them?

A
269
Q

What is the treatment for a penetrating wound to the sole?

A
270
Q

Describe the aftercare and prognosis for a street nail procedure.

A
271
Q

Describe the clinical signs associated with fractures of the distal phalanx.

A
272
Q

How do we diagnose P3 fractures?

A
273
Q

What is the treatment for type I, II and III P3 fractures?

A
274
Q

What is the treatment for type III P3 fractures?

A
275
Q

What is the treatment for type IV P3 fractures?

A
276
Q

What is the treatment for type V P3 fractures?

A
277
Q

What is the treatment for type VI P3 fractures?

A
278
Q

What is the prognosis for athletics after a type I and II P3 fracture?

A
279
Q

What is the prognosis for athletics after a type III P3 fracture?

A
280
Q

What is the prognosis for athletics after a type IV P3 fracture?

A
281
Q

What is the prognosis for athletics after a type V P3 fracture?

A
282
Q

What is the prognosis for athletics after a type VI P3 fracture?

A
283
Q

What is a keratoma?

A
284
Q

What are the clinical signs of a keratoma?

A
285
Q

What is the treatment for a keratoma?

A
286
Q

Differentiate between a flexure deformity and an angular deformity.

A
287
Q

Describe congenital flexural limb deformities.

A
288
Q

Describe acquired flexural limb deformities.

A
289
Q

What is the etiology of congenital FLD?

A
290
Q

How do we diagnose congenial FLD?

A
291
Q

What is the treatment for contracted tendons?

A
292
Q

Describe the use of bandaging and splinting as a treatment for contracted tendons.

A
293
Q

What are the different analgesic medication options for foals?

A
294
Q

What are the side effects of analgesia in foals?

A
295
Q

What are the different kinds of splints can we use for the treatment of contracted tendons?

A
296
Q

Describe the use of IV oxytetracyclines as a treatment for contracted tendons.

A
297
Q

What is the mechanism of IV oxytetracyclines?

A
298
Q

What are the side effects of IV oxytetracyclines?

A
299
Q

Describe the use of toe extensions as a treatment for contracted tendons.

A
300
Q

Describe the treatment for a mild case of contracted tendons.

A
301
Q

Describe the treatment for a moderate case of contracted tendons.

A
302
Q

Describe the treatment for a severe case of contracted tendons.

A
303
Q

What is the prognosis for contracted tendons?

A
304
Q

Identify and describe the pathology.

A
305
Q

Identify and describe the pathology.

A
306
Q

What is the treatment for tendon laxity?

A
307
Q

What is the etiology of acquired flexural limb deformities?

A
308
Q

What is the common signalment for a patient with acquired FLD?

A
309
Q

How do we diagnose acquired FLD?

A
310
Q

Identify the pathology.

A
311
Q

Club foot is also called _____.

A

DIP joint contracture

312
Q

Briefly describe club foot.

A
313
Q

What is the treatment for DIP contracture?

A
314
Q

Describe the different approaches to an inferior check ligament desmotomy.

A
315
Q

What are the complications associated with inferior check ligament desmotomies?

A
316
Q

What is fetlock contracture?

A
317
Q

Describe the treatment for fetlock contracture.

A
318
Q

What are the indications for a superior check ligament desmotomy?

A
319
Q

What are the different approaches for a superior check ligament desmotomy?

A
320
Q

What are the different acquired FLDs in adults?

A
321
Q

Name the most common angular limb deformities.

A
322
Q

Identity the ALD.

A
323
Q

What is the etiology of ALD?

A
324
Q

How do we diagnose ALD?

A
325
Q

Describe the different ALD that can be found radiographically?

A
326
Q

What dos the treatment of ALD depend on?

A
327
Q

Describe the medical management of mild ALD.

A
328
Q

How do we use hoof trimming as medical treatment for ALD?

A
329
Q

How do we use hoof extensions as medical treatment for ALD?

A
330
Q

What are the indications for splints/casts as treatment for ALD? Describe their use.

A
331
Q

List the indications and options for the surgical management of ALD.

A
332
Q

What is the ideal surgical timing for ALD surgery on the fetlock?

A
333
Q

What is the ideal surgical timing for ALD surgery on the carpus?

A
334
Q

What is the ideal surgical timing for ALD surgery on the tibia?

A
335
Q

Describe a periosteal transaction and elevation as a growth acceleration surgical procedure.

A
336
Q

Describe transphyseal bridging as a growth retardation surgical procedure.

A
337
Q

Describe the treatment and prognosis for ALD due to incomplete ossification.

A
338
Q

What is physitis?

A
339
Q

What are the clinical signs of physitis?

A
340
Q

How do we diagnose physitis?

A
341
Q

What is the treatment for physitis?

A
342
Q

What is osteochondrosis?

A
343
Q

What is the etiology of osteochondrosis?

A
344
Q

What is the most common signalment and clinical signs associated with OC?

A
345
Q

How do we diagnose OC?

A
346
Q

List the most common locations of OCD lesions from most common to least common.

A
347
Q

List the most common locations of cyst OC lesions from most common to least common.

A
348
Q

OC is NOT a _____, therefore you should wait ____ before treatment.

A
349
Q

What is the treatment for OCD?

A
350
Q

What is the treatment for OC cysts?

A
351
Q

What is OA?

A
352
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of OA.

A
353
Q

Describe the role of cartilage healing in OA.

A
354
Q

End stage, chronic OA often leads to ____.

A
355
Q

_____ are the greatest single economic loss to the equine industry.

A
356
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with OA?

A
357
Q

How to we diagnose OA?

A
358
Q

What are the goals of OA treatment?

A
359
Q

What are the systemic medical treatment options?

A
360
Q

What are the systemic local treatment options?

A
361
Q

What are some different systemic NSAID options?

A
362
Q

Describe the use of systemic hyaluronic acid as a treatment for OA.

A
363
Q

Describe the use of systemic polysufated glycoaminoglycans (PSGAGs) as a treatment for OA.

A
364
Q

Describe the use of oral nutraceuticals as a treatment for OA.

A
365
Q

Describe the use of systemically osteoclast inhibitors as a treatment for OA.

A
366
Q

What are some medications we can use as a local treatment for OA?

A
367
Q

What are some biologics we can use as a local treatment for OA?

A
368
Q

Describe the use of corticosteroids as a treatment for OA.

A
369
Q

What are the disadvantages of corticosteroid use in horses?

A
370
Q

Describe the use of hyaluronic acid as a treatment for OA.

A
371
Q

Describe interleukin-1-receptor antagonist protein (IRAP) as a treatment for OA.

A
372
Q

Describe PRP as a treatment for OA?

A
373
Q

What is pro-stride?

A
374
Q

Describe MSC as a treatment for OA.

A
375
Q

In addition to drugs and biologics, what else can be included in your medical treatment of OA?

A
376
Q

Describe the surgical treatment of OA.

A
377
Q

What is the etiology of equine septic arthritis?

A
378
Q

What is trauma-induced septic arthritis? What bacteria are often involved?

A
379
Q

What ways do we increase the risk of iatrogenic SA?

A
380
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of hematogenous septic arthritis.

A
381
Q

What kind of bacteria are often involved in hematogenous septic arthritis?

A
382
Q

How do we diagnose septic arthritis?

A
383
Q

Describe normal joint fluid in the equine.

A
384
Q

What is fluid pressurization?

A
385
Q

Describe the use of radiographs to diagnose septic arthritis.

A
386
Q

Describe the use of ultrasonography to diagnose septic arthritis.

A
387
Q

How do we treat septic arthritis?

A
388
Q

What are some indications for local antimicrobials?

A
389
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of local antimicrobials?

A
390
Q

What are the different delivery methods of local antimicrobials?

A
391
Q

How do we choose antimicrobials for local administration?

A
392
Q

Describe the use of systemic antimicrobials in the treatment of septic arthritis.

A
393
Q

What are some ancillary treatments we have for the treatment of septic arthritis?

A
394
Q

What is the prognosis for septic arthritis in adults?

A
395
Q

What is the prognosis for septic arthritis in foals?

A
396
Q

What is a tendon?

A
397
Q

What is a ligament?

A
398
Q

Describe the microscopic anatomy of tendons/ligaments.

A
399
Q

Describe the physiology of tendon elongation.

A
400
Q

Identify the anatomy of a tendon sheath.

A
401
Q

What is tendonitis/desmitis?

A
402
Q

Draw the stress-strain curve.

A
403
Q

Describe tendon healing.

A
404
Q

What is the most common history with tendonitis/desmitis?

A
405
Q

What clinical signs are associated with tendonitis/desmitis?

A
406
Q

How do we diagnose tendonitis/desmitis?

A
407
Q

How can we characterize tendon lesions on ultrasound?

A
408
Q

Where do most common lesions occur within the tendon?

A
409
Q

Describe the inflammatory phase related to a tenoned/ligament lesion.

A
410
Q

Describe the reparative phase related to a tendon/ligament lesion.

A
411
Q

Describe the remodeling phase related to a tendon/ligament lesion.

A
412
Q

Describe superficial digital flexor tendonitis.

A
413
Q

Describe deep digital flexor tendinitis.

A
414
Q

What is tenosynovitis?

A
415
Q

What is the typical presentation of forelimb proximal suspensory ligament desmitis?

A
416
Q

How do we diagnose proximal suspensory ligament desmitis in the forelimb?

A
417
Q

What is the prognosis for proximal suspensory ligament desmitis in the forelimb?

A
418
Q

Describe the common presentation for proximal suspensory ligament desmitis in the hind limb?

A
419
Q

How do we diagnose proximal suspensory ligament desmitis in the hind limb?

A
420
Q

What is the treatment for proximal suspensory ligament desmitis in the hindlimb?

A
421
Q

What is the prognosis for proximal suspensory ligament desmitis in the hindlimb?

A
422
Q

Describe mid-body suspensory ligament desmitis.

A
423
Q

What is the etiology of the branch of the suspensory ligament desmitis?

A
424
Q

How do we diagnose branch of suspensory ligament desmitis?

A
425
Q

What is the prognosis of a branch of suspensory ligament desmitis?

A
426
Q

Describe degenerative suspensory ligament desmitis (DSLD).

A
427
Q

What are some treatment options for soft tissue injuries in the equine limb?

A
428
Q

Describe the role of rest and rehabilitation in soft tissue injuries of the equine limb.

A
429
Q

Describe how to preform intralesional therapies for tendon/ligament injuries.

A
430
Q

Describe the use of PRP as a treatment for tendon/ligament injuries. What are the disadvantages?

A
431
Q

Describe the use of PRP as a treatment for tendon/ligament injuries. What are the disadvantages?

A
432
Q

Describe the use of stem cell therapy as a treatment for tendon/ligament injuries. What are the disadvantages?

A
433
Q
A
434
Q

What are the surgical options for tendonitis and desmitis?

A
435
Q

Describe tenoscopy as a surgical treatment for tendonitis and desmitis.

A
436
Q

What is an annular ligament desmotomy?

A
437
Q

Describe a fasciotomy/neurectomy.

A
438
Q

What is counterirritation?

A
439
Q

Describe extensor tendon lacerations.

A
440
Q

Describe flexor tendon lacerations.

A
441
Q

How do we diagnose flexor tendon lacerations?

A
442
Q

How do we treat flexor tendon lacerations?

A
443
Q

What is the prognosis for flexor tendon lacerations?

A
444
Q

How to we treat septic tendon sheaths? What are the major complications and prognosis?

A