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Exit Exam > Exam Exit > Flashcards

Exam Exit Flashcards

1
Q

The voice box is also known as ____

A

Larynx

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2
Q

The number of times per second our vocal cords vibrate when making voiced sounds

A

Fundamental frequency

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3
Q

What is the most common acquired cause of hearing loss in adults?

A

Noice induced hearing loss

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4
Q

The function of the cerebellum is to regulate -

A

Balance, cooperation and movement

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5
Q

The leading cause of neurogenic speech disorders in adults is

A

Stoke, or cerebrovascular accident (CVA)

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6
Q

The frontal lobe of the brain is responsible for -

A

Personality, behavior, expressive language, thoughts, emotion, and voluntary movement

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7
Q

The occipital lobe is responsible for-

A

Vision

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8
Q

The brain stem controls ______

A

The brain stem controls basic functions such as breathing, heart rate, and sleep

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9
Q

The parietal lobe is responsible for -

A

Processing sensory input, such as touch, pressure, heat, cold, pain

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10
Q

The temporal lobe is responsible for -

A

Processing auditory information; speech, memory, and behavior

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11
Q

Where is the lingual phrenulum

A
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12
Q

What is the largest mobile articulator?

A

Tongue

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13
Q

The space between the vocal cords is known as -

A

Glottis

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14
Q

The area below the glottis is known as -

A

Subglottis

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15
Q

The area above the glottis is known as -

A

Supraglottis

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16
Q

Voice is produced when the vocal folds _____

A

Adduct or come together

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17
Q

What is the best instrument used to view the vocal folds?

A

Stroboscope

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18
Q

What is the medical term used when the larynx is removed?

A

Laryngectomy

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19
Q

Double voice is known as

A
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20
Q

The #1 cause of voice and vocal folds problems is

A

Vocal abuse

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21
Q

Spasmodic dysphonia

A
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22
Q

The diaphragm is a _____ muscle which ___ and _____ to produce ____

A

A dome shaped muscle which expands and contracts to produce respiration

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23
Q

Form includes ____, ______,______

A

Form includes syntax, morphology, and phonology

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24
Q

The diaphragm separates the _____ from the _____

A

The diaphragm separates the thoracic cavity from the abdomen

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25
Q

Content includes ____

A

Semantics

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26
Q

Use includes ___

A

Pragmatically

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27
Q

2 types of language:

A

Receptive and expressive

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28
Q

What we are able to understand and comprehend

A

Receptive language

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29
Q

What we are able to say and articulate

A

Expressive language

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30
Q

Narrowing of the airway

A

Stenosis

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31
Q

The #1 cause of Stridor is -

A

Laryngeal malacia

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32
Q

Ability to understand mental status or others is known as

A

Theory of mind

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33
Q

A language sample is a _____ referenced test

A

A language sample is a criterion referenced test

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34
Q

What is a criterion referenced test?

A
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35
Q

A reel test is a ____ referenced test

A

A reel test is a criterion referenced test

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36
Q

For a good language sample, at least ___ sentences are needed, however, ___ is best

A

50; 100

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37
Q

What is language?

A
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38
Q

What is symbolic play?

A
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39
Q

What is joint attention?

A
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40
Q

Joint attention leads to ____

A

A child saying their first word

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41
Q

The number of correct scores is known as -

A

Raw score

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42
Q

What are examples of placement in constants?

A
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43
Q

What are examples of manner?

A
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44
Q

Manner is

A
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45
Q

Placement is

A
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46
Q

Speech sounds that are voiced and have high intensity are known as

A

Vowels

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47
Q

What are the three types of assessments?

A

Norm referenced
Criterion referenced
Dynamic assessment

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48
Q

An affricate involves

A

Fricative and a stop

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49
Q

Are vowels voiced or voiceless?

A

All vowels are voiced

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50
Q

Ability to attend to the unit of sounds that make up running speech

A

Phonological awareness

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51
Q

The use of language in social situations

A

Pragmatics

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52
Q

Brocas aphasia affects one’s ___

A

Expressive language

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53
Q

Bro as aphasia occurs when there is damage to the _____

A

Frontal lobe

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54
Q

Wernickes aphasia affects ones ______

A

Comprehension or receptive language

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55
Q

Wernickes aphasia occurs when there is damage to the _____

A

Temporal lobe

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56
Q

The inability to remember names

A

Anomia

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57
Q

Aphasia in which one has an inability to comprehend or speak. In addition all parts of language are affected

A

Global aphasia

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58
Q

Down syndrome have extensive hearing loss due to ____

A

Small ears

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59
Q

The #1 cause of hearing loss in children is -

A

Middle ear infection

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60
Q

Morpheme is the smallest ____ in language

A

Morpheme is the smallest meaningful unit in language

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61
Q

A morpheme has the ability to stand alone. True or false

A

True

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62
Q

Smallest meaningful unit in language

A

Morpheme

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63
Q

An opening in the roof of the mouth, in which it doesn’t fuse together during birth

A

Cleft palate

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64
Q

Which of the following is not used to assess vocal fold movement?

A
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65
Q

Cleft palate is an ____ in the roof of the mouth, in which it doesn’t ___ during birth

A

An opening in the roof of the mouth, in which it doesn’t fuse together during birth

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66
Q

Parts of the central nervous system include

A

Brain and spinal cord

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67
Q

A statement of the likelihood of which a person will improve

A

Prognosis

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68
Q

Apraxia and dysarthria are both examples of which disorder?

A

Motor speech disorder

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69
Q

Which of the following is not a predominantly type of disfluency?

A

Eye clicks

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70
Q

The primary function of our ears is ____, and the main function of the vocal folds is ____

A

Balance; voicing or protection

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71
Q

Which instrument is not used for newborn hearing test?

A
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72
Q

Which of the following is the rules of grammar

A

Syntax

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73
Q

A graph that shows hearing thresholds for different frequecnies as measured by audiometer

A

Audiogram

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74
Q

Which of the following is not an example of assistant listening device?

A

Stroblight

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75
Q

Recruitment and tinnitus is caused by damage to the ____

A

Cochlear

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76
Q

Cochlear implants are recommended for patients with which degree of hearing loss?

A

Severe hearing loss

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77
Q

A way of testing articulation proficiency

A
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78
Q

The major muscle of lips is known as -

A
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79
Q

Which instruments are known as an assisted listening device

A

Vibrating alarm clock
Telephone amplifier
Strobolight

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80
Q

Which is not an example of an assisted listening device

A

Directional microphone

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81
Q

Severe hearing loss is related to which type of hearing loss?

A

Sensorimotor hearing loss

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82
Q

Which is not a cause of conductive hearing loss in adults?
Wax
Otoscrosis
Foreign objects

A
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83
Q

Which of the following is not a disease which causes sensorimotor hearing loss?
Diabetes
HIV
meninges
Parkinson’s disease

A

Parkinson’s disease

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84
Q

Which of the following is not part of hearing evaluation
Otoscope
Hearing aid fitting
Audiogram
Middle ear testing

A

Hearing aid fitting

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85
Q

How old should you be to be able to eat every type of food and textures

A

2 years / 24 months

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86
Q

Which of following age group has the highest rate of fluency disorders?

A

2-10 years

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87
Q

Sudden involuntary movement of vocal folds

A

Spasmodic

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88
Q

The most important part of assessment of fluency disorders is -

A

Observation

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89
Q

A disturbance of pitch significant

A

Habitual pitch

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90
Q

Which of the following disorder produces dementia the most?

A

Alzheimer

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91
Q

For young children who do not communicate, the best place to receive therapy is -

A
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92
Q

Which person is most likely to administer a phonological assessment?

A

Speech therapist

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93
Q

Vocal folds are found in the ____

A

Larynx

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94
Q

How many bronchi are there

A

2

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95
Q

The last part between the bronchial and lungs is the —-

A

Alveoli

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96
Q

Muscle weakness is known as ____

A

Dysarthria

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97
Q

Examples of motor speech disorder are

A

Apraxia and dysarthria

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98
Q

____ measure what it says it measures

A

Reliability

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99
Q

Medications that damage the ear-

A

Ototoxic and aspirin

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100
Q

Language that develops typically, but at a younger age or behind typical age

A

Language delay

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101
Q

Spectrum developmental disorder characterized by language socialization

A

Autism spectrum disorder

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102
Q

Lack of oxygen

A

Anoxia

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103
Q

The correct order for assessment is :

A

Referral
Screening
Assessment
Plan of care
Therapy
Discharge

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104
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of autism?
Language disorder
Poor eye contact
Reading disorder

A

Reading disorder

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105
Q

An infant will maintain eye contact by ____

A

6 months

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106
Q

A disorder or impairment is present when a person has significant difficulty in one or more aspects of communication, language, culture and dialect.

A

Communication disorder

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107
Q

Types of language disorders:

A

Child language disorder
Adult language disorder- aphasia
Reading disability

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108
Q

Types of disorder speech:

A

Articulation/ phonological disorder
Fluency disorder
Voice disorder (aphonia/ dysphonia)
Motor speech disorder

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109
Q

Fields in Com Disorders + supporting fields

A

• SLPA- SLP
• Audiologist
• Hearing clinician
• Teachers
• Physical therapist
• Special educators
• Occupational therapist
• Neurologist
• Pediatricians
• Psychologists

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110
Q

sound of the language

A

Phonological

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111
Q

recognize and produce syntactic structure

A

Grammatical

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112
Q

the vocabulary of a particular language, field, social class, person/morphemes of a language

A

Lexical

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113
Q

verbal communication

A

Discourse

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114
Q

study of sound system of a language

A

Phonology

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115
Q

sound units of a language

A

Phoneme

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116
Q

the smallest meaningful unit in a language

A

Morpheme

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117
Q

ability to recognize and produce the distinctive, meaningful sounds of a language or phonemes.

A

Phonological competence

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118
Q

Children achieve receptive phonological competence within their ____

A

Children achieve receptive phonological competence within their first year

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119
Q

the ability to effectively recognize and produce the syntactic and morphological structures of a language

A

Grammatical competence

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120
Q

the reflection added to words to indicate aspects of grammar (tense, plural, possessive)

A

Morphology

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121
Q

vocabulary of language; the ability to recognize and produce the conventional words that the speakers of a language use.

A

Lexical competence

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122
Q

Lexical ______ precedes lexical ____

A

Lexical comprehension precedes lexical production

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123
Q

Lexical competence example

A

Understand words but not producing til 12 months of age.

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124
Q

the ability to relay information to others fluently and coherently

A

Discourse competence

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125
Q

the use of language in social situation

A

Pragmatic

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126
Q

4 pragmatic aspects of communicative competence

A
  1. Functional competence (choose socially appropriate language)
  2. Sociolinguistic competence (interpret the social meaning that language conveys)
  3. Interactional competence (the ability to understand and to apply rules for interaction)
  4. Cultural competence (to behave culture appropriately)
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127
Q

choose socially appropriate language

A

Functional competence

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128
Q

interpret the social meaning that language conveys

A

Sociolinguistic competence

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129
Q

the ability to understand and to apply rules for interactions

A

Interactional competence

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130
Q

to behave culture appropriately

A

Cultural competence

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131
Q

3 earliest foundations for language development

A
  1. Joint reference and attention (leads to intentional communication)
  2. Rituals of infancy/ routine activities (bath, eating time, bed time)
  3. Caregiver responsiveness (waiting and listening, following child’s lead)
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132
Q

express with voice/ sounds

A

Vocalization

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133
Q

express with words

A

Verbalization

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134
Q

Stages of vocal development

A

Stages of vocal development
1. Reflexive state 0-2 m
2. Control of phonation 1-4 m
3. Expansion 3-8 m
4. Basic canonical syllables 5-10 m
5. Advanced forms 9-18

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135
Q

special type of babbling with melodic patterns from native language, rich in rhythm, rate, stress and intonation contours

A

Jargon

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136
Q

Infants say their first words at -

A

12 months

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137
Q

Lexicon = ____

A

Lexicon = vocabulary

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138
Q

The reflexive state occurs during

A

0-2 months

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139
Q

Control of phonation occurs during

A

1-4 months

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140
Q

Expansion occurs during which age range

A

3-8 months

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141
Q

Basic canonical syllables occur during which age range

A

5-10 months

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142
Q

Advanced forms occur during

A

9-18 months

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143
Q

By age 1 to 1.5 years of age, a child will have a lexicon of ____

A

50 words

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144
Q

refers to the average length of children’s sentence units of utterances

A

Mean length utterance

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145
Q

MLU stands for

A

Mean length utterance

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146
Q

Phonological processes include

A

Phonological processes
1. Final consonant deletion
2. Consonant substitution
3. Weak syllable deletion
4. Cluster reduction liquid gliding

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147
Q

Disorder present from birth is known as

A

Developmental
Cleft palate or lips

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148
Q

Disorder that occurs after birth is known as

A

Acquired
Head injury, car accident

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149
Q

Adult language disorders involve

A
  1. Aphasia
  2. Right hemisphere disorder
  3. Traumatic brain injury
  4. Dementia
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150
Q

Blood vessels that burst within the brain

A

Hemorrhagic stroke

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151
Q

Well-articulated but mostly incomprehensible language

A

Jargon

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152
Q

___ involves repetition of verbalizations in some form

A

Echolalia

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153
Q

Differences vowels and consonants

A

Vowel
- all voiced speech sounds
- more energy/ intense/ loud
- more low frequency
- produced with openness by articulators

Constants
- 1/2 voiced
- less intense
- low frequency, more high frequency
- produced with air constriction by articulators

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154
Q

Inability to articulate certain sounds, SODA

A

Articulation impairment

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155
Q

Rules that govern sounds patterns in a given language

A

Phonological impairment

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156
Q

____ focus on predictable, rule-based errors that affect more than one sound

A

Phonological disorders such as fronting, stopping, and final constant deletion

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157
Q

Focus on errors in production of individual speech sounds

A

Articulation disorders such as distortions and substitutions

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158
Q

SODA stands for -

A

Substitution
Omission
Distortion
Addition

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159
Q

The variations of a single phoneme

A

Allophone

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160
Q

How the articulators characteristics of phonemes vary according to context and how sounds overlap one another during articulation

A

Coarticulation

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161
Q

How context influences sound production

A

Assimilation

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162
Q

The specific site of neurological damage that cause acquired apraxia of speech is located in which of the following

A

Frontal cortex surrounding Broca’s area

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163
Q

Which subgroup of disorders include acquired apraxia of speech?

A

Programming/ planning

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164
Q

Which is an example of a “stuttering -like” disfluency

A
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165
Q

Which of the following is not a predominant type of disfluency

A

Eye blinks

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166
Q

To phonate, the vocal folds must be ____ at midline

A

Adducted or closed

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167
Q

A pitch disturbance is present when ones___ pitch differs significantly from ones___ pitch

A

Habitual; optimal

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168
Q

In a given minute, about how many times do the vocal folds strike together to produce voice?

A

9000

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169
Q

The specific site of neurological damage that causes acquired apraxia of speech is located in which of the following?

A

Frontal cortex surrounding Broca’s area

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170
Q

Differential diagnosis of motor speech disorders is based on which of the following?

A

Auditory perceptual findings

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171
Q

Conductive hearing loss is caused by damage to the

A

Outer or middle ear that leaves the inner ear and cochlear intact

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172
Q

Which of the following is not a hearing test?
A. Pure tone Audiogram
B. Otoacoustic emission
C. Clinical examination
D. Auditory brain stem response

A

Clinical examination

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173
Q

Which one of these is apart of the comprehensive audio logical evaluation?
A. Case history
B. Otoacustic testing
C. Interview and observation
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

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174
Q

Three types of hearing loss

A

Conductive
Sensorineural
Mixed

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175
Q

What are main causes for acquiring psychogenic stuttering

A

Emotional trauma, stress, psychiatric disorder

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176
Q

Which of the following is an example of single syllable repetition?
A. Rrrrrun
B. B-b-b-baby
C. My-my-my cat
D. None of the above

A

My-my-my cat

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177
Q

What percentage of people gave stuttered sometime in their lives

A

5%

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178
Q

What is an abnormal fluency

A

Speech interrupted by pauses and interjections

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179
Q

What are warning signs for an acquired fluency disorder

A

Presence of stuttering disfluency Ed’s, such as repetition
Presence of cluttering, such as overusing interjections
Inability to effectively communicate

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180
Q

Socially shared code that used conventional system of arbitrary symbols, such as words, sounds

A

Language

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181
Q

Five domains of language include

A

Semantics
Syntax
Morphology
Phonology
Prahpgmatics

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182
Q

Speech involves activation of muscles in four systems which are :

A

Respiratory, phonation, articulation, resonance

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183
Q

Feeding / swelling disorders include

A

Adult dysphagia
Pediatric feeding/ swallowing problems

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184
Q

An audiologist will ____, ____ and ___ disorders of auditory, balance and neural system

A

Identify, asses, and manage

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185
Q

Classification of communication disorders are differentiated into four broad categories, which include:

A

Disorder of language
Hearing loss
Speech disorder
Feeding/ swallowing

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186
Q

A three dimensional depiction of speech signal carried by movement of air particles into human ear. Also includes frequency, time and intensity

A

Spectrogram

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187
Q

The process by which two or more people share information including facts, thought, ideas and feelings

A

Communication

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188
Q

Sound fundamentals four essential steps include:

A
  1. Creation of sounds by source
  2. Vibration of air particles
  3. Reception by ear
  4. Comprehension by brain
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189
Q

Exhalation of breath (speech disorder can result from inability or brain stream)

A

Breathstream

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190
Q

Strong and even voice, loudness and pitch

A

Voice

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191
Q

Precision in phoneme production, consistency of omission or distortion can lead to problem

A

Articulation

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192
Q

Speech is most functional when it’s produced effort and smooth, with few hesitation, interjections

A

Fluency

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193
Q

The building blocks of effective speech include

A
  1. Breathstream
  2. Voice
  3. Articulation
  4. Fluency
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194
Q

Ideas being communicated using set of symbols

A

Code

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195
Q

Following specific systematic conventions; rule gov code

A

Conventional system

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196
Q

Represent thoughts and ideas, language —> brains store info in cognitive —> reasoning, planning

A

Representational tool

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197
Q

____ is the meaning of the language

A

Content

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198
Q

___ is how language is arranged and/or organized

A

Form

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199
Q

___ is how language is functioned

A

Use

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200
Q

A three domain system used to represent and organize the major dimensions of language

A

Language domain

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201
Q

Three domains of language include:

A

Content
Form
Use

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202
Q

Rules of language government the meaning of individual words and word combinations (content)

A

Semantics

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203
Q

Three basics of communication

A

Request
Reject
Comment

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204
Q

Two main players are

A

Senders and receivers

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205
Q

Senders ___ and ___ information being conveyed

A

Formulate and transmit information being conveyed

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206
Q

Receivers ___ and _____ information

A

Receives and comprehends information

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207
Q

Pulling together one’s thoughts ideas before sharing them

A

Formulation

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208
Q

Coveys ideas by writing, gesturing, singing and speaking

A

Transmission

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209
Q

Receives information is -

A

Reception

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210
Q

Making sense of information is -

A

Comprehension

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211
Q

The four processors include

A
  1. Formulation
  2. Transmission
  3. Reception
  4. Comprehension
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212
Q

Feedback corresponds to senders and receivers in order to be effected communication both must maintained active and dynamic communication

A
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213
Q

Seven communication factors include

A
  1. Instrumental
  2. Regulatory
  3. Interactional
  4. Personal
  5. Heuristic
  6. Imaginative
  7. Informative
214
Q

We communicate by using

A

Linguistic, non-linguistic and paralinguistic

215
Q

What is the correct term for children who show delay in the earliest stage of language development?

A

Later talkers

216
Q

Which of the following is a correct way of expressing that a child has a language disorder?

A

Language disability

217
Q

What percentage of children are affected by a primary language disorder?

A

7 to 10%

218
Q

A language disorder affects a persons language abilities with respect to ____, _____, and ____ of language

A

Form, content, and

219
Q

___ involves the planning and programming. In which the lesion occurs on the frontal cortex surrounding Broca’s area

A

Apraxia

220
Q

___ is related to execution disorders. Most commonly found in Parkinson’s disease

A

Dysarthria

221
Q

Vocal characteristics that make our voice unique are

A

Frequency (pitch)
Intensity (loudness)
Quality(combination factors)

222
Q

The ___ system provides the necessary breath support by pushing air out of the lungs through the trachea

A

Respiratory system

223
Q

The acoustic measurements of “prosody” are

A

Pitch
Loudness
Rhythm

224
Q

Resonating regulates the ___ of the airflow as it moves from the ___ into the ___ and ____

A

Regulates the vibration of the airflow as it moves from pharynx into oral and nasal cavity

225
Q

Electroglottography (EEG) provides an objective measurement of:

A

Vocal fold contact

226
Q

Paralysis of the tongue will impede speech production at the level of:

A

Motor execution

227
Q

Which of the following processes describes when humans volitionally set their vocal folds into vibratory pattern?

A

Phonation

228
Q

When experts group voice disorders together based on etiological classification, what are they basing their grouping on?

A

Cause

229
Q

An impairment of which subsystem would result in the presence of hypernasality?

A

Resonation

230
Q

The most serious outcome of vagus nerve damage is:

A

Vocal fold paralysis

231
Q

Intensity is measured in:

A

Decibels (dB)

232
Q

Frequency is measured in ___ and is called ___

A

Hz ; pitch

233
Q

Intensity is also called ___

A

Loudness

234
Q

Which is not a kinematic aspect of movement that, when disturbed causes dysarthria?

A

Muscle tone

235
Q

During which step of the assessment process does evidence -based practice play the largest role?

A

Treatment recommendations

236
Q

Treatment of fluency disorders include:

A

Direct methods & indirect methods

237
Q

Abnormal loudness, soft sounds can not hear, loud sounds are too too loud

A

Recruitment

238
Q

Ringing noise in the ear

A

Tinnitus

239
Q

Poor ability to hear speech when in a noisy environment

A

Signal - to - noise ratio loss

240
Q

Presbycusis is the degeneration of the ___ and other auditory structures as a results of the normal ___

A

is the degeneration of the inner ear and other auditory structures as a results of the normal aging process

241
Q

Hypersensitive ears and are unable to tolerate ordinary levels of noise

A
242
Q

Which of the following refers to the softest level at which a person can detect a pure tone sound during a hearing test?

A

Threshold

243
Q

What percentage of the American population is affected by hearing loss?

A
244
Q

Which of the following types of hearing loss reappears periodically?

A

Fluctuating

245
Q

In decibels, what is the difference between the threshold of sound and the threshold of pain?

A

140 dB

246
Q

Which of the following professions does not play a role in the diagnosis and treatment of children with hearing loss?
A. Speech language pathology
B. Gastroenterologist
C. Teacher
D. Audiologist

A

Gastroenterologist

247
Q

What is the most common communication mode for children who are deaf or hard- of- hearing ?

A

Both speech and sign

248
Q

Types of hearing tests include:

A

Pure tone Audiogram
Otoacoustic emission
Evoked auditory potentials / auditory evokes response audiometer
Middle ear testing

249
Q

What is the most common type of communication impairment affecting children?

A

Language disorder

250
Q

What is the term called when a person tries to avoid a potential disfluency by talking around it?

A

Circumlocution

251
Q

Which is not one of the main cause for acquiring psychogenic stuttering?
A. Emotional trauma
B. Stress
C. Psychiatric disorder
D. Metabolic disorder

A
252
Q

description of body structures

A

Anatomy

253
Q

Functions of body structures

A

Physiology

254
Q

a scientific study of the nervous system

A

Neuroscience

255
Q

brain controls ____ and ____ systems for _____, _____ and ___

A

brain controls sensory and motor systems for speech, language, hearing, and swallowing

256
Q

Central nervous system includes the ___ and ___

A

Central nervous system: Brain and Spinal cord

257
Q

Peripheral nervous system includes ____ and ___

A

Peripheral nervous system: cranial and spinal nerves

258
Q

4 major components of AAC system

A

symbols, form aided/unaided, strategy, selection techniques

259
Q

when individuals cannot communicate their needs through verbalization.

A

Complex communication needs

260
Q

something used to represent an object, action, concept, or idea

A

Symbol

261
Q

Symbols include

A

A. Acoustic symbols
B. Graphic symbols
C. Manual symbols
D. Tactile symbols

262
Q

Which type of symbol is known as sounds

A

Acoustic symbols

263
Q

Which type of symbol is known as printed symbols

A

Graphic symbols

264
Q

Which type of symbols is known as body

A

Manual symbol

265
Q

Which type of symbols is known to be physically manipulated

A

Tactile symbols

266
Q

a method to send and receive message

A

Form

267
Q

Two types of forms or assistive devices used include

A

unaided, aided

268
Q

referred to the type of assistive device that is used to send or receive messages

A

Aid

269
Q

Type of assistive device that used no-tech

A

Unaided

270
Q

Type of assessment device which used low- light tech/ high- tech

A

Aided

271
Q

way symbols are effectively and efficiently conveved

A

Strategy

272
Q

Way in which message is transmitted

A

Technique

273
Q

Two types of technique used

A

Direct and indirect

274
Q

way in which message is transmitted through physical contact

A

Direct

275
Q

way in which message is transmitted through no physical contact such as eye scanning

A

Indirect

276
Q

4 major purposes of communication

A
  1. Need and wants
  2. Information transfer
  3. Social closeness
  4. Social etiquette
277
Q

AAC users include individuals with ____ ______ communication disorders include impairment in _____, _____, _____, and ____.

A

Individuals with severe expressive communication disorders include impairment in speech, language, reading, and writing.

278
Q

Long term goal for AAC users to _____ ____ and _____ communication between individuals who use AAC and their communication partners

A

Long term goal: to maximize effective and successful communication between individuals who use AAC and their communication partners

279
Q

ELL stands for

A

English language learner

280
Q

ability to speak standard American English in school and African American English at home is a sample of

A

Code switching

281
Q

the systematic process of gathering information about an individual’s background, history, skills, knowledge, perceptions, and feeling

A

Assessment

282
Q

How are assessments induments categorized?

A

Professionals use a variety of instruments to identify an individual’s strengths and needs in communication and to develop an assessment protocol that is sensitive, comprehensive, and nonbiased

283
Q

is the extent to which a particular instrument measures what is says it measures

A

Validity

284
Q

Means the test is dependable

A

Reliability

285
Q

3 types of assessment

A
  1. Norm-referenced test
  2. Criterion-referenced test
  3. Dynamic assessment
286
Q

compares an examinee’s performance to that of other examines

A

Norm-referenced test

287
Q

Each examinee’s performance is compared to a pre-defines set of criteria or a standard

A

Criterion- referenced test

288
Q

A term used to describe food after it has been chewed and mixed with saliva.

A

Bolus

289
Q

A circuitous description of a word that cannot be recalled.

A

Circumlocution

290
Q

Encapsulated blood from a broken blood vessel.

A

Hematoma

291
Q

Bleeding from a broken artery or vein.

A

Hemorrhage

292
Q

A reduced ability to meet daily living needs.

A

Disability

293
Q

The ability to understand the words that someone else is producing.

A

Intelligibility

294
Q

An area of dead tissue resulting from interruption of the blood supply

A

Infarct

295
Q

Disorders that have a physical cause.

A

Organic disorders

296
Q

The place of construction during the production of phonemes.

A

Place of articulation

297
Q

A small opening, such as the mouth; an artificial opening between cavities or canals, or between such and the surface of the body.

A

Stoma

298
Q

Posterior part of first temporal gyrus important for auditory processing and comprehension.

A

Wernickes area

299
Q

Surgical removal of the larynx.

A

Laryngectomy

300
Q

The process of learning a second culture.

A

Acculturation

301
Q

Any exchange of meaning, whether intended or unintended.

A

Communication

302
Q

Difficulty in swallowing or an inability to swallow.

A

Dysphagia

303
Q

Sounds and syllables of a word are articulated correctly but are substituted or transposed (e.g., bork for fork).

A

Literal paraphasia

304
Q

A new word that may be meaningless.

A

Neologism

305
Q

The meaning of individual words (lexical semantics) or the meanings that are expressed when words are joined together (relational semantics).

A

Semantics

306
Q

Vocal fold movement away from each other.

A

Abduction

307
Q

A morpheme that cannot stand alone as a separate word.

A

Bound morpheme

308
Q

The cranial nerve (VIll) devoted to carrying information about hearing and balance to and from the auditory nervous system. The eighth nerve in humans is made up of about 30,000 individual neurons.

A

Eighth nerve

309
Q

The structure of language, including syntax, morphology, and phonology.

A

Form

310
Q

The amount and type (e.g., oral versus nasal) of constriction during the production of phonemes.

A

Manner of articulation

311
Q

Articulation errors or phonological processes that are often seen in younger, normally developing children.

A

Speech delay

312
Q

Ringing, roaring, or other sounds heard in the absence of an external sound.

A

Tinnitus

313
Q

Hearing loss in both the right and the left ears.

A

Bilateral hearing loss

314
Q

Speech that is easy, rhythmical, and evenly flowing.

A

Fluency

315
Q

The percentage of individuals in a given population who report that they have, at one time or another, exhibited a particular disorder or condition.
Number of individuals who experience a disorder during their lifetime.

A

Incidence

316
Q

Lack of nasal resonance for the three phonemes /m/, /n/, and /ng/ resulting from a partial or complete obstruction in the nasal tract.

A

Hyponasal (Denasal)

317
Q

Abnormalities in the use of the nasal cavity during speaking. Individuals can be hypernasal (excessive nasality) or denasal (insufficient nasality)

A

Resonance disorders

318
Q

Devices that transfer an acoustic message over distance so that the listener can hear the signal with greater intensity and signal-to-noise ratio.

A

Assistive listening device (ALD)

319
Q

Refers to the meaning of language, known as semantics.

A

Content

320
Q

Hearing loss caused by damage to the inner ear or auditory nerve.

A

Sensory/ neural hearing loss

321
Q

A pressure/compliance function that reveals the status of the middle ear.

A

Tympanometry

322
Q

A hearing loss in the right or left ear, but not both.

A

Unilateral hearing loss

323
Q

A mental dictionary of words.

A

Lexicon

324
Q

Disorders that occur after speech and language skills have been acquired.

A

Acquired disorders

325
Q

Pictures, photographs, line drawings, or icons that aid communication.

A

Graphic symbols

326
Q

A morpheme that can stand alone as a word.

A

Free morpheme

327
Q

A combination of conductive and sensorineural hearing loss in the same ear.

A

Mixed hearing loss

328
Q

An articulation error in which a child leaves out a speech sound (e.g., tip is produced as “ti”).

A

Omission

329
Q

A speech sound that can change meaning (e.g., pan versus fan).

A

Phoneme

330
Q

An unusual amount of tense, within-word disfluencies that interfere with the continuity of speech.

A

Stuttering

331
Q

A graph depicting the threshold of audibility (in decibels) as a function of different frequencies.

A

Audiogram

332
Q

A loss of hearing sensitivity caused by damage to the outer or middle ear.

A

Conductive hearing loss

333
Q

The lowest frequency (first harmonic) of a complex periodic waveform.

A

Fundamental frequency (F0)

334
Q

The part of grammar that concerns the study of morphemes (the smallest units of meaning).

A

Morphology

335
Q

Articulation errors or phonological processes that are rarely seen in normally developing children.

A

Speech disorder

336
Q

Communicative abilities that differ from those of other individuals in the same environment in the absence of an impairment.

A

Communication differences

337
Q

The ability to produce language (the opposite of comprehension).

A

Expression

338
Q

Any loss or abnormality of psychological, physiological, or anatomic structure or function.

A

Impairment

339
Q

Airflow through the nose, usually measurable or audible and heard most frequently during the production of voiceless plosives and fricatives; usually indicative of an incomplete seal between the nasal and oral cavities.

A

Nasal emission

340
Q

Conventions related to the way words are ordered to create sentences.

A

Syntax

341
Q

A disorder in the planning and programming of speech movements due to left frontal lobe brain damage.

A

Acquired apraxia of speech

342
Q

Disturbed muscle tone; disturbed phonation.

A

Dysphonia

343
Q

Phrase repetitions, interjections, or revisions.

A

Non-stuttering-like disfluencies

344
Q

A “two-toned” voice resulting from simultaneous vibration of two structures with differing vibratory frequencies.

A

Diplophonia

345
Q

A test consists of pictures of words. The pictured words usually sample all of the consonants at the initial, medial, and final positions of words. Children are asked to say the name of the object when they see it.

A

Single word articulation test

346
Q

Conventions related to the use of language in various speaking situations.

A

Pragmatics

347
Q

Expressive and receptive language skills in one’s native language and knowledge of linguistic code specific to AAC, such as line drawings and signs.

A

Linguistic competence

348
Q

A device that is surgically placed in the cochlea and provides auditory stimulation for individuals with severe to profound hearing loss.

A

Cochlear implant

349
Q

The flow and ease of speech is disrupted by repetitions, interjections, pauses, and revisions.

A

Disfluency

350
Q

A significant difficulty with the acquisition and use of one or more of the following abilities: listening, speaking, reading, writing, reasoning, mathematical computation, or mathematical problem-solving.

A

Learning disability

351
Q

Percentage of individuals in a population who demonstrate a disorder at a given point in time.

A

Prevalence

352
Q

A two-syllable word pronounced with equal emphasis on both syllables.
Used in testing the SRT.

A

Spondee

353
Q

Communication that does not rely on any external aid or equipment, such as gestures, signs, vocalizations, or facial expression.

A

Unaided symbols

354
Q

The score, expressed in percentage, that reveals the ability to discriminate among the sounds of speech.

A

Word-recognition score (WRS)

355
Q

Movement toward the midline; vocal fold movement toward each other.

A

Adduction

356
Q

A sound is termed “distorted” when the speaker does not achieve the intended articulatory target and the resulting production is not a recognizable phoneme in the child’s native language.

A

Distortion

357
Q

The federal law that provides federal funding for special education and regulates special education procedures.

A

Individuals with disabilities education act (IDEA)

358
Q

Measurable responses in the brainstem to a series of acoustic stimuli

A

Auditory brain stem response (ABR)

359
Q

Stuttering that typically occurs suddenly in adulthood after trauma to the brain.

A

Acquired stuttering

360
Q

An acoustic theory of speech production that states a sound energy source is modified by the filter characteristics of the vocal tract.

A

Source-filter theory

361
Q

The study of the organization of sounds; language rules that govern how sounds are combined to create words.

A

Phonology

362
Q

When the clinician examines the structures used to produce speech sounds and assesses adequacy of movement of those structures for speech production.

A

Oral-peripheral examination

363
Q

Sometimes used as a synonym for impairment, and other times as a synonym for disability.

A

Communication disorder

364
Q

Stuttering that continues into adulthood.

A

Chronic stuttering

365
Q

A disorder that reduces the control of movements for speech. The adult developed speech and language before the onset of the disorder. Therefore, primitive reflexes do not contribute significantly to the speech deficits that are observed.

A

Acquired dysarthria

366
Q

The ability to understand language (the opposite of expression).

A

Comprehensibility

367
Q

The ability to hear differences between sounds; the second level in auditory processing

A

Discrimination

368
Q

Reduced vocal capacity resulting from prolonged overuse, muscle fatigue, tissue irritation, or general laryngeal or specific problems relating to the opening and closing of the glottis; characterized by air loss and sometimes hoarseness and pitch breaks.

A

Hypofunction

369
Q

A plosive sound made by stopping and releasing the breath stream at the level of the glottis; may be a compensatory behavior in the presence of inadequate velopharyngeal closure.

A

Glottal stops

370
Q

Language characterized by predominance of content words (nouns, verbs) and absence of functors (articles, prepositions); characteristic of Broca’s aphasia.

A

Agrammatism

371
Q

Two or more consonants spoken together without an intervening vowel (e.g., spoon, tree, blue, string).

A

Consonant cluster

372
Q

Prespeech vocalizations.

A

Babbling

373
Q

A slow-motion video image of vocal fold vibration.

A

Stroboscopy

374
Q

Babbled sequences in which the syllable content varies.

A

Variegated babbling

375
Q

A new growth.

A

Neoplasm (tumor)

376
Q

An integer multiple of the fundamental frequency.

A

Harmonic

377
Q

Variation of a language that is understood by all speakers of the “mother’ language. May include sound, vocabulary, and grammatical variations.

A

Dialect

378
Q

Disorder where pervasive and sustained difficulties with reciprocal social communication and social interaction are characterized by severe problems with conversation, sharing of interests or emotions, and initiating or responding to social interactions.

A

Autism spectrum disorder

379
Q

Accumulation of an excessive amount of fluid in cells, tissues, or serous cavities; usually results in a swelling of the tissues.

A

Edema

380
Q

The structure of language. Form relates to the linguistic systems of phonology, morphology, and syntax.

A

Language form

381
Q

The opening between the middle ear and scala tympani of the cochlea. The round window membrane covers the opening.

A

Round window

382
Q

Pertaining to or restricted to one side of the body.

A

Unilateral

383
Q

A disorder with no known physical cause; the cause of difficulties with speech development cannot be determined precisely.

A

Functional disorder

384
Q

Refers to injuries or structures within the brain.

A

Intracerebral

385
Q

Infection of the middle ear

A

Otitis media

386
Q

Mechanically neutral position of the respiratory system.

A

Resting expiratory level

387
Q

Babbled sequences in which the same syllable is repeated.

A

Reduplicated babbling

388
Q

The cone-shaped layer of tissue that separates the external auditory meatus from the middle ear cavity. The malleus is connected to the inner surface of the tympanic membrane.

A

Tympanic membrane

389
Q

Two languages are acquired early in development.

A

Simultaneous bilingual

390
Q

Axonal fibers that conduct impulses toward the central nervous system;
nerve impulses carried from the periphery to the brain.

A

Afferent

391
Q

The percentage of stuttered words from the first to the second repeated reading of the same passage.

A

Consistency

392
Q

A standardized set of symbols and the conventions for combining those symbols into words, phrases, sentences, and texts for the purpose of communicating thoughts and feelings.

A

Language

393
Q

An instrument used to measure the acoustic correlate of nasality.

A

Nasometer

394
Q

Fricative sounds produced by approximating the back of the tongue and the posterior pharyngeal wall and forcing air through the resultant constriction.

A

Pharyngeal fricative

395
Q

The number of cycles of vibration completed in one second, measured in hertz (Hz).

A

Frequency

396
Q

Tissue coverings overlying the central nervous system.

A

Meninges

397
Q

The difference, in decibels, between the air conduction threshold and the bone conduction threshold.

A

Air bone gap

398
Q

The sensory cells of hearing and balance that convert sound energy from one form to another.

A

Hair cells

399
Q

Rhythmic involuntary movements resulting from basal ganglia disease/damage.

A

Tremor

400
Q

Adaptations that stutterers make as they try to get through primary stuttering behaviors or to avoid them altogether. The most common secondary stuttering behaviors are eye blinks, lip pursing, arm movements, and head nods.

A

Secondary stuttering behaviors

401
Q

Brodmann’s area 44 located on the third frontal gyrus anterior to the precentral face area. Functions to program speech movements.

A

Broca’s area

402
Q

Withering or wasting away of tissues or organs.

A

Atrophy

403
Q

The opening or space between the vocal folds.

A

Glottis

404
Q

A collection of sensory and supporting cells that extends from the base of the cochlea to its apex.

A

Organ of corti

405
Q

Middle bone in the ossicular chain, attached at either end to the malleus and stapes, respectively.

A

Incus

406
Q

Either spontaneous or evoked sounds emanating from the inner ear.

A

Otoacoustic emission (OAE)

407
Q

The distance an object moves from its resting position during vibration.

A

Amplitude

408
Q

The pathway of sound that bypasses the conductive mechanisms of the outer and middle ears by vibrating the skull and stimulating the cochlea of the inner ear.

A

Bone conduction

409
Q

Examination of the interior of a canal or hollow space; the insertion of a flexible scope through the nose to look at the anatomy of the pharynx and to observe the pharynx and larynx betore and after swallowing.

A

Endoscopy

410
Q

Surgical repair of a palatal defect.

A

Palatoplasty

411
Q

Meaningless words typical of Wernicke’s aphasia.

A

Jargon aphasia

412
Q

The innermost bone in the ossicular chain. One end is attached to the incus; the other end, or footplate, occupies the oval window.

A

Stapes

413
Q

Fissure that divides posterior frontal lobe from anterior parietal lobe.

A

Rolandic fissure

414
Q

A lack of oxygen.

A

Anoxia

415
Q

Someone who becomes bilingual as a result of living in a bilingual environment. May come about because of forced migration or for economic reasons such as traveling to another country to find work.

A

Circumstantial bilingual

416
Q

A portion of the brain containing the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla.

A

Brain stem

417
Q

A laryngeal speech in which the air supply for phonation originates in the upper portion of the esophagus, with the pharyngoesophageal segment functioning as a neoglottis.

A

Esophageal speech

418
Q

A severe speech disorder with words dominated by simple syllable shapes (e.g., CV, CVC, VC), vowel errors, and sounds that develop early /m/, /p/, /b/).

A

Childhood apraxia of speech (CAS)

419
Q

A fatty insulator covering the axon that speeds transmission of impulses.

A

Myelin

420
Q

Unintended substitution of one word for another, usually from the same category (e.g., horse for cow).

A

Verbal paraphasia

421
Q

The patterns of stress and intonation in a language.

A

Prosody

422
Q

An area in the temporal lobe of the brain that is responsible for hearing.

A

Auditory cortex

423
Q

A fluency disorder that is characterized by very rapid bursts of dysrhythmic, unintelligible speech.

A

Cluttering

424
Q

Torn tissue caused by blunt trauma.

A

Lacerations

425
Q

On the outer ear, the visible flap of skin attached to the head.

A

Pinna

426
Q

Accumulation of material within an artery. When complete, it causes a stroke.

A

Thrombosis

427
Q

A basic unit of speech production that must contain a vowel.

A

Syllable

428
Q

The ability to identify a written word without having to sound it out

A

Word recognition

429
Q

Major motor pathway from cerebral cortex to brainstem and spinal cord.

A

Pyramidal tract

430
Q

The ability to understand that particular behaviors have particular consequences.

A

Awareness

431
Q

Paralysis or weakness on one side of the body. Typically the side affected is opposite the side of the brain injury.

A

Hemiplegia

432
Q

A disorder in the psychological processes involved in learning that may manifest itself in an imperfect ability to listen, think, speak, read, write, spell, or do mathematical calculations.

A

Specific learning disorder

433
Q

Small cone-shaped process hanging from the lower border of the soft palate at midline.

A

Uvula

434
Q

The three interconnected bones in the middle ear that conduct vibration from the tympanic membrane to the cochlea.

A

Ossicular chain

435
Q

A system of canals connecting portions of the inner ear. The larger osseous labyrinth contains perilymph, and the smaller membranous labyrinth contains endolymph.

A

Labyrinth

436
Q

Difficulty producing speech sounds and speech sound sequences.

A

Articulation disorder

437
Q

Impairment that involves the nervous system.

A

Neurogenic disorders

438
Q

Stuttering-like disfluencies (i.e., repetitions, prolongations, and blocks) that are sometimes referred to as “core behaviors.”

A

Primary stuttering behaviors

439
Q

A graph that shows the amplitude or phase as a function of frequency.

A

Spectrum

440
Q

The opening between the middle ear and scala vestibuli of the cochlea. The stapes footplate seals the opening.

A

Oval window

441
Q

Space that separates the medial surfaces of the cerebral hemispheres.

A

Longitudinal fissure

442
Q

Bulge in the wall of an artery resulting from weakness.

A

Aneurysm

443
Q

That part of the pharynx above the level of the soft palate that opens anteriorly into the nasal cavity.

A

Nasopharynx

444
Q

Communication that does not rely on any external aid or equipment, such as gestures, signs, vocalizations, or facial expression.

A

Unaided symbols

445
Q

The lowest intensity at which speech can barely be heard.

A

Speech recognition threshold (SRT)

446
Q

Vocal production in which the vocal folds do not completely touch each other during vibration, resulting in excess air escaping through the glottis.

A

Breathy

447
Q

Deterioration of intellectual abilities such as memory, concentration, reasoning, and judgment resulting from organic disease or brain damage.
Emotional disturbances and personality changes often accompany the intellectual deterioration.

A

Dementia

448
Q

A certificate issued by the American Speech-Language-Hearing Association in either speech-language pathology or audiology that affirms the individual has met the minimal standards for practice in the profession.

A

Certificate off clinical competence (CCC)

449
Q

Speech and language disorders that occur after birth (during childhood).

A

Developmental disorders

450
Q

Abnormalities in the pitch, loudness, or quality of the voice.

A

Phonatory disorders

451
Q

Making assessment and treatment decisions by integrating the best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values.

A

Evidence-based practice

452
Q

A tacky yellow or brown substance secreted by oil glands in the external auditory meatus. This substance is commonly known as earwax.

A

Cerumen

453
Q

The pathway of sounds that includes the outer ear, middle ear, inner ear, and structures beyond.

A

Air conduction

454
Q

focuses on one or two specific language goals. The clinician selects the activities and materials rather than following the child’s lead and responds to the child’s communication to model and highlight the specific forms that are being targeted for intervention.

A

Hybrid approach

455
Q

Lists of 50 words that are supposed to contain all the phonetic elements of English speech. These lists are used for testing word recognition.

A

Phonetically balanced (PB)

456
Q

The coiled tube in the inner ear that houses the sensory cells for hearing; a structure in the inner ear that converts the mechanical energy received from the middle ear into an electrochemical code for transmission to the brain.

A

Cochlea

457
Q

Excessive forcing and straining that usually occurs at the level of the vocal folds but also may occur at various points along the vocal tract.

A

Hyperfunction

458
Q

To spread or invade by metastasis, usually from cancer.

A

Metastasize

459
Q

Conduction away from a central structure; nerve impulses carried from the brain to the periphery.

A

Efferent

460
Q

Overlapping of articulatory and acoustic patterns of speech production caused by anticipation or retention of a speech feature.

A

Coarticulation

461
Q

Loss of voice.

A

Aphonia

462
Q

An early language intervention approach in which the clinician and child engage in conversation during play to increase the number and type of words that the child uses during conversational turns.

A

Child-centered approach

463
Q

Phonation that sounds both harsh and breathy. Hoarseness results fro irregular vocal fold vibrations.

A

Hoarse

464
Q

A specialized cell that conducts bioelectrical messages in the nervous system.

A

Neuron

465
Q

Single-syllable-word repetitions, syllable repetitions, sound repetitions, prolongations, and blocks.

A

Stuttering-like disfluencies

466
Q

Language use refers to the social aspects of language, which are also called pragmatics.

A

Use

467
Q

The eighth cranial nerve that carries information about hearing and balance from the inner ear to the brain.

A

Auditory nerve

468
Q

Structure at the back of the brainstem; important for motor control.

A

Cerebellum

469
Q

A type of metalinguistic awareness. Knowledge of the sequence of sounds that make up words (e.g., soup starts with an /s/). The ability to identify the phoneme structure of words (e.g., ball begins with a /b/).

A

Phonological awareness

470
Q

A syndrome of deficits in visual, auditory, intellectual, and motor functions in the critical early development period for speech and language.

A

Cerebral palsy

471
Q

A type of dysfluency in which a sound is held out or prolonged for an unusually long time.

A

Prolongations

472
Q

Neuromuscular speech disorder.

A

Dysarthria

473
Q

The lower part of the brainstem that contains many of the motor nuclei important for swallowing.

A

Medulla

474
Q

An alternative communication technique that displays items that are tactually discriminable such as real, partial, or artificially associated objects.

A

Tactile selection set

475
Q

Temporary interruption of blood flow to an area of the brain. The effects typically resolve within 24 hours.

A

Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

476
Q

The physical ability to produce speech sounds. A speaker needs to be able to manipulate the articulators, including the tongue, lips, and velum, to produce all of the required place and manner distinctions.

A

Articulation

477
Q

A moving clot from another part of the body that may lodge and interrupt the blood supply.

A

Embolus

478
Q

The use of years and months (e.g., 2;3 means 2 years, 3 months) to determine a child’s age and to compare the child with other children of the same age.

A

Chronological age

479
Q

Choices that speakers, signers, and writers make about the words and sentence structures that will best express their intended meanings. These choices are made with respect to the formality of the speaking situation.
Language use relates to the linguistic system of pragmatics.

A

Language use

480
Q

A representation of the signal intensity compared with the background noise intensity calculated by subtracting the intensity of the noise from the intensity of the signal (in decibels).

A

Signal-to-ration (SNR)

481
Q

A therapy approach in which the clinician teaches the client to alter the way he stutters.

A

Stuttering modification

482
Q

A graph that shows the amplitude as a function of time.

A

Waveform

483
Q

The frequency at which an object vibrates best.

A

Resonance

484
Q

The ability to initiate, maintain, and terminate conversations and build relationships using communication.

A

Social competence

485
Q

The fluid found within the membranous labyrinth.

A

Endolymph

486
Q

The reference that uses normal hearing in the scale of decibels.

A

Hearing level (HL)

487
Q

Surgical procedure to aid in achieving velopharyngeal closure. A flap of skin is used to close most of the opening between the velum and the nasopharynx.

A

Pharyngeal flap surgery

488
Q

Recovery from stroke resulting from physiological and reorganizational changes in the brain and not attributable to rehabilitation.

A

Spontaneous recovery

489
Q

One of the seven bones that form the skull. The temporal bone contains the middle and inner ears.

A

Temporal bone

490
Q

Language disorder affecting phonology, grammar, semantics, and pragmatics as well as reading and writing caused by focal brain damage.

A

Aphasia

491
Q

Language proficiency at a level that requires low cognitive load in situations that are highly contextualized.

A

Basic interpersonal communication skills (BICS)

492
Q

The meaning of an utterance or word. Content relates to the linguistic system of semantics.

A

Language content

493
Q

Difficulties acquiring language in the absence of any other mental, sensory, motoric, emotional, or experiential deficits.

A

Specific language impairment

494
Q

The area of clinical and educational practice that aims to support communication for people who require adaptive support and assistance for speaking and/or writing.

A

Augmentative and alternative communication (AAC)

495
Q

An early language intervention model in which the clinician provides more structure and aims to teach a certain form, function, or pragmatic skill

A

Clinician-centered models

496
Q

Dysarthria that is present from birth and can co-occur with other disorders.

A

Congenital dysarthria

497
Q

The canal that connects the middle ear cavity to the back of the throat. The Eustachian tube opens briefly to equalize pressure in the middle ear.

A

Eustachian tube (ET)

498
Q

Communication that incorporates an external aid, such as a real objects, photographs, or line drawings.

A

Aided symbols

499
Q

alternating use of two languages at the word, phrase, and sentence levels with a complete break between languages in phonology. In African American English (AAE), code switching refers to alternations in intonation, prosody, and specific grammatical features determined by the situational context. More formal settings typically result in “switches” toward Standard American English, and more informal situations typically yield switches toward AAE grammatical and intonational patterns.

A

Code switching

500
Q

Simplifications of adult-like productions of words. Some of the more common processes are weak syllable deletion, final consonant deletion, and velar fronting (substitution of a /t/ or /d/ for a /k/ or /g/). Descriptions of variations in the way sounds are produced when they co-occur with other sounds. For example, vowels become more nasal when they are followed by a nasal consonant in words.

A

Phonological processes

501
Q

Furrows of the cerebral cortex

A

Sulci

502
Q

A hollowed out portion of the temporal bone that encases the inner ear.

A

Osseous labyrinth

503
Q

Fiber pathways joining the cerebral hemispheres.

A

Corpus callosum

504
Q

Use and comprehension of two languages; speakers with some competence speaking one or more secondary languages but a different primary language. Level of proficiency in each language may be different across situations and communicative demands, and over time.

A

Bilingual

505
Q

Muscles originating or acting from outside of the part where they are located.

A

Extrinsic laryngeal muscles

506
Q

The outermost bone in the ossicular chain. One end is attached to the tympanic membrane; the other end is connected to the incus.

A

Malleus

507
Q

A speech error in which the child substitutes one sound (usually a sound that is developmentally earlier than the target) for the target sound. Common substitutions are /t/ for /s/ and /w/ for /r/.

A

Substitution

508
Q

A therapy strategy for stuttering in which persons who stutter are taught to ease their way out of repetitions, prolongations, and blocks.

A

Pull-out

509
Q

The fluid found within the bony labyrinth.

A

Perilymph

510
Q

Excessively undesirable amount of perceived nasal cavity resonance during phonation.

A

Hypernasality

511
Q

When describing a person with a communication disorder, professionals should refer to the individual first, and then the disorder that the person presents. For example, it is better to say “children with autism” than “autistic children.” Similarly, “He has aphasia” is preferred over “He is an aphasic.

A

Person-first language

512
Q

Vibration of the vocal folds during the production of a phoneme

A

Voicing

513
Q

Structure located at either side of the third ventricle; responsible for sensorimotor integration and sensory projection to the cerebral cortex.

A

Thalamus

514
Q

A device used for the measurement of hearing.

A

Audiometer

515
Q

Understanding of a communicated message in context regardless of the modality used for expression.

A

Comprehension

516
Q

A flexible sac found within the osseous labvrinth that houses the structures of the inner ear.

A

Membranous labyrinth

517
Q

A middle ear muscle that is attached to the stapes. This muscle contracts in response to intense sound.

A

Stapedius muscle

518
Q

Difficulty understanding and implementing the language conventions for producing speech sounds and speech sound sequences.

A

Phonological disorder

519
Q

A resonance of the vocal tract.

A

Formant

520
Q

Two major parts of the cerebrum joined by the corpus callosum.

A

Cerebral hemispheres

521
Q

A stroke. Interruption of blood supply to an area of the brain.

A

Cerebrovascular accident (CVA)

522
Q

Chemical messengers of the nervous system; a substance released by hair cells or neurons that affects neighboring neurons.

A

Neurotransmitters

523
Q

Horizontal fissure superior to the temporal lobe.

A

Sylvian fissure

524
Q

Plosive sounds produced by contacting the back of the tongue to the posterior pharyngeal wall, building up air pressure behind that obstruction, and rapidly releasing it to produce a popping or (ex)plosive sound.

A

Pharyngeal stops

525
Q

A discipline that consists of two professions (speech-language pathology and audiology). The professions are composed of people who study the nature of communication and communication disorders and who assess and treat individuals with communication disorders.

A

Communication sciences and disorders (CSD)

526
Q

Surgical procedure to aid in achieving velopharyngeal closure; the posterior faucial pillars are raised and used to form a bulge that reduces the size of opening between the velum and the nasopharynx.

A

Superior sphincter pharyngoplasty

527
Q

A second language is introduced after the primary language is established.

A

Sequential bilingual

528
Q

A social, educational, or occupational disadvantage that is related to an impairment or disability. This disadvantage is often affected by the nature of the person’s impairment and by the attitudes and biases that may be present in the person’s environment.

A

Handicap

529
Q

The set of beliefs and assumptions shared by a group of people that guide how individuals in that group think, act, and interact on a daily basis.

A

Culture

530
Q

Unusual disruptions in the rhythm and rate of speech. These disruptions are often characterized by repetitions or prolongations of sounds or syllables plus excessive tension.

A

Fluency disorder

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