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myexam > Exam D > Flashcards

Exam D Flashcards

2
Q

QUESTION 1 Which of the following sets numerous flag fields in a TCP packet? A. XMAS B. DNS poisoning C. SYN flood D. ARP poisoning

A

A. XMAS

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3
Q

QUESTION 2 Which of the following devices is MOST commonly used to create a VLAN? A. Hub B. Router C. Firewall D. Switch

A

D. Switch

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4
Q

QUESTION 3 Which of the following network design elements provides for a one-to-one relationship between an internal network address and an external network address? A. NAT B. NAC C. VLAN D. PAT

A

A. NAT - Network Address Translation

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5
Q

QUESTION 4 Using proximity card readers instead of the traditional key punch doors would help to mitigate: A. impersonation B. tailgating C. dumpster diving D. shoulder surfing

A

D. shoulder surfing

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6
Q

QUESTION 5 In planning for a firewall implementation, Pete, a security administrator, needs a tool to help him understand what traffic patterns are normal on his network. Which of the following tools would help Pete determine traffic patterns? A. Syslog B. Protocol analyzer C. Proxy server D. Firewall

A

B. Protocol analyzer

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7
Q

QUESTION 6 Jane, a security administrator, has asked her technicians to determine if a certificate is valid. Which of the following should be checked to determine whether or not a certificate has been invalidated? A. CA B. CRL C. PKI D. CRC

A

B. CRL - Certificate Revocation List

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8
Q

QUESTION 7 TKIP uses which of the following encryption ciphers? A. RC5 B. AES C. RC4 D. 3DES

A

C. RC4 -

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9
Q

QUESTION 8 The process of exchanging public keys is BEST explained as which cryptography concept? A. Symmetric encryption B. Asymmetric encryption C. Key escrow D. Transport encryption

A

B. Asymmetric encryption

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10
Q

QUESTION 9 Which of the following network segments would be BEST suited for installing a honeypot? A. Management network B. Internal network C. External network D. DMZ network

A

C. External network

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11
Q

QUESTION 10 Jane, a security architect, has noticed significant performance loss with the increase in user-base of her PKI infrastructure. Which of the following could she deploy in order to increase response times? A. Smart card B. CAC C. HSM D. VPN

A

C. HSM - Hardware Security Module

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12
Q

QUESTION 11 Pete, a security administrator, has configured and implemented an additional public intermediate CA. Which of the following must Pete submit to the major web browser vendors in order for the certificates, signed by this intermediate, to be trusted? A. Die root CA’s private key B. The root CA’s public key C. The intermediate CA’s public key D. The intermediate CA’s private key

A

C. The intermediate CA’s public key

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13
Q

QUESTION 12 Which of the following is BEST described by a scenario where organizational management chooses to implement an internal Incident Response Structure for the business? A. Deterrence B. Separation of duties C. Transference D. Mitigation

A

D. Mitigation

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14
Q

QUESTION 13 A data loss prevention strategy would MOST likely incorporate which of the following to reduce the risk associated with data loss? A. Enforced privacy policy, encryption of VPN connections, and monitoring of communications entering the organization. B. Enforced acceptable usage policy, encryption of confidential emails, and monitoring of communications leaving the organization. C. Enforced privacy policy, encryption of VPN connections, and monitoring of communications leaving the organization. D. Enforced acceptable usage policy, encryption of confidential emails, and monitoring of communications entering the organization.

A

B. Enforced acceptable usage policy, encryption of confidential emails, and monitoring of communications leaving the organization.

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15
Q

QUESTION 14 In a wireless network, which of the following components could cause too much coverage, too little coverage, and interference? A. MAC filter B. AP power levels C. Phones or microwaves D. SSID broadcasts

A

B. AP power levels

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16
Q

QUESTION 15 Which of the following has a default port of 22? A. SSH B. FTP C. TELNET D. SCAP

A

A. SSH - Secure Shell 22

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17
Q

QUESTION 16 The public key is used to perform which of the following? (Select THREE). A. Validate the CRL B. Validate the identity of an email sender C. Encrypt messages D. Perform key recovery E. Decrypt messages F. Perform key escrow

A

C. Encrypt messages E. Decrypt messages F. Perform key escrow

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18
Q

QUESTION 17 Pete, a network administrator, implements the spanning tree protocol on network switches. Which of the following issues does this address? A. Flood guard protection B. ARP poisoning protection C. Loop protection D. Trunking protection

A

C. Loop protection

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19
Q

QUESTION 18 Matt, a security administrator, has noticed that the website and external systems have been subject to many attack attempts. To verify integrity of the website and critical files, Matt should: A. Require all visitors to the public web home page to create a username and password to view the pages in the website B. Configure the web application firewall to send a reset packet to the incoming IP from where an attack or scan signature has been detected. C. Create file hashes for website and critical system files, and compare the current file hashes to the baseline at regular time intervals. D. Reboot the web server and database server nightly after the backup has been completed.

A

C. Create file hashes for website and critical system files, and compare the current file hashes to the baseline at regular time intervals.

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20
Q

QUESTION 19 Matt, the administrator, has been told to confirm what account an email was sent from. Which of the following is this an example of? A. Surveillance B. E-discovery C. Chain of custody D. Integrity

A

B. E-discovery

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21
Q

QUESTION 20 Which of the following is a feature of Kerberos? A. One-way encryption B. Vendor patch management C. Only available for Linux systems D. Single sign-on

A

D. Single sign-on

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22
Q

QUESTION 21 Which of the following is a secure alternate to Telnet? A. TFTP B. HTTPS C. SSH D. SCP

A

C. SSH - Secure Shell 22 (Telnet 23)

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23
Q

QUESTION 22 Temporary employees are not allowed to work overtime. The information security department must implement a control to enforce this measure. Which of the following measures would BEST enforce this policy? A. Separation of duties B. Personal identification card C. Single sign-on D. Time of day restrictions

A

D. Time of day restrictions

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24
Q

QUESTION 23 Sara from IT Governance wants to provide a mathematical probability of an earthquake using facts and figures. Which of the following concepts would achieve this? A. Qualitative Analysis B. Impact Analysis C. Quantitative Analysis D. SLE divided by the ARO

A

C. Quantitative Analysis

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25
Q

QUESTION 24 During an anonymous penetration test, Jane, a system administrator, was able to identify a shared print spool directory, and was able to download a document from the spool. Which statement BEST describes her privileges? A. All users have write access to the directory. B. Jane has read access to the file. C. All users have read access to the file. D. Jane has read access to the directory.

A

C. All users have read access to the file.

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26
Q

QUESTION 25 Sara, an IT security technician, is actively involved in identifying coding issues for her company. Which of the following is an application security technique that she can use to identify unknown weaknesses within the code? A. Vulnerability scanning B. Denial of service C. Fuzzing D. Port scanning

A

C. Fuzzing

27
Q

QUESTION 26 Sara, an IT security technician, has identified security weaknesses within her company’s code. Which of the following is a common security coding issue? A. Input validation B. Application fuzzing C. Black box testing D. Vulnerability scanning

A

A. Input validation

28
Q

QUESTION 27 Which of the following is an application security coding problem? A. Error and exception handling B. Patch management C. Application hardening D. Application fuzzing

A

A. Error and exception handling

29
Q

QUESTION 28 Pete, an IT security technician, needs to establish host based security for company workstations. Which of the following will BEST meet this requirement? A. Implement IIS hardening by restricting service accounts. B. Implement database hardening by applying vendor guidelines. C. Implement perimeter firewall rules to restrict access. D. Implement OS hardening by applying GPOs.

A

D. Implement OS hardening by applying GPOs.

30
Q

QUESTION 29 Which of the following data security techniques will allow Matt, an IT security technician, to encrypt a system with speed as its primary consideration? A. Hard drive encryption B. Infrastructure as a service C. Software based encryption D. Data loss prevention

A

A. Hard drive encryption

31
Q

QUESTION 30 Jane, an IT security technician, receives a call from the vulnerability assessment team informing her that port 1337 is open on a user’s workstation. Which of the following BEST describes this type of malware? A. Logic bomb B. Spyware C. Backdoor D. Adware

A

C. Backdoor

32
Q

QUESTION 31 Which of the following is based on asymmetric keys? A. CRLs B. Recovery agent C. PKI D. Registration

A

C. PKI - Public Key Infrastructure

33
Q

QUESTION 32 Which of the following is BEST described as a notification control, which is supported by other identification controls? A. Fencing B. Access list C. Guards D. Alarm

A

D. Alarm

34
Q

QUESTION 33 Pete, an employee, needs a certificate to encrypt data. Which of the following would issue Pete a certificate? A. Certification authority B. Key escrow C. Certificate revocation list D. Registration authority

A

A. Certification authority

35
Q

QUESTION 34 Which of the following BEST describes the weakness in WEP encryption? A. The initialization vector of WEP uses a crack-able RC4 encryption algorithm. Once enough packets are captured an XOR operation can be performed and the asymmetric keys can be derived. B. The WEP key is stored in plain text and split in portions across 224 packets of random data.Once enough packets are sniffed the IV portion of the packets can be removed leaving the plain text key. C. The WEP key has a weak MD4 hashing algorithm used. A simple rainbow table can be used to generate key possibilities due to MD4 collisions. D. The WEP key is stored with a very small pool of random numbers to make the cipher text. As the random numbers are often reused it becomes easy to derive the remaining WEP key.

A

D. The WEP key is stored with a very small pool of random numbers to make the cipher text. As the random numbers are often reused it becomes easy to derive the remaining WEP key.

36
Q

QUESTION 35 Which of the following is used to ensure message integrity during a TLS transmission? A. RIPEMD B. RSA C. AES D. HMAC

A

D. HMAC - Hash Message Authentication Code

37
Q

QUESTION 36 Sara, the Chief Security Officer (CSO), has had four security breaches during the past two years. Each breach has cost the company $3,000. A third party vendor has offered to repair the security hole in the system for $25,000. The breached system is scheduled to be replaced in five years. Which of the following should Sara do to address the risk? A. Accept the risk saving $10,000. B. Ignore the risk saving $5,000. C. Mitigate the risk saving $10,000. D. Transfer the risk saving $5,000.

A

D. Transfer the risk saving $5,000.

38
Q

QUESTION 37 A company has asked Pete, a penetration tester, to test their corporate network. Pete was provided with all of the server names, configurations, and corporate IP addresses. Pete was then instructed to stay off of the Accounting subnet as well as the company web server in the DMZ. Pete was told that social engineering was not in the test scope as well. Which of the following BEST describes this penetration test? A. Gray box B. Black box C. White box D. Blue box

A

C. White box

39
Q

QUESTION 38 Which of the following is an authentication and accounting service that uses TCP for connecting to routers and switches? A. DIAMETER B. RADIUS C. TACACS+ D. Kerberos

A

C. TACACS+ - Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus - 49

40
Q

QUESTION 39 Which of the following can BEST help prevent cross-site scripting attacks and buffer overflows on a production system? A. Input validation B. Network intrusion detection system C. Anomaly-based HIDS D. Peer review

A

A. Input validation

41
Q

QUESTION 40 Pete, a security engineer, maintains up-to-date virus scan signatures on all systems. Which of the following should Pete do as well to prevent the exploiting of known vulnerabilities? A. Application patching B. White box penetration testing C. Vulnerability assessment D. Port scanning

A

A. Application patching

42
Q

QUESTION 41 If Pete, the administrator, is blocking port 69, which of the following protocols will this affect? A. TFTP B. FTP C. RDP D. DNS

A

A. TFTP - Trivial File Transfer Protocol 69

43
Q

QUESTION 42 Which of the following should be connected to the fire alarm system in order to help prevent the spread of a fire in a server room without data loss to assist in an FM-200 deployment? A. Water base sprinkler system B. Electrical C. HVAC D. Video surveillance

A

C. HVAC

44
Q

QUESTION 43 Pete, a home user, is trying to secure his wireless network from his technical neighbor. Which of the following should Pete implement on his access point to keep his neighbor from accessing his wireless network and viewing Pete’s online chats? A. WPA B. RIPEMD C. WEP D. LEAP

A

A. WPA - Wireless Protected Access

45
Q

QUESTION 44 Matt, a security consultant, has been tasked with increasing server fault tolerance and has been given no budget to accomplish his task. Which of the following can Matt implement to ensure servers will withstand hardware failure? A. Hardware load balancing B. RAID C. A cold site D. A host standby

A

B. RAID

46
Q

QUESTION 45 Pete has obtained a highly sensitive document and has placed it on a network drive which has been formatted with NTFS and is shared via CIFS. Which of the following access controls apply to the sensitive file on the server? A. Discretionary B. Rule based C. Role based D. Mandatory

A

A. Discretionary

47
Q

QUESTION 46 Matt, the backup operator, is implementing a new backup plan. Which of the following is the MOST important step in a backup plan to ensure the disaster recovery plan is executed without any incidents? A. Verify that the data on the backup tapes can be restored on a test server. B. Verify that the backup plan is stored in digital format on the backup tapes. C. Verify that the data on the backup tapes can be restored on the web server. D. Verify that all backup data is encrypted on the tape and store the encryption key offsite.

A

A. Verify that the data on the backup tapes can be restored on a test server.

48
Q

QUESTION 47 Which of the following information should Pete, an employee at a pharmaceutical company, review during the companywide information security awareness training, before handling customer data? A. Acceptable use policy B. Account management procedures C. Laws and regulations D. End user license agreement

A

A. Acceptable use policy

49
Q

QUESTION 48 Matt has installed a new KDC for his corporate environment. Which of the following authentication protocols is Matt planning to implement across the organization? A. LDAP B. RADIUS C. Kerberos D. XTACACS

A

C. Kerberos 88

50
Q

QUESTION 49 Which of the following uses only a private key? A. RSA B. ECC C. AES D. SHA

A

C. AES - Advanced Encryption Standard

51
Q

QUESTION 50 Sara, a security manager, received the results of a vulnerability assessment stating that several accounts were enabled, even though the employees had been terminated in months prior. Which of the following needs to be performed to ensure this issue is mitigated for future tests? A. Change management reviews B. Routine account audits C. Incident management audits D. User rights and permissions reviews

A

B. Routine account audits

52
Q

QUESTION 51 Matt, a security manager, receives the results of a social engineering exercise. An attacker was able to successfully impersonate Sara, a company executive, over the phone when contacting the helpdesk and gained access to her password. After further research, it was determined that someone in the company had thrown out printouts of Sara’s calendar for that week, showing when she would be traveling on business. Which of the following should employees be trained on to help mitigate this issue in the future? A. Password behaviors B. Help desk procedures C. Secure disposal policy D. Clean desk policies

A

C. Secure disposal policy

53
Q

QUESTION 52 Sara is sniffing traffic on a wireless network configured with WEP. She obtains numerous packets and then attempts to breach the network. Which of the following is Sara MOST likely attempting? A. Bluejacking B. IV attack C. Evil twin D. War driving

A

B. IV attack - Initialization Vector

54
Q

QUESTION 53 Matt, a security technician, has been tasked with updating client anti-virus solutions. He makes sure that all of the workstations have been properly updated. Later that day, he receives a call from a user stating that their PC is unresponsive and the screen blanks out every few minutes. Matt goes to the website of the anti-virus vendor and sees that new virus definitions are available. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the behavior that the user is reporting? A. A zero-day attack B. IV attack C. XML injection D. Cross-site scripting

A

A. A zero-day attack

55
Q

QUESTION 54 Pete, a network administrator, needs to implement a VPN. Which of the following could he use to accomplish this objective? (Select TWO). A. SMTP B. SNMP C. IPSec D. SSL E. SCP F. SFTP

A

C. IPSec - Internet Protocol Security D. SSL - Secure Sockets Layer

56
Q

QUESTION 55 Matt has recently implemented a new network design at his organization and wishes to actively test security controls on the new network. Which of the following should Matt perform? A. Vulnerability assessment B. Black box testing C. White box testing D. Penetration testing

A

D. Penetration testing

57
Q

QUESTION 56 Jane has implemented an array of four servers to accomplish one specific task. This is BEST known as which of the following? A. Clustering B. RAID C. Load balancing D. Virtualization

A

A. Clustering

58
Q

QUESTION 57 Pete, an employee, was recently indicted for fraud charges. Jane, a new security technician at the company, was tasked with collecting information from Pete’s workstation. Jane seized the hard drive from the workstation without collecting any other information from the workstation. Which of the following principles did Jane violate? A. Track man hours and expense B. Order of volatility C. Damage control D. Preservation of evidence

A

B. Order of volatility

59
Q

QUESTION 58 A database server containing personal information and a file server containing non-critical information must be secured. Which of the following would be a BEST practice to secure the servers? (Select TWO). A. Place the file server behind a door requiring biometric authorization. B. Place both servers under the system administrator’s desk. C. Place the database server behind a door with a cipher lock. D. Place the file server in an unlocked rack cabinet. E. Place the database server behind a door requiring biometric authorization.

A

A. Place the file server behind a door requiring biometric authorization. E. Place the database server behind a door requiring biometric authorization.

60
Q

QUESTION 59 A company is experiencing an extraordinary amount of web traffic that is crippling the server. The web traffic suddenly stops. The mail server experiences the same amount of traffic as before then crashes. Which of the following attacks would this BEST describe? A. DoS B. Spam C. Man-in-the-middle D. Replay

A

A. DoS

61
Q

QUESTION 60 Which of the following would ensure confidentiality and authorization to the management interface of a router? A. Enable an access list and RADIUS B. Enable SSH and TACACS C. Enable an access list and PKI D. Enable LDAP and strong passwords

A

B. Enable SSH and TACACS (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System-49)

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