Exam course Flashcards

1
Q

Discuss the sensitivity and specificity of eFAST in the context of multi-trauma?

A

Ultrasound can detect as little as 20ml in the pleural space

96% sensitive for pneumothorax

XR requires at least 200ml of fluid in pleural space

Ultrasound 98.1% sensitive for intra-abdominal fluid

Pericardial ultrasound 100% sensitive, 96.9% specific and 97.3% accurate

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2
Q

What are advantages of ultrasound?

A

Faster than CT or X-ray

Radiation free

Performed at bedside simultaneously with other medical care

A superior test in many cases (haemothorax, pneumothorax)

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3
Q

What are the limitations of eFAST in the context of multrauma?

A

Not reliable for detecting solid organ injuries

Obesity
-Fat obscures ultrasound and reduces sensitivity

Subcutaneous air can distort ultrasound images - subcutaneous emphysema

Retroperitoneum not able to be visualised

Cannot detect < 200ml of peritoneal free fluid

Pancreas not well visualized

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4
Q

What can increase sensitivity of eFAST?

A

Repeat scanning if clinical suspicion remains high

Trendelenburg positioning can make upper quadrant views more sensitive

Reverse trendelenburg can make pelvic views more sensitive

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5
Q

What are 5 false positives with eFAST?

A

Pericardial fat pads

Perirenal fat

Seminal vesicles with fluid

Fluid - lungs - ascitic abdomen

POD fluid

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6
Q

Explain your airway management algorithm in a patient with multiple traumatic injuries?

A

Assess airway is protected
-GCS > 8
-No vomiting
-No significant oropharyngeal bleeding
-Sufficient respiratory effort

If airway protected - supplemental oxygen, assess breathing

If airway not protected
-Assess for obstruction - suction etc.

If airway not protected then proceed to intubation

-PPV with BVM

-1st option RSI with video laryngoscope

-If unable to intubate then place LMA and repeat attempt with video laryngoscope + bougie or fiberoptic airway

-If unable to place LMA proceed to surgical airway

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7
Q

A patient with multi trauma arrives in ED with shock. State the priorities you will focus on in assessment. State your initial management.

A

Assess for cause of shock

Hypovolaemic - secondary to haemorrhage
-Primary survey including eFAST
-CXR, pelvis XR, CT scan

Resuscitation
-RBC, platelets, FFP in 1:1:1 ratio
-Prevent hypothermia
-TXA 1g IV followed by 1g over 8 hours

Targeted interventions
-e.g. pelvic binder, splint and reduce fractures, torniquet, laparotomy, thoracotomy

Non haemorrhagic
-Tension pneumothorax
-Cardiac tamponade
-Cardiogenic - myocardial contusion
-Neurogenic
-Septic

Treat etiology: ICC, thoracotomy, noradrenaline

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8
Q

State the criteria for a surgeon to attend a patient with trauma in ED?

A

Hypotension SBP < 90mmHg

Gunshot wounds to neck, chest or abdomen, proximal extremities

Respiratory compromise requiring urgent airway

Penetrating wound to neck/ chest/ abdomen/ pelvis

GCS < 8 attributed to trauma

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9
Q

What are the goals of a resuscitative thoracotomy?

A

Relieve cardiac tamponade

Perform open cardiac massage

Occlude descending aorta to increase blood flow to heart and brain

Control life threatening thoracic bleeding - hilar twist

Control broncho venous air embolism - hilar twist, trendelenburg position

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10
Q

How do you resuscitate a patient following a traumatic arrest?

A

Intubate

Insert bilateral chest drains (or thoracostomies)

Resuscitative thoracotomy

Limit fluid as this will worsen outcome unless hemorrhage controlled

Limit inotropes and pressors until circulation restored

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11
Q

Describe the AAST grading of liver injuries?

A

Most important to know grade III - V

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12
Q

Where is free fluid seen in the abdomen on an eFAST?

A

Morrisons pouch - hepatorenal space

Between liver and diaphragm

Right paracolic gutter

Splenorenal space

Rectovesical space

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13
Q

What is the AAST grading of splenic injuries?

A
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14
Q

What abdominal injuries are associated with a chance fracture?

A

Injuries

Duodenal
-First part intraperitoneal, remainder retroperitoneal
-Abdominal compression by seatbelt causes high intraduodenal pressures
-Penetrating injuries
-Shearing forces at duodenojejunal flexure or ampulla (points of fixation) lead to submucosal hematoma
-Diagnoses made by oral/ NG contrast study (XR/CT)
-Lower sensitivity on CT and AXR

Pancreatic injury
-Penetrating injury
-Rare following blunt injury - usually a blow to epigastrium
-Associated with duodenal rupture or severe multiple organ injury
-Seen in lap belt injuries, chance fractures
-CT scan 50% sensitive on initial scan, increases to > 80% with repeat CT at 8-12 hours
-Negative amylase and lipase is reassuring (95% sensitive)

Mesenteric injury
-Haematoma, vessel laceration
-CT 95% sensitive

Small bowel injury
-Jejunal or ileum tear
-Peritonism in 85%
-Erect CXR 25% sensitive
-CT: free intra-abdominal gas in 40% cases, free fluid without solid organ injury, free fluid in 80% of cases
-Mesenteric fat stranding
-Extravasation of oral contrast
-Can be normal in 5% of cases
-DPL > 95% sensitivity and specificity
-Laparoscopy highly sensitive and specific

Colonic injury
-Mortality 10%
-Operative repair for grade II-V injuries

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15
Q

Define abdominal compartment syndrome?

Other than abdominal trauma list 4 other groups of patients at risk of abdominal compartment syndrome?

Discuss the diagnosis of abdominal compartment syndrome?

State 5 key principles involved in the management of ACS?

A

Organ dysfunction caused by intra-abdominal hypertension

Intra abdominal pressure usually 5mmHg

APP = MAP - IAP

APP target is 60mmHg

Abdominal compartment syndrome is intra abdominal pressure > 20mmHg associated with organ dysfunction (raised lactate/ creatinine)

Risks

-Trauma and aggressive fluid resuscitation

-Burns > 30% TBSA

-Liver transplantation

-Massive ascites

-Retroperitoneal conditions: AAA, pelvic fracture, pancreatitis

-Sepsis with third spacing

Systemic effects
-Raised ICP, decreased CCP
-Hypotension, decreased venous return, decreased CO, increased SVR
-Decreased UO, renal blood flow, GFR
-Decreased coeliac blood flow/ SMA blood flow
-Decreased hepatic flow/ mitochondrial function/ lactate clearance
-Increased intrathoracic pressure, increased PIP, reduced compliance

Diagnosis
-CT may demonstrate extrinsic compression of IVC, massive abdominal distension, bilateral inguinal hernia

Measurement of intra-abdominal pressure
-Using intravesical catheter and pressure transducer

Management

-Surgical decompression of abdominal cavity if pressure > 25mmHg - delayed abdominal wall closure
-Escharotomy if abdominal burn
-Percutaneous catheter to decompress massive ascites
-Supine position
-Improve abdominal wall compliance: Pain control, sedation, paralysis, mechanical ventilation, permissive hypercapnia

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16
Q

What does damage control surgery/ resuscitation mean, what are its goals and what are its indications?

A

Pre op
-Prevent hypothermia / acidosis/ coagulopathy

In theatre / pre op indications for damage control resuscitation rather than definitive repair
-Severe physiological insult - hypothermia, coagulopathy (INR > 1.5), pH < 7.2, lactate > 5, dysrhythmia
-Inability to control bleeding using conventional methods
-Large volume resuscitation required (> 10U RBC)

Goals
-Arrest bleeding
-Prevent worsening hypothermia, acidosis, coagulopathy

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17
Q

List 6 CT findings that indicate need for surgery/ laparotomy in a haemodynamically stable patient with blunt abdominal trauma?

A

Diaphragmatic herniation

Sold organ injury - e.g. bowel, bladder

Vascular injury requiring repair if angiography not available

End organ devascularisation

Traumatic herniation of bowel or solid organs with ischaemia or infarction

Internal herniation of mesentery

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18
Q

List 5 indications for intercostal catheter with pneumothorax?

A

Traumatic pneumothorax

Moderate to large pneumothorax

Increasing size of pneumothorax after conservative management

Patient has a pneumothorax and requires ventilatory support or general anaesthesia

Pneumothorax with associated haemorrhage

Tension pneumothorax

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19
Q

What are risks of intercostal catheter?

A

Intercostal artery tear

Haemothorax

Cardiac contusion

Empyema/ pneumonia

Parenchymal injury

Pulmonary oedema

Bronchopleural fistula

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20
Q

What are options for managing VT?

A

DC synchronised cardioversion
-Use as first option if underlying comorbidity such as heart failure or unstable

Procainamide
-25mg/min IV
-Use as first option if patient stable as will also treat SVT with aberrancy, AVRT WPW and monomorphic VT with safety and efficacy
-Avoid if unstable or patient has heart failure

Amiodarone
-300mg IV over 30 mins
-Treatment of choice in unstable patient or in setting of cardiac arrest.
-Avoid if prolonged QT or WPW suspected

Lignocaine 1mg/kg IV
-Third line agent in VT which is stable
-Agent of choice in patients with suspected toxicological cause of VT

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21
Q

What are structural causes of VT?

What are causes of VT in a structurally normal heart?

A

Structural heart disease
-Ischaemic cardiomyopathy
-Non ischaemic cardiomyopathy: HCM, cardiac sarcoid, arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy

Structurally normal heart
-Idiopathic VT - RVOT VT, fascicular VT
-Primary arrhythmic syndromes: brugada, long QT, short QT, catecholamine polymorphic VT

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22
Q

What are causes of grey turners and cullens sign?

A

Periumbilical ecchymoses

Causes
-Pancreatitis
-Retroperitoneal bleeding
-Anticoagulation complication
-Rectus sheath haematoma
-Ectopic pregnancy
-Ishcaemic bowel
-Ruptured AAA
-Peforated duodenal ulcer

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23
Q

What are causes of erythema nodosum?

How is it treated?

A

Streptococcal infection
TB
Mycoplasma pneumonia
EBV
Penicillin
Lymphoma
Sarcoidosis
COC

Treatment
-NSAIDS
-Corticosteroids
-Potassium iodide

24
Q

What are the major and minor criteria for acute rheumatic fever?

A

Major: Carditis (murmur), polyarthritis, chorea, erythema marginatum, subcutaneous nodules

Minor: Fever, raised ESR or CRP, polyarthralgia, prolonged PR on ECG

Diagnosis: 2 major or 1 major and 2 minor and evidence of preceding GAS

25
Q

Causes of limp in a 20 month old indigenous child?

A

NAI - metaphyseal corner fracture

Septic arthritis

Acute rheumatic fever

Malignancy - leukaemia

Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

Toddlers fracture

26
Q

What makes septic arthritis more likely?

A

Non weight bearing

Temp > 38.5

ESR > 40

WBC > 12

If 2 positive 40% likelihood
If 3 93% probability
If 4 99%

27
Q

Causes of conjunctivitis in neonates?

Tests?

Treatment?

A

Gonococcus infection
Chlamydia
Streptococcus/ staph
HSV
Adenovirus

PCR swab for gonorrhoea and chlamydia
Vaginal swab or urine testing of mother

Treatment
-IV cefotaxime 50mg/kg
-PO azithromycin 10mg/kg
-Eye toilet: Normal saline or breast milk
-Topical chloramphenicol ointment

Treat mother and all sexual contacts for STD
IM ceftriaxone 500mg and 1g azithromycin PO, metronidazole 400mg BD for 14 days

28
Q

What are risk factors for subdural haematoma?

What are the clinical differences between chronic and acute subdural presentations?

Treatment?

A

Risk factors
-Alcohol misuse
-Elderly
-Coagulopathy
-Brain mass

Acute < 3 days, sub acute 3 days to 3 weeks
-More likely to present with focal neurological signs e.g. hemiparesis

Chronic > 3 weeks
-More likely to present with non focal symptoms
-Cognitive impairment, headache, presyncope, ataxia, seizures

Treatment
-HOB up 30 degrees
-RSI
-Urgent neurosurgical consultation
-Reverse anticoagulation
-Maintain SBP > 100mmHg
-Maintain SBP < 220 (labetalol)

29
Q

What are secondary causes of atrial fibrillation / flutter?

A

Acute coronary syndrome

Thyrotoxicosis

Electrolyte abnormalities - hypokalaemia

Infection

Dehydration

Exacerbation of COPD, pulmonary embolism

Alcohol

Myocarditis

30
Q

Approach to treatment of atrial fibrillation?

A

Exclude and manage secondary causes e.g. hypokalaemia, hyperthyroidism, PE

Unstable patient
-Urgent synchronised electrical cardioversion

Known LV systolic dysfunction or clinical heart failure
-Amiodarone

No systolic dysfunction or heart failure

Rate control vs rhythm control

Rhythm control
-Use if patient preference, highly symptomatic or physically active, difficulty achieving rate control, LV dysfunction, paroxysmal or early persistent AF, absence of severe atrial enlargement, acute AF
-Electrical cardioversion acutely if low thromboembolic risk
-Flecainide if structurally normal heart and low thromboembolic risk
-Amiodarone can be considered in those with structural heart disease

Rate control (80bpm goal but accept < 110)
-Use if advanced age, longstanding AF, severe LA enlargement, minimal symptoms, multiple previous attempts to restore sinus rhythm
-Beta blockers (avoid in severe COPD) e.g. 2.5-5mg IV q 10 mins, up to 3 doses, or calcium channel blocker diltiazem 0.25mg/kg IV (avoid if LVEF < 40%)
-Digoxin can also be considered if above contraindicated

31
Q

Describe the CHADS VASC score?

A

Point for each of

Congestive heart failure
Hypertension
Age > 65 = 1 > 75 =2
Diabetes
Stroke
Vascular disease
Female

Score 1 consider anticoagulation
Score > 1 require anticoagulation

32
Q

What is the HAS-BLED score?

A

Hypertension

Abnormal renal function

Abnormal hepatic function

Haemorrhagic stroke

History previous major bleeding

Labile INR

Elderly

Alcohol use

Score > 2 associated with increased bleeding risk

33
Q

Important differences between atrial fibrillation and flutter?

A

Atrial flutter is less serious it tends to revert back to sinus rhythm spontaneously and has less risk of embolisation

34
Q

List 8 risk factors for blunt carotid/ cerebrovascular injury?

List 5 clinical features suggestive of blunt carotid/ cerebrovascular injury?

Treatment?

A

Risk factors
-High energy transfer mechanism
-Displaced midface fracture (Le Forte II or III)
-Complex skull fracture/ base of skull fracture
-C-spine fracture/ subluxation/ ligamentous injury
-Near hanging / anoxic brain injury
-Clothesline type injury
-Upper rib fractures
-Direct blow to neck

Signs/ symptoms
-Cervical bruit in patient < 50
-Headache/ facial pain
-Tinnitus
-Horners syndrome
-Expanding cervical haematoma
-Focal neurological deficit: hemiparesis, horners syndrome
-Neurologic findings unexplained by intracranial findings
-Stroke on CT or MRI

Treatment
-Surgical options such as stenting or bypass if > 70% occlusion or expending pseudoaneurysm
-Aspirin for minimum of 3 months

35
Q

Describe how to test how 5 nerves which could be injured with a knee dislocation?

A

Common peroneal
-Tibialis anterior, foot dorsiflexion
-Peroneus longus and brevis, foot eversion

Tibial nerve
-Gastrocnemius, soleus, foot plantarflexion

Femoral nerve
-Quadriceps, knee extension

Sciatic nerve
-Hamstrings, weakness of knee flexion
-Loss of power of all muscles below the knee causing foot drop

36
Q

Five causes of foot drop?

A

L4/5 root lesion

Sciatic nerve palsy

Peripheral neuropathy

Motor neurone disease

Common peroneal nerve palsy

37
Q

Treatment of tumour lysis syndrome?

A

IV fluid to promote renal clearance of unwanted metabolites
-5-6L/day of normal saline
-May require diuretics or renal replacement therapy if UO does not improve or gets hypervolaemia

Only treat hypocalcaemia if dysrhythmia/ heart block, seizure

Mange hyperkalaemia the same as for any other etiology

Treat hyperuricaemia with rasburicase IV and allopurinol

38
Q

How do you improve ED access block and overcrowding?

A

Reduce demand

In community
-Improved funding for complex care for GPs
-Integrated and coordinated care of frequent attenders
-Hospital outreach - hospital in the home

In ED
-Senior decision making 24/7
-Short stay units
-Accelerated evidence based protocols
-Access to consultations and investigations

Increase capacity

ED
-Fast track
-Short lab and radiology turn around times
-Senior staffing 24/7
-Full capacity protocol (send patient to ward)

ED department beds

Ward processes
-Bed coordinator
-Daily coordination rounds
-Clinical inpatient rounds at least once daily
-Improved speed of investigations and consultations

Ward beds
-> 3 acute hospital beds per 1000 population

Improving exit

Ward processes
-Morning discharge
-Weekend discharge
-Improved allied health and pharmacy access
-Better use of transit lounge

Community capacity
-Increase residential age care beds

39
Q

What are the causes, XR findings and US findings of pneumomediastinum?

A

Causes

-Blunt or penetrating chest trauma
-Neck, thoracic or retroperitoneal surgery
-Oesophageal perforation (boerhaave syndrome)
-Tracheal or bronchial perforation
-Laryngeal fracture
-Vigorous exercise
-Child birth
-Asthma
-Barotrauma - diving
-PPV
-Retropharyngeal infection

XR features
-Linear density parallel to heart border
-Extending above aortic root
-Does not change with position
-Subcutaneous emphysema
-Pneumopericardium
-Gas around pulmonary artery
-Continuous diaphragm sign

Ultrasound
-Cervical subcutaneous emphysema - ‘dirty’ posterior acoustic shadow
-Loss of the parasternal and apical views on TTE, preservation of subxiphoid window
-Air gap sign

40
Q

Causes, XR features and US features of pneumopericardium?

A

Causes
-PPV
-Thoracic surgery/ pericardial fluid drainage
-Penetrating trauma
-Blunt trauma
-Infectious pericarditis with gas producing organisms

XR features
-Heart partially or completely surrounded by gas
-Continuous diaphragm sign
-Halo sign
-Limited to pericardial reflection
-Changes with position

US
-Reverberation artefacts similar to A-lines
-Heart remains obscured throughout cardiac cycle
-Involves subxiphoid window

41
Q

Causes, XR features and US features of pneumomediastinum?

A

Perforated hollow viscous
-Peptic ulcer disease
-Ischaemic bowel
-Bowel obstruction
-Diverticulitis
-Malignancy
-IBD
-Perforation
-Peritoneal dialysis
-Vaginal aspiration - water skiing
-PPV

AXR
-Double wall sign ‘Riglers sign’
-Telltale triangle sign
-Periportal free gas sign
-Falciform lifament sign

CXR
-Subdiaphragmatic free gas
-Continuous diaphragm sign
-Cupola sign

US
-Enhancement of peritoneal stripe sign
-Discrete hyperechoic foci representing gas bubbles

42
Q

Sensitivity of different criteria for detecting VT?

A

Brugada 89%
Griffith 94%
Vereckei aVR 87%

43
Q

What is the dose of verapamil for SVT?

A

5mg IV, followed by 1mg/min up to 15mg

44
Q

How do you treat antidromic AVRT?

A

If stable then procainamide first line

Alternative is DC cardioversion

45
Q

When can adenosine be used with WCT?

A

In general avoided with WCT

Can be used for RVOT VT

Probably safe in antidromic WPW but need to beware of adenosine induced AF

Cannot treat WPW with antidromal conduction with atrial fibrillation with AV nodal blockers
-Avoid adenosine, amiodarone, beta blockers, CaCh blockers
-Options are cardioversion or procainamide

46
Q

Use of procainamide?

A

Excellent success rates for all types of WCT

More effective than amiodarone for monomorphic VT

VT
SVT or AF with BBB
SVT or AF with WPW

Side effects
-Hypotension
-Prolong QRS/ QT interval

47
Q

What are contraindications to amiodarone?

A

Pregnancy

Prolonged QT

Rapid AF + WPW

Accelerated idioventricular rhythm

Other slow VT conditions

48
Q

What causes a negative / low anion gap?

Explain how you differentiate causes of NAGMA?

A

Normal anion gap 4-12
Depends on normal serum albumin and phosphate

Reduced concentration of unmeasured anions such as albumin

Increased concentration of unmeasured cations
-Magnesium
-Calcium
-Lithium

Certain populations
-Myeloma
-Hypertriglyceridaemia
-Bromide OD

NAGMA causes

Chlorine (chloride excess)
Acetazolamide/ Addisons
Gastrointestinal (diarrhoea, fistulae, ileostomy)
Extras (RTA)

Calculate urinary anion gap to differentiate between GI and renal cause of NAGMA

AG > 30 HAGMA, 20-29 (1/3 not have acidosis)

49
Q

How to manage a patient with multiple ICD shocks?

A

Phantom - reassurance

Inappropriate
-Magnet
-AF or SVT - B blockers, CaCh blockers, activate SVT discriminators, ablation

Lead oversensing
-Magnet
-ICD reprogramming

Appropriate
-Evaluate and treat reversible causes (electrolytes, ischaemia)
-Antiarrhythmic agents
-Sedation
-IABP and ablation for refractory VT

50
Q

What factors predict deterioration after blunt chest trauma?

How do you manage patients after blunt chest trauma?

A

Risk factors
-Age > 55
-Uncontrolled pain
-Lung disease: smoker, COPD, asthma
-Obesity
-Respiratory compromise: increased WOB, RR, reduced saturations
-3 or more rib fractures
-Inability to cough
-Associated pneumothorax or haemothorax, pulmonary contusion, flail chest

Management
-Incentive spirometry
-Analgesia: paracetamol/ NSAID/ opioids/ PCA/ epidural
-Prevent complications: mobilise, chest physiotherapy, VTE prophylaxis

51
Q

Management of chest trauma?

A

If haemodynamically unstable and concern for tension
–> immediate needle decompression, intercostal catheter

Primary survery
-eFAST
-If lung sliding absent then CT or erect CXR

If CXR/ CT show large pneumothorax then small tube thoracostomy or pigtail. If small can observe.

52
Q

Management of haemodynamically unstable PE?

A

Tenecteplase up to 50mg IV (weight adjusted dose) or alteplase 100mg over 2 hours

1L 0.9% saline bolus

Enoxaparin 1mg/kg subcutaneous

Analgesia - fentanyl 1mcg/kg

Adrenaline or noradrenaline infusion

Liaise with respiratory/ ICU/ cardiothoracics re ECMO, open thrombectomy

53
Q

Approach to PE diagnosis?

A

Use wither wells or geneva rules to assess pretest probability

If low risk (wells score < 2)
-Apply PERC rule and if all 8 criteria -ve then no further testing required
-Risk of testing greater

If intermediate risk (wells score 2-6) or PERC +ve
–> D-dimer
-Age adjusted for patients over 50
-D-dimer x 10
-If normal then PE excluded
-If positive –> CTPA

If wells score > 6
–> CTPA

If contraindication to CTPA (contrast allergy, thyroid disease, renal failure) then V/Q scan

54
Q

What are the YEARS criteria?

A

Validated in pregnant and non pregnant

If no clinical DVT and no hemoptysis then proceed to D-dimer testing

If PE unlikely and D-dimer < 1000ng/ml then PE excluded

If PE likely and D-dimer < 500ng/ml then PE excluded

55
Q

Approach to PE diagnosis in pregnancy?

A

CXR to assess for alternate diagnosis such as pneumonia

If clinical DVT then can order an DVT duplex US and if DVT present treat with enoxaparin and assume PE

If no DVT then can use YEARS criteria (no DVT, no haemoptysis)

-If felt to be likely and< 500ng/ml excludes diagnosis, or < 1000ng/ml if PE felt to be unlikely

Alternative

-Request bilateral DVT duplex US - if DVT then treat and assume PE

-If no DVT but PERC negative can with shared decision making order a D-dimer and interpret as per trimester
-1st < 750ng/ml
-2nd < 1000ng/ml
-3rd < 1250ng/ml
—> PE excluded

Investigations
-If imaging required then options are V/Q scan or CTPA
-Shared decision making with patient
-Need normal CXR to have accurate V/Q scan
-CTPA is lower risk of radiation to fetus but higher to breast tissue of mother than V/Q scan
-Both are low risk overall to fetus
-If undergo CTPA shield abdomen, if undergo V/Q scan then IDUC and fluids to clear isotope

56
Q

Describe supraperiosteal, infraorbital and inferior alveolar nerve blocks?

A
57
Q

Describe the Ellis classification of dental fracture?

A