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ITIL Foundation Exam > Exam case 1 > Flashcards

Exam case 1 Flashcards

To train Multiple choice Question/Answers for the ITIL foundation Exam

1
Q
  1. What types of changes are NOT usually included within the scope of change
    management?
    a) Changes to a mainframe computer
    b) Changes to business strategy
    c) Changes to a service level agreement (SLA)
    d) The retirement of a service
A

Answer: 1 B
05-51 ST - 4.2.4.3
A change request is a formal communication seeking an alteration to one or more configuration items (CIs). Services, SLAs and computers are examples of CIs. A business strategy is not normally a CI and would be out of scope for change management

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of service operation?
    a) To undertake testing to ensure servicesare designed to meet business needs
    b) To deliver and manage IT services
    c) To manage the technology used to deliver services
    d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes
A

Answer: 2 A
02-09 SO 1.1.1
Each of these are a purpose of service operation except for option A, undertaking testing to ensure services are designed to meet business needs. Option A is part of service transition.

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3
Q
  1. What does the term IT operations control refer to?
    a) Managing the technical and applications management functions
    b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of operational activities and events
    c) A set of tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT infrastructure and applications
    d) A service desk monitoring the status of the infrastructure when operators are not available
A

Answer: 3 B
06-02 SO 6.5.1.1
IT operations control oversees the execution and monitoring of the operational activities and events in the IT infrastructure.

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4
Q
  1. Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service
    components?
    a) Service level management
    b) Service portfolio management
    c) Service asset and configuration management (SACM)
    d) Incident management
A

Answer: 4 C
05-63 ST 4.3.1
Part of SACM’s purpose is to maintain accurate information about assets, including the relationship between assets.

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5
Q
  1. What is the RACI model used for?
    a) Documenting the roles and responsibilities of stakeholders in a process or activity
    b) Defining requirements for a new service or process
    c) Analysing the business impact of an incident
    d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of service management
A

Answer: 5 A
07-02 SD 3.7.4.1
RACI is a responsibility model used by ITIL to help define roles and responsibilities.

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is the BEST description of an operational level agreement
    (OLA)?
    a) An agreement between an IT service provider and another part of the same organization that assists in the provision of services
    b) A written agreement between the IT service provider and their customer(s) defining key targets and responsibilities of both parties
    c) An agreement between two service providers about the levels of service required by the customer
    d) An agreement between a third party service desk and the IT customer about fix and response times
A

Answer: 6 A
03-12 SD 4.3.4
A is the OLA - The right answer,
B is the definition of an SLA,
C doesn’t correspond to an ITIL definition,
D involves a third party and is a contract.

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7
Q
  1. What is the MAIN purpose of availability management?
    a) To monitor and report availability of components
    b) To ensure that all targets in the service level agreements (SLAs) are met
    c) To guarantee availability levels for services and components
    d) To ensure that service availability meets the agreed needs of the business
A

Answer: 7 D
05-42 SD 4.4.1
A is a supporting element of availability management, not a main purpose.
B relates to service level management.
Availability management does not offer guarantees as identified in C.
D is the main purpose of availability management: - “to ensure that the level of availability delivered in all IT services meets the agreed availability needs… of the business.” - Right Answer

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following does service transition provide guidance on?
  2. Introducing new services
  3. Decommissioning services
  4. Transfer of services between service providers
    a) 1 and 2 only
    b) 2 only
    c) All of the above
    d) 1 and 3 only
A

Answer: 8 C
02-07 ST 1.1.1
All three are in scope for service transition as all three involve major change.

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9
Q
  1. Which one of the following is NOT a stage of the service life cycle?
    a) Service optimization
    b) Service transition
    c) Service design
    d) Service strategy
A

Answer: 9 A
02-02 SS 1.2
Service optimization is the correct answer

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10
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about a configuration management system
    (CMS) is CORRECT?
    a) The CMS should not contain corporate data about customers and users
    b) There may be more than one CMS
    c) There should not be more than one configuration management database (CMDB)
    d) If an organization outsources its IT services there is still a need for a CMS
A

Answer: 10 D
03-18 ST 4.3.4.3
A: a CMS can contain corporate data about users / customers such as location or department.
B and C: there may be more than one
CMDB but they will be part of a single CMS.
D is correct as a CMS still helps to control and report on the infrastructure when IT services
are outsourced.

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11
Q
  1. What are the three sub-processes of capacity management?
    a) Business capacity management, service capacity management and component capacity management
    b) Supplier capacity management, service apacity management and component capacity management
    c) Supplier capacity management, service capacity management and technology
    capacity management
    d) Business capacity management, technology capacity management and component capacity management
A

Answer: 11 A
05-45 SD 4.5.4.3
Book answer…business, service and component capacity management are the three sub-processes

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following would be stored in the definitive media library (DML)?
  2. Copies of purchased software
  3. Copies of internally developed software
  4. Relevant licence documentation
  5. The change schedule
    a) All of the above
    b) 1 and 2 only
    c) 3 and 4 only
    d) 1, 2 and 3 only
A

Answer: 12 D
03-19 ST 4.3.4.4
The DML contains master copies of all controlled software in an organization … “along with licence documents or information”. The change schedule would not be included.

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13
Q
  1. Which process is responsible for reviewing operational level agreements (OLAs) on a regular basis?
    a) Supplier management
    b) Service level management
    c) Service portfolio management
    d) Demand management
A

Answer: 13 B
05-31 SD 4.3.1
Service level management has responsibility for negotiating and agreeing OLAs.

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14
Q
  1. Which role should ensure that process documentation is current and available?
    a) The service owner
    b) The chief information officer
    c) Knowledge management
    d) The process owner
A

Answer: 14 D
07-01 SD 6.3.2
Book answer. A process owner should ensure process documentation is current and available.

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following does the release and deployment management process address?
  2. Defining and agreeing release and deployment plans
  3. Ensuring release packages can be tracked
  4. Authorizing changes to support the process
    a) 1 and 2 only
    b) All of the above
    c) 2 and 3 only
    d) 1 and 3 only
A

Answer: 15 A
05-61 ST 4.4.1
The two correct answers (1 and 2) are included in release and deployment objectives. Option 3 is addressed by change management.

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following are characteristics of every process?
  2. It is measurable
  3. It delivers a specific result
  4. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
    a) 1 and 3 only
    b) 1 and 2 only
    c) 2 and 3 only
    d) All of the above
A

Answer: 16 D
01-10 SS 2.2.2
Measurability, delivery of specific results, and delivery of results to a customer or stakeholder are all characteristics of a process.

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following are key ITIL characteristics that contribute to its success?
  2. It is vendor-neutral
  3. It is non-prescriptive
  4. It is best practice
  5. It is a standard
    a) 3 only
    b) 1, 2 and 3 only
    c) All of the above
    d) 2, 3 and 4 only
A

Answer: 17 B
01-02 SD 1.4
Option 4 is incorrect, ITIL is not a standard: ISO/IEC 20000 would be an example of a standard. ITIL is vendor-neutral, nonprescriptive, and provides a best practice framework.

18
Q
  1. Who should be granted access to the information security policy?
    a) Senior business managers and IT staff
    b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the information security manager
    c) All customers, users and IT staff
    d) Information security management staff only
A

Answer: 18 C
05-43 SD 4.7.4.1
In most cases the policies should be widely available to all customers and users and referenced in SLAs, OLAs and UCs.

19
Q
  1. Which of the following are valid elements of a service design package (SDP)?
  2. Agreed and documented business requirements
  3. A plan for transition of the service
  4. Requirements for new or changed processes
  5. Metrics to measure the service
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 and 3 only
    c) 1, 2 and 4 only
    d) All of the above
A

Answer: 19 D
03-14 SD App A
All of the elements identified are included in the service design package passed to service transition.

20
Q
  1. Which of the following are examples of tools that might support the service
    transition stage of the service lifecycle?
  2. A tool to store definitive versions of software
  3. A workflow tool for managing changes
  4. An automated software distribution tool
  5. Testing and validation tools
    a) 1, 3 and 4 only
    b) 1, 2 and 3 only
    c) All of the above
    d) 2, 3 and 4 only
A 
Answer: 20 C  
08-02  SS 7.1 
1 would be used to support a DML. 
2 helps change management. 
3 is a release and deployment tool. 
4 can help with testing and validation. They all support service transition. - Right Answer
21
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about problem management is/are
    CORRECT?
  2. It ensures that all resolutions or workarounds that require a change to a
    configuration item (CI) are submitted through change management
  3. It provides management information about the cost of resolving and preventing problems
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both of the above
    d) Neither of the above
A

Answer: 21 C
05-72 SO 4.4.2 and 4.4.6.4
Book answer. They are both valid roles for problem management.

22
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the request fulfillment process?
    a) Dealing with service requests from the users
    b) Making sure all requests within an IT organization are fulfilled
    c) Ensuring fulfillment of change requests
    d) Making sure the service level agreement (SLA) is met
A

Answer: 22 A
05-82 SO 4.3.1
Request fulfilment is the process responsible for dealing with service requests from the users. ‘All requests’ (B) is too wide a scope for the process. Change management looks after change requests (C). Service level management is responsible for D.

23
Q
  1. Which statement about value creation through services is CORRECT?
    a) The customer’s perception of the service is an important factor in value creation
    b) The value of a service can only ever be measured in financial terms
    c) Delivering service provider outcomes is important in the value of a service
    d) Service provider preferences drive the value perception of a service
A

Answer: 23 A
04-02 SS 3.2.3
D is incorrect; customer preferences drive value perception.
C is incorrect; delivering on customer outcomes is vital.
B is incorrect; the value of a service can be financial but other factors are also relevant.
A is correct; customer perception is a vital element in defining how much a customer values a service.

24
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about internal and external customers is MOST correct?
    a) External customers should receive better customer service because they pay for their IT services
    b) Internal customers should receive better customer service because they pay employee salaries
    c) The best customer service should be given to the customer that pays the most money
    d) Internal and external customers should receive the level of customer service that has been agreed
A

Answer: 24 D
01-04 SS 3.2.1.2
D is the correct response. Both internal and external customers should be provided with the agreed level of service, and with the same level of customer service.

25
Q
  1. Which one of the following should IT services deliver to customers?
    a) Capabilities
    b) Cost
    c) Risk
    d) Value
A

Answer: 25 D
01-03 SS 2.1.1
A service is a means of delivering value to customers. IT needs capabilities to deliver services. Cost and risk are what IT helps to
manage.

26
Q
  1. Which one of the following activities is part of the service level management (SLM) process?
    a) Designing the configuration management system from a business perspective
    b) Creating technology metrics to align with customer needs
    c) Monitoring service performance against service level agreements (SLAs)
    d) Training service desk staff how to deal with customer complaints about service
A

Answer: 26 C
05-31 SD 4.3.5.6
C is correct: monitoring the SLAs and performance against them is a vital part of the service level management process.
A - designing the CMS is a service asset and configuration management activity.
B – technology metrics are likely to be created within capacity management or other design processes.
D – training the service desk is a service desk role.

27
Q
  1. Which one of the following BEST summarizes the purpose of event management?
    a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control action
    b) The ability to detect events, restore normal service as soon as possible and minimize the adverse impact on business operations
    c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
    d) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of infrastructure devices
A

Answer: 27 A
05-81 SO 4.1.1
A - the ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control action is provided by event management.
B includes some incident management responsibilities.
C is a technical management task. D is likely to be shared between availability management and service level management.

28
Q
  1. Which one of the following should a service catalogue contain?
    a) The version information of all software
    b) The organizational structure of the company
    c) Asset information
    d) Details of all operational services
A

Answer: 28 D
05-41 SD 4.2.1
The service catalogue should contain details of all operational services.

29
Q
  1. What does “Warranty of a service” mean?
    a) The service is fit for purpose
    b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the service
    c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time
    d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security
A

Answer: 29 D
03-01 SS 2.1.6
A is part of the definition of utility.
B is unrealistic.
C could be feasible as a warranty statement from another industry but is not the definition of warranty as used by ITIL.
D is a good summary of warranty as defined by ITIL.

30
Q
  1. Which is the first activity of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?
    a) Understand the business vision and objectives
    b) Carry out a baseline assessment to understand the current situation
    c) Agree on priorities for improvement
    d) Create and verify a plan
A

Answer: 30 A
04-09 CSI 3.1
The improvement approach begins with embracing the vision by understanding the high-level business objectives.

31
Q
  1. Which one of the following is a benefit of using an incident model?
    a) It will make problems easier to identify and diagnose
    b) It means known incident types never recur
    c) It provides pre-defined steps for handling particular types of incidents
    d) It ensures all incidents are easy to solve
A

Answer: 31 C
05-71 SO 4.2.4.2
Incident models are designed to provide reusable steps that can be used to restore service after known incident types.

32
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the CORRECT sequence of activities for handling an
    incident?
    a) identification, logging, categorization, prioritization, initial diagnosis, escalation,
    investigation and diagnosis, resolution and recovery, closure
    b) prioritization, identification, logging, categorization, initial diagnosis, escalation,
    investigation and diagnosis, resolution and recovery, closure
    c) identification, logging, initial diagnosis, categorization, prioritization, escalation,
    resolution and recovery, investigation and diagnosis, closure
    d) identification, initial diagnosis, investigation, logging, categorization, escalation,
    prioritization, resolution and recovery, closure
A

Answer: 32 A
05-71 SO 4.2.5
The correct order is given in the diagram in the incident management process, and in the subsections of 4.2.5.

33
Q
  1. Which service lifecycle stage ensures that measurement methods will provide the required metrics for new or changed services?
    a) Service design
    b) Service operation
    c) Service strategy
    d) Service delivery
A

Answer: 33 A
04-04 SD 3.1.1
Measurements and metrics should be included in the design for a new or changed service.

34
Q
  1. Which of the following processes are concerned with managing risks to services?
  2. IT service continuity management
  3. Information security management
  4. Service catalogue management
    a) All of the above
    b) 1 and 3 only
    c) 2 and 3 only
    d) 1 and 2 only
A

Answer: 34 D
05-43 05-46 SD 4.7.2 SD 4.6.5.2
IT service continuity management carries out risk assessment as part of defining the requirements and strategy. Information security also needs to analyse security risks before taking action to mitigate them. Service catalogue management does not carry out these assessments.

35
Q
  1. Which one of the following is NOT a type of metric described in continual service improvement (CSI)?
    a) Process metrics
    b) Service metrics
    c) Personnel metrics
    d) Technology metrics
A

Answer: 35 C
04-10 CSI 5.5
Personnel metrics are not one ofthe three types of metrics described in CSI

36
Q
  1. Which statement about the relationship between the configuration management
    system (CMS) and the service knowledge management system (SKMS) is CORRECT?
    a) The SKMS is part of the CMS
    b) The CMS is part of the SKMS
    c) The CMS and SKMS are the same thing
    d) There is no relationship between the CMS and the SKMS
A

Answer: 36 B
03-16 ST 4.7.4.3
A is the wrong way round. C is incorrect as the SKMS contains more information than the CMS. D is incorrect as the CMS is part of the SKMS.

37
Q
  1. What is the role of the emergency change advisory board (ECAB)?
    a) To assist the change manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made during particularly volatile business periods
    b) To assist the change manager by implementing emergency changes
    c) To assist the change manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide whether they should be authorized
    d) To assist the change manager in speeding up the emergency change process so that no unacceptable delays occur
A

Answer: 37 C
05-51 ST 4.2.5.11
The emergency change advisory board (ECAB) provides assistance in the authorization of emergency changes.

38
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the service desk is/are CORRECT?
  2. The service desk is a function that provides a means of communication between IT and its users for all operational issues
  3. The service desk should be the owner of the problem management process
    a) 2 only
    b) 1 only
    c) Both of the above
    d) Neither of the above
A

Answer: 38 B
06-01 SO 6.3
The service desk should be the single point of contact for IT users on a day-by-day basis. The service desk manager may also be the incident management process owner but would not normally be the owner of problem management.

39
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the CORRECT list of the four Ps of service design?
    a) Planning, products, position, processes
    b) Planning, perspective, position, people
    c) Perspective, partners, problems, people
    d) People, partners, products, processes
A

Answer: 39 D
04-03 SD 3.1.5
Book answer: people, processes, products (services, technology and tools) and partners (suppliers, manufacturers and vendors).

40
Q
  1. Which one of the following represents the BEST course of action to take when a problem workaround is found?
    a) The problem record is closed
    b) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are documented within it
    c) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are documented on all related incident records
    d) The problem record is closed and details of the workaround are documented in a request for change(RFC)
A

Answer: 40 B
05-72 SO 4.4.5.6
A is incorrect; the problem record must remain open as it hasn’t yet been resolved.
B is correct to document the workaround on the
problem record, not on each Incident record [C], nor on an RFC [D].

ITIL Foundation Exam (1 decks)

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