exam cards Flashcards

to pass

1
Q

The system for implementing decisions made through the political process.

A

government

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2
Q

Groups of like-minded people who try to influence the government. American government is set up to avoid domination by any one of these groups

A

factions

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3
Q

The division of government power across the judicial, executive, and legislative branches

A

separation of powers

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4
Q

A system in which each branch of government has some power over the others

A

checks and balances

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5
Q

The division of power across the local, state, and national levels of government

A

federalism

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6
Q

Services or actions (such as protecting the environment) that, once provided to one person, become available to everyone. Government is typically needed to provide public goods because they will be under-provided by the free market

A

public goods

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7
Q

Situations in which the members of a group would benefit by working together to produce some outcome, but each individual is better off refusing to cooperate and reaping benefits from those who do the work

A

collective action problems

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8
Q

The incentive to benefit from others’ work without making a contribution, which leads individuals in a collective action situation to refuse to work together

A

free rider problem

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9
Q

The process that determines what government does

A

politics

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10
Q

An economic system based on competition among businesses without government interference

A

free market

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11
Q

Policies, generally favored by Democratic politicians, that use taxation to attempt to create social equality (for example, higher taxation of the rich to provide programs for the poor)

A

redistributive tax policies

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12
Q

Political conflict in the United States between “red-state” Americans, who tend to have strong religious beliefs, and “blue-state” Americans, who tend to be more secular

A

culture wars

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13
Q

A cohesive set of ideas and beliefs used to organize and evaluate the political world

A

ideology

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14
Q

The side of the ideological spectrum defined by support for lower taxes, a free market, and a more limited government; generally associated with Republicans

A

conservative

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15
Q

The side of the ideological spectrum defined by support for stronger government programs and more market regulation; generally associated with Democrats

A

Liberal

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16
Q

Those who prefer very limited government and therefore tend to be conservative on issues such as social welfare policy, environmental policy, and government funding for education but liberal on issues involving personal liberty such as free speech, abortion, and the legalization of drugs

A

libertarians

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17
Q

Unwritten rules and informal agreements among citizens and elected officials about how government and society should operate.

A

norms

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18
Q

Government by the people. In most contexts, this means representative democracy in which the people elect leaders to enact policies. Democracies must have fair elections with at least two options

A

democracy

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19
Q

Political freedom, such as the freedom of speech, press, assembly, and religion. These and other legal and due process rights protecting individuals from government control are outlined in the Bill of Rights of the U.S. Constitution

A

liberty

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20
Q

In the context of American politics, “equality” means equality before the law, political equality (one person, one vote), and equality of opportunity (the equal chance for everyone to realize his or her potential), but not material equality (equal income or wealth)

A

equality

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21
Q

Sent to the states for ratification in 1777, these were the first attempt at a new American government. It was later decided that the Articles restricted national government too much, and they were replaced by the Constitution.

A

Articles of confederation

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22
Q

A political system in which the powers of the government are restricted to prevent tyranny by protecting property and individual rights

A

limited government

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23
Q

A form of government in which power is held by a single person, or monarch, who comes to power through inheritance rather than election

A

monarchy

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24
Q

An uprising of about 1,500 men in Massachusetts in 1786 and 1787 to protest oppressive laws and gain payment of war debts. The unrest prompted calls for a new constitution.

A

shays rebellion

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25
Q

As understood by James Madison and the framers, the belief that a form of government in which the interests of the people are represented through elected leaders is the best form of government. Our form of government is known as a republican democracy.

A

republicanism

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26
Q

The idea that government gains its legitimacy through regular elections in which the people living under that government participate to elect their leaders

A

consent of the goverened

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27
Q

Also known as “unalienable rights,” these rights are defined in the Declaration of Independence as “Life, Liberty, and the pursuit of Happiness.” The Founders believed that upholding these rights should be the government’s central purpose

A

natural rights

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28
Q

Those at the Constitutional Convention who favored a strong national government and a system of separated powers

A

federalists

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29
Q

Those at the Constitutional Convention who favored strong state governments and feared that a strong national government would be a threat to individual rights

A

anti-federalists

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30
Q

The idea that having a variety of parties and interests within a government will strengthen the system, ensuring that no group possesses total control

A

pluarlism

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31
Q

A plan proposed by the larger states during the Constitutional Convention that based representation in the national legislature on population. The plan also included a variety of other proposals to strengthen the national government.

A

virginia plan

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32
Q

A plan that was suggested in response to the Virginia Plan; smaller states at the Constitutional Convention proposed that each state should receive equal representation in the national legislature, regardless of size.

A

new jersey plan

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33
Q

A compromise between the large and small states, proposed by Connecticut, in which Congress would have two houses: a Senate with two legislators per state and a House of Representatives in which each state’s representation would be based on population (also known as the Connecticut Compromise)

A

the great compromise

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34
Q

A system of government in which legislative and executive power are closely joined. The legislature (parliament) selects the chief executive (prime minister), who forms the cabinet from members of the parliament

A

parliamentary system

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35
Q

As defined in the Tenth Amendment, powers that are not given to the national government by the Constitution, or not prohibited to the states, are reserved by the states or the people

A

reserved powers

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36
Q

Part of Article VI, Section 2, of the Constitution stating that the Constitution and the laws and treaties of the United States are the “supreme Law of the Land,” meaning national laws take precedence over state laws if the two conflict

A

national supremacy clause

37
Q

The states’ decision during the Constitutional Convention to count each slave as three-fifths of a person in a state’s population for the purposes of determining the number of House members and the distribution of taxes

A

Three-Fifths Compromise

38
Q

The first 10 amendments to the Constitution; they protect individual rights and liberties

A

bill of rights

39
Q

Powers explicitly granted to Congress, the president, or the Supreme Court in the first three articles of the Constitution. Examples include Congress’s power to “raise and support Armies” and the president’s power as commander in chief

A

enumerated powers

40
Q

The constitutional power of Congress to raise and spend money. Congress can use this as a negative or checking power over the other branches by freezing or cutting their funding

A

power of the purse

41
Q

Part of Article I, Section 8, of the Constitution that grants Congress the power to pass all laws related to its expressed powers; also known as the elastic clause

A

necessary and proper clause

42
Q

A negative or checking power over the other branches that allows Congress to remove the president, the vice president, or other “officers of the United States” (including federal judges) for abuses of power

A

impeachment

43
Q

The Supreme Court’s power to strike down a law or an executive branch action that it finds unconstitutional

A

judicial review

44
Q

Powers supported by the Constitution that are not expressly stated in it.

A

implied powers

45
Q

The division of power across the local, state, and national governments

A

federalism

46
Q

The supreme power of an independent state to regulate its internal affairs without foreign interference

A

sovereign power

47
Q

The power to enforce laws and provide for public safety

A

police powers

48
Q

Responsibilities for particular policy areas, such as transportation, that are shared by federal, state, and local governments

A

concurrent powers

49
Q

A system in which the national, centralized government holds ultimate authority. It is the most common form of government in the world

A

unitary government

50
Q

A form of government in which states hold power over a limited national government

A

confederal government

51
Q

The part of Article IV of the Constitution requiring that each state’s laws be honored by the other states. For example, a legal marriage in one state must be recognized across state lines

A

full faith and credit clause

52
Q

The part of Article IV of the Constitution requiring that states must treat nonstate residents within their borders as they would treat their own residents. This was meant to promote commerce and travel between states

A

privileges and immunities clause

53
Q

The form of federalism favored by Chief Justice Roger Taney, in which national and state governments are seen as distinct entities providing separate services. This model limits the power of the national government

A

dual federalism

54
Q

The idea that states are entitled to a certain amount of self-government, free of federal government intervention. This became a central issue in the period leading up to the Civil War

A

states’ rights

55
Q

A form of federalism in which national and state governments work together to provide services efficiently. This form emerged in the late 1930s, representing a profound shift toward less concrete boundaries of responsibility in national–state relations

A

cooperative federalism

56
Q

A more refined and realistic form of cooperative federalism in which policy makers within a particular policy area work together across the levels of government

A

picket fence federalism

57
Q

A form of federalism in which federal funds are allocated to the lower levels of government through transfer payments or grants

A

fiscal federalism

58
Q

A form of federalism in which the federal government pressures the states to change their policies by using regulations, mandates, or conditions (often involving threats to withdraw federal funding)

A

coercive federalism

59
Q

Imposition of national priorities on the states through national legislation that is based on the Constitution’s supremacy clause

A

federal preemption

60
Q

Federal laws that require the states to do certain things but do not provide state governments with funding to implement these policies

A

unfunded mandates

61
Q

Federal aid to state or local governments that is provided for a specific purpose, such as a mass-transit program within the transportation budget or a school lunch program within the education budget

A

categorical grants

62
Q

Federal aid provided to a state government to be spent within a certain policy area, but the state can decide how to spend the money within that area

A

block grants

63
Q

A form of federalism in which states compete to attract businesses and jobs through the policies they adopt

A

competitive federalism

64
Q

National laws that address discriminatory state laws. Authority for such legislation comes from Section 5 of the Fourteenth Amendment

A

remedial legislation

65
Q

Basic political freedoms that protect citizens from governmental abuses of power

A

civil liberties

66
Q

The Thirteenth, Fourteenth, and Fifteenth Amendments to the Constitution, which abolished slavery and granted civil liberties and voting rights to freed slaves after the Civil War

A

civil war amendments

67
Q

Part of the Fourteenth Amendment that forbids states from denying “life, liberty, or property” to any person without due process of law. (A nearly identical clause in the Fifth Amendment applies only to the national government.)

A

due process clause

68
Q

The process through which most of the civil liberties granted in the Bill of Rights were applied to the states on a case-by-case basis through the Fourteenth Amendment

A

selective incorporation

69
Q

Part of the First Amendment that states “Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion,” which has been interpreted to mean that Congress cannot sponsor or favor any religion

A

establishment clause

70
Q

Part of the First Amendment that states that Congress cannot prohibit or interfere with the practice of religion

A

free exercise clause

71
Q

The Supreme Court uses this test, established in Lemon v. Kurtzman, to determine whether a practice violates the First Amendment’s establishment clause

A

the lemon test

72
Q

The highest level of scrutiny the courts can use when determining whether a law is constitutional. To meet this standard, the law or policy must be shown to serve a “compelling state interest” or goal, it must be narrowly tailored to achieve that goal, and it must be the least restrictive means of achieving that goal

A

strict scrutinty

73
Q

The middle level of scrutiny the courts can use when determining whether a law is constitutional. To meet this standard, the law or policy must be “content neutral,” must further an important government interest in a way that is “substantially related” to that interest, and must use means that are a close fit to the government’s goal and not substantially broader than is necessary to accomplish that goal

A

intermediate scrutiny

74
Q

Established in Schenck v. United States, this test allows the government to restrict certain types of speech deemed dangerous

A

clear and present danger test

75
Q

Established in Brandenburg v. Ohio, this test protects threatening speech under the First Amendment unless that speech aims to and is likely to cause imminent “lawless action.”

A

direct incitement test

76
Q

Nonverbal expression, such as the use of signs or symbols. It benefits from many of the same constitutional protections as verbal speech

A

symbolic speech

77
Q

Expression that is offensive or abusive, particularly in terms of race, gender, or sexual orientation. It is currently protected under the First Amendment

A

hate speech

78
Q

A limit on freedom of the press that allows the government to prohibit the media from publishing certain materials

A

prior restraint

79
Q

Forms of expression that “by their very utterance” can incite violence. These can be regulated by the government but are often difficult to define

A

fighting words

80
Q

Spoken false statements that damage a person’s reputation. They can be regulated by the government but are often difficult to distinguish from permissible speech

A

slander

81
Q

Written false statements that damage a person’s reputation. They can be regulated by the government but are often difficult to distinguish from permissible speech

A

libel

82
Q

Public expression with the aim of making a profit. It has received greater protection under the First Amendment in recent years but remains less protected than political speech

A

commercial speech

83
Q

Established in Miller v. California, this three-part test is used by the Supreme Court to determine whether speech meets the criteria for obscenity. If so, it can be restricted by the government

A

miller test

84
Q

The idea that laws and legal proceedings must be fair. The Constitution guarantees that the government cannot take away a person’s “life, liberty, or property, without due process of law.” Other specific due process rights are found in the Fourth, Fifth, Sixth, and Eighth Amendments, such as protection from self-incrimination and freedom from illegal searches

A

due process rights

85
Q

The principle that illegally or unconstitutionally acquired evidence cannot be used in a criminal trial

A

exclusionary rule

86
Q

The list of civil liberties described in the Fifth Amendment that must be read to a suspect before anything the suspect says can be used in a trial

A

miranda rights

87
Q

Being tried twice for the same crime. This is prevented by the Fifth Amendment

A

double jeopardy

88
Q

Liberties protected by several amendments in the Bill of Rights that shield certain personal aspects of citizens’ lives from governmental interference, such as the Fourth Amendment’s protection against unreasonable searches and seizures

A

privacy rights