EXAM A Flashcards
1
Q
- On the approach, with all the exterior lights selected ON, which lights will not illuminate until the
landing gear is extended?
A
Nose (Takeoff and Taxy) and Turn off
2
Q
- What’s the difference between the flight deck and cabin oxygen system?
A
Flight Deck - High pressure cylinder, protection against smoke and noxious gases
Cabin - Chemical generators of pure oxygen for approx 13-22mins
3
Q
- What is the result of failure of both Lanes of ACSC 1? + Functions?
A
Pack 1 and Flight Deck Trim Air are inoperative.
4
Q
- With the FLOW controller set to LO or NORM, what could cause the actual flow to be HI?
A
The APU supplying bleed air
5
Q
- Regarding the RAM AIR valve, which of the following statements is true?
It should not be opened at a pressure differential of > 1.0 psi.
It directs ambient air to the PACKS.
It should not be opened above 10,000 ft aircraft altitude.
It should not be opened above 10,000 fit cabin altitude.
A
It should not be opened at a pressure differential of > 1.0 psi.
6
Q
- Cabin Pressure LDG Elevation AUTO fault?
A
When the FMGC database does not contain the relevant elevation for the selected aerodrome
7
Q
- In flight, which valve will not close if the DITCHING switch is pushed?
A
The OUTFLOW VALVE (if it is selected to MANUAL).
8
Q
- What happens when the EXTRACT pb is OVRD?
A
Closed configuration, Skin HT Exh valve open, Air con open, bypass closed
9
Q
- In flight, if the SKIN AIR temperature is 38°C, in which configuration will the AVIONICS VENT be?
A
INTERMEDIATE
10
Q
- What is the Yaw bar for and when is it available?
A
Displayed in Rwy mode on T/O or Flare/Rollout modes on landing - LOC signal req’d with the FD yaw commanding you to maintain centreline (follow FD bars)
Only available below 30’ RA
11
Q
- FAC 1+2 Fault
A
Rudder stops at the last reached limit but recovers back to full authority at slat extension
12
Q
- When can you engage autopilot?
A
After 5 secs from liftoff or >100’
13
Q
- APU Master sw in the ON pos, what does it do? Avail Light?
A
- Electric to ECB (self test)
- Air intake flap opens
- Fuel isolation valve opens
- No fuel tank pump? APU pumps starts
- APU page appear on ECAM (if on GND or Main Gen Power)
Avail light - indicates that bleed air and electric is available for use
14
Q
The APU has been switched OFF, but the AVAIL light remains illuminated. Why could this happen?
A
The APU bleed air was in use.
15
Q
Regarding limitations, which of the following statements is true?
The APU may be started at any point in the flight envelope.
The waiting time, after three failed start attempts, is 30 minutes.
When the LOW OIL LEVEL message appears on the SD the APU must not be started.
The maximum altitude for APU start, when in the ELEC EMER CONFIG, is 30,000 ft.
A
The APU may be started at any point in the flight envelope.
16
Q
- When should the AUDIO SWITCHING switch be moved from the NORM position?
A
After a failure of ACP1 or ACP2
17
Q
- RMP 1 is selected to VHF2: RMP 2 is selected to VHF 3: RMP 3 is selected to VHF 1. Which of the following statements is true?
There will be no SEL lights illuminated.
All three RMP’s will have an illuminated SEL light.
There will be SEL lights illuminated on RMP’s 1 and 2 only.
There will be SEL lights illuminated on RMP’s 2 and 3 only.
A
All three RMP’s will have an illuminated SEL light.
18
Q
- Cabin Crew Emergency call, Flight Deck Indications?
A
- On Emer pb-sw (ON Light flashes + CALL light flashes)
- ATT light flashes on all ACPs
- 3x Buzzers sound consecutively (Inhibited during T/O and LDG)
19
Q
- APU running, Eng 1 on, what’s supplying AC BUS 1/2?
A
AC BUS 1 - ENG 1 GEN / AC BUS 2 - APU
Power Priority - ENG GEN, EXT PWR, APU GEN, OTHER ENG GEN
20
Q
- AC ESS Bus power sources available to it?
A
In priority order - AC BUS 1 AC BUS 2 via the BUS tie breaker Emergency generator BAT 1
21
Q
- What does green AVAIL mean on EXT Power?
A
External power is connected and is flowing at normal parameters (frequency and voltage)
22
Q
- Following the use of an oxygen mask, how is the use of the boom mic re-established?
A
By closing the left door of the storage box, and then pressing the TEST slide
23
Q
- How is the passenger Oxygen provided?
A
Chemical Generators (13-22 mins)
24
Q
- APU Fire in flight, what happens?
A
Must be manually shutdown, automatic fire shutdown only occurs on the ground
25
24. Regarding the SMOKE configuration, which of the following statements is true? (GEN 1 Line PB)
All associated circuit breakers are on the panel behind the F/O.
80% of the electrical load is shed.
GEN 1 directly powers two fuel booster pumps.
GEN 2 directly powers two fuel booster pumps.
GEN 1 directly powers two fuel booster pumps.
26
What will cause the green sidestick priority lights (on the glareshield) to flash at the same time?
Both sidesticks are simultaneously out of the neutral position.
27
The autopilot is disengaged, then the left side stick priority button is pressed and held in: which of the following statements is true?
A red light and a green light will always illuminate on the glareshield.
A red light will always illuminate on the glareshield.
Two green lights will flash on the glareshield.
Two red lights will flash on the glareshield.
A red light will always illuminate on the glareshield.
28
26. Lowest Speed achievable in normal law, hands off, no pilot input, A/THR ON?
VLS
29
27. What’s not available in Direct Law?
Protections or stabilites. Stall and over speed warnings are available
30
28. Following selection of FLAP 1, which of the following statements is true?
When decelerating for the approach, CONFIG 1 + F will be the result
During the acceleration. following a go-around, CONFIG 1 + F will be the result
On the ground CONFIG 1 will be the result
The result is always CONFIG 1 + F
During the acceleration. following a go-around, CONFIG 1 + F will be the result
31
29. Following an RTO @ 65kts, how will you stop the aeroplane, what will not be available?
Ground Spoilers deploy over 72kts, therefore no ground spoilers or autobrake.
32
30. What happens if both pilots pull fully back on side stick?
The sidestick inputs are added together but never more than full deflection from a single sidestick (DUAL INPUT)
33
31. In flight, with CONFIG 1 selected, what is represented by amber = on the speed strip?
The maximum speed for selecting FLAP 2.
34
32. If you forget to retract the flaps, what happens?
Auto retract of flaps @ 210kts
35
33. Max Roll Inputs and protections active
NORMAL: 67 degree’s then 33 degree’s with hands off
HI SPD: 40 degree’s then 0 degree’s hands off (spiral stab)
ALPHA: 45 degree’s
36
```
34. Which of the following can be overridden by the sidestick?
High speed protection
Alpha floor.
Alpha protection.
Low speed stability
```
Low speed stability
37
35. When, and why, is the Side Stick Order symbol displayed?
Below 30 feet RA: it enables PNF to monitor PF's inputs.
38
36. What configurations are allowed for take-off?
F1-F3
39
37. The aircraft has achieved, and is maintaining a constant high alpha, which has caused speedbrake auto-retraction: how can the speedbrakes be extended again?
By reducing the alpha, retracting the speedbrake lever, waiting 10 seconds, then extending the lever.
40
38. During the final approach, which of the following statements is true?
The actual speed may be greater than the Vapp: this is due to the MINI G/S function.
The target speed (magenta triangle) will be at VLS.
The target speed (magenta triangle) will be Vapp.
The target speed (magenta triangle) may be > Vapp or < Vapp.
The actual speed may be greater than the Vapp: this is due to the MINI G/S function.
41
39. What would cause the MACH display, on the Capt's PFD, to be inhibited?
Selecting the Capt's EFIS Ctrl Panel ILS button to ON.
42
40. The aircraft is accelerating in straight and level flight with the FPV displayed: which of the following statements is true?
The FPV will remain on the horizon, and the pitch attitude will increase.
The FPV will remain on the horizon, and the pitch attitude will decrease.
The pitch attitude will remain constant, and the FPV will move up.
The pitch attitude will remain constant, and the FPV will move down.
The FPV will remain on the horizon, and the pitch attitude will decrease.
43
41. Both ECAM displays units have failed: how can the FLT CTLS SD be displayed?
Rotate the ECAM/ND XFR switch to CAPT or F/O, then press the FLT CTLS switch on the ECAM control panel
44
42. During flight, the left inner tank quantity is 300 kg, and the right inner tank is 750 kg: OUTR TK FUEL XFRD is displayed in the MEMOS. Which of the following statements is true?
At least one of the transfer valves is open.
All the outer tank fuel has transferred to the inner tanks (both wings).
All the outer tank fuel has transferred to the inner tanks (right wing only).
At least one transfer valve in each wing is open.
At least one of the transfer valves is open.
45
43. On the FUEL SD, what may be signified by the fuel on board indication being half boxed in amber?
Not all of the FUEL ON BOARD is useable at the moment
46
44. CTR TK Logic - is the fuel in the inner tanks all available? What about the centre tank? slat/flap selection, when does ctr tank pump stop?
Fuel in inner tanks is always available. Centre tank fuel is not always available as cannot be gravity fed. Within 2 mins of ENG start centre tank supplies the fuel. After 2 mins inner tank supplies the fuel (with slat/flap selection). After T/O the centre tank supplies fuel when flap 0 is selected and the underfill pump has been activated. When flap 1 selected on approach inner tanks supply the fuel.
47
45. PTU pb? - start eng PB on, how many hydraulics are pressurised, is the PTU running when is it not running etc?
When one eng is running blue system in on. ENG 1 on green system. The PTU is inhibited when only one ENG master is ON with parking brake ON. If park brake off or ENG 2 on then yellow system also pressurized.
48
46. 2 ways of deploying the RAT, implications of both? HYD/ELEC panel
Automatically deploys when both AC BUS 1 and 2 are lost and speed is above 100kt.
Manually by pressing the guarded MAN ON pb on the ELEC panel you get both the blue system and the emer Gen
If you press the pb on the HYD panel you just get the blue system
49
47. Can you recover HYD system after LO LVL HYD fault?
No
50
48. On stand, pressurising Y SYS, who to contact beforehand?
Ground crew
51
49. What happens if WING ANTI-ICE is selected ON when taxying for take-off?
The anti-ice valves open for 30 seconds only: on lift off, the valves will re-open.
52
50. If a WING or ENG anti-ice valve loses electrical power, which of the following statements is true?
The valves will remain in their present position.
WING and ENG valves CLOSE.
WING and ENG valves OPEN.
WING valves CLOSE: ENG valves OPEN.
WING valves CLOSE: ENG valves OPEN.
53
51. What happens to the N1 and what happens to the N1 limit, when Engine Anti Ice is selected on?
N1 idle increases and N1 limit reduces
54
52. Autobrake availability on the GND vs in Flight? Can you select MAX autobrake in the air?
Max - Ground only, Lo and med - In flight
55
53. What message will appear on the MEMO display on push-back?
N/W STRG DISC in amber if at least one engine is running.
56
54. UNLK light illuminates red on landing gear panel for what reason?
If the gear is not locked in the selected position
57
55. What causes the DECEL light to illuminate?
Achievement of 80% of the selected deceleration rate.
58
56. If the captain is holding down the DISC button on his steering handwheel, which of the following statements is true?
Nosewheel steering is not available from Capt's or F/O's rudder pedals.
Nosewheel steering is not available from F/O's rudder pedals only.
Nosewheel steering is not available from Capt's rudder pedals only.
Nosewheel steering is totally inhibited.
Nosewheel steering is not available from Capt's or F/O's rudder pedals.
59
57. Regarding the coloured arc or arcs, which may appear above the wheels on the SD, which of the following statements is true?
There may be four arcs displaye, one over each wheel.
There may be one green arc and one amber arc displayed together.
There will be no arcs displayed if all wheel temperatures are < 300°C.
Only one arc will be present: it will be either amber or green.
Only one arc will be present: it will be either amber or green.
60
58. Brake limitation temperatures, when you can and cannot go? When do you use the fan?
easyJet don’t go above 100 degrees. Fan on above 100 degrees
61
59. If ILS 2 receiver fails, where can ILS 1 displays be seen?
PFD 1 and ND 2.
62
60. What happens if FMGC 1 fails? - If you lost FMGCs, how would you then tune ILSs?
FMGC 2 can now be controlled by MCDU 1 and MCDU2.
63
61. When should the SBY compass not be checked?
During APU start.
64
62. If the TERRAIN ON ND pushbutton is switched OFF, what happens if a Terrain awareness warning or caution is generated?
The system switches on automatically: the terrain display sweeps from the centre outwards.
65
63. What could be the significance of an ALIGN light flashing?
The P-POS has not been entered within 10 mins of selection NAV.
66
64. If both FMGC'S fail, how can VOR 2 be tuned?
By RMP 2 only.
67
65. During a TCAS resolution Advisory, which colours may be displayed on the Vertical speed scale?
Red, Green and Grey.
68
66. What happens if BMC 1 fails? (What happens if one of them fails?)
There will be no leak detection for the APU and ENG 1.
69
67. If, during the cruise with ATHR engaged, the TLA's are set to less than the cruise thrust, what will happen?
The thrust will be limited by the TLA.
70
68. What is signified by IDLE (green) being displayed between the N1 gauges?
Both engines are at IDLE.
71
69. On the N1 gauge, there is a "Transient N1" (concentric circles) indication: what does it represent?
The difference between the actual thrust and the FADEC commanded thrust.
72
70. On the Engine Panel, what is indicated by an illuminated FAULT LIGHT?
An AUTO START has been aborted.
73
71. Regarding IGNITION, which of the following statements is true?
Igniter A is always used at engine start.
Igniter B is always used at engine start.
Both igniters operate automatically when ENGING ANTI-ICE is selected ON.
Both igniters operate simultaneously on a MANUAL START.
Both igniters operate simultaneously on a MANUAL START.
74
72. During an AUTOMATIC start, what happens following an EGT OVERLIMIT?
The FADEC will run an abort sequence.
75
73. How would you control the crank function?
Press MAN START pb, rotate ENG MODE SEL to CRANK, to finish return both to normal
76
What is the correct indication of oxygen flow during the test sequence?
The yellow blinker flashes.
77
What would cause the RAT to auto-extend?
Loss of AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 when at more than 100 kts IAS.
78
On a fully serviceable aircraft, with the ground spoilers ARMED, a rejected takeoff is carried out:
which of the following statements is true?
Activation of the AUTOBRAKE SYSTEM is a function of thrust lever position only.
Ground spoilers will only deploy at a speed in excess of 100 kts.
Selecting IDLE THRUST at 90 kts will result in ground spoiler deployment.
It is necessary to select REVERSE thrust in order to get ground spoiler deployment.
Selecting IDLE THRUST at 90 kts will result in ground spoiler deployment.
79
Regarding LOW SPEED STABILITY, which of the following statements is true?
It is available in NORM , ALT and DIRECT Laws.
It is only available in ALT LAW.
It cannot be overridden by the sidestick.
It triggers a nose down input at alpha max.
It is only available in ALT LAW.
80
Which of the following events would cause the centre tank pumps to automatically stop running?
Selecting FLAP 1 when taxying for take-off.
81
During a Manual Start, what does pressing the MAN START switch do?
It opens the start valve only.
82
During a MANUAL start, how is the START VALVE closed?
Automatically at 50% N2.
83
77. EGT for TOGA, time and temp, one and both engines?
EGT limit for TOGA is 950°c. TOGA available for 5 mins if dual engine, 10 mins if single engine
84
78. What is the maximum permitted wind speed for passenger door operation?
65 kts
85
79. What is the maximum permitted speed for selecting the gear down?
250kts
86
80. What is the maximum permitted altitude for using the APU to power one pack?
22,500 feet.
87
81. Regarding engine starter limitations, which of the following statements is true?
The minimum time between start cycles is ten seconds.
After four start cycles, allow 30 minutes cooling.
The maximum N2 for starter running engagement 30%.
The maximum time for continuous engagement is 2 minutes.
The maximum time for continuous engagement is 2 minutes.
88
84. What is the maximum permitted speed for selecting FLAP FULL?
177kts
89
85. What is the maximum permitted speed for the use of windscreen wipers?
230kts
90
77. What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for landing?
38 knots.
91
97. If DMC 1 fails, which is the quickest way to display the ELECTRICS SD?
Push and release the ECP ELEC push button
92
98. What is the significance of “T/O inhibit” being displayed in the MEMO’s?
Most warning and caution messages will be suppressed during T/O and climb to 1500ft
93
99. On the ECAM Control, what is the purpose of the RCL button?
To display non-suppressed and suppresed malfunctions on the EWD
94
100. If you lose an E/WD how can you see the SD pages?
E/WD would takeover the SD so you would have to press and hold the relevant page button
95
103. On the ECP, what is the main purpose of the ALL button?
To provide redundancy in the event of an ECP button failure
96
104. Regarding metric altitudes, which of the following statements is true?
Pressing the Metric Alt. Button changes the FCU (only) indication to metres.
Pressing the Metric Alt. Button changes the FCU andthe PFD displays to metres.
The Metric ALT display on the ECAM is driven by the FCU ALT knob.
The Metric ALT display on the ECAM shows the actual aircraft altitude
The Metric ALT display on the ECAM is driven by the FCU ALT knob.
97
105. During the T/O roll, which page is displayed on the SD?
ENG
98
106. With the FD’s and A/P’s switched OFF, the ATHR is switched ON: which of the following statements is correct?
The airspeed bug is magenta, and is set by the FMGS.
The airspeed bug is blue and defaults to the current airspeed
The airspeed bug is magenta, and defaults to the current airspeed.
The airspeed bug is magenta, and defaults to greendot speed
The airspeed bug is blue and defaults to the current airspeed
99
107. During an expedite CLB/DES what does it command?
Commands a speed (CLB-Green dot, DES-MMO)
100
108. What happens to the aircraft speed when the APPROACH PHASE has been ACTIVATED in the MCDU?
If the speed is managed (magenta) it will go to the speed associated with the current flap setting.
101
109. If during a managed climb, (FMA'S read THR CLB/CLB) the heading knob is pulled what happens?
The altitude constraints will be ignored, but not erased from the MCDU.
102
110. At high altitudes if the aircraft over flys the optimum top of descent point, what is annunciated on the FMA?
DECELERATE (on the third line).
103
111. What happens to navaid tuning from both FMGCs, if NAV guarded pb is pressed on RMP 1?
Removes navaid tuning from FMGC 1 and now controlled by RMP 1
