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RBT > Exam > Flashcards

Exam Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A trend that ascends from left to right means:
A

-A behavior is increasing

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2
Q
  1. Visual inspection is:
A

-Making a judgement about the effects of an intervention by examining graphed data

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is a discontinuous data recording procedure?
A

-Whole interval recording

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is operationally defined?
A

-Hitting so hard a picture fell off the wall

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5
Q
  1. The process of defining target behaviors using a exercise definition is called:
A

-Operationally defining the behavior

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is a drawback of probe data?
A

-It is less accurate

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7
Q
  1. Recently, Mario’s tantrums seem to last longer. Which data recording procedure might be the best one to use to determine this?
A

-Duration

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about data collection?
A

-It is the foundation for creating behavioral interventions

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9
Q
  1. Data collected during naturalistic teaching should always include information about:
A

-Target behaviors, prompt levels needed, and activities

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10
Q
  1. A disadvantage of bar graphs is:
A

-The variability of data can be lost

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11
Q
  1. Which data recording method would be best used to measure the time between when a teacher said to start an assignment and the time the student started on the assignment?
A

-Latency

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following data recording procedures is best used for behaviors that have a clear ending and beginning, do not occur throughout an interval, but still occur at high rates?
A

-Partial interval

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13
Q
  1. The x axis on a graph is:
A

-Horizontal and is also called the abscissa

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14
Q
  1. Why is it important to record data as close to the time the behavior actually occurred as possible?
A

-So the data will be more likely to reflect an accurate picture of the picture

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15
Q
  1. If data indicate that progress is not being made, which of the following questions could be asked?
A

-Is the skill program being delivered effectively?

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16
Q
  1. Mohinder has Down’s syndrome and lives in a group home. Tom, who works at the group home, asks Mohinder to loan him money for lunch, which he then pays back after his next paycheck. Is this abuse, and if so, why?
A

-Yes, it is considered financial abuse because Tom is making personal use of Mohinder’s resources.

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17
Q
  1. Non-accidental, inappropriate contact or the use of force with an individual that causes injury or physical pain is considered which type of abuse?
A

-Physical abuse

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following are considered to be physical signs of abuse?
A

-Fingerprints or handprints on the neck, face, arms, or wrists

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19
Q
  1. Sarah is helping Kendra, a woman with a moderate intellectual disability, cook breakfast in the morning. Kendra attempts to touch the hot stove, and Sarah yells, “Don’t touch that!” to her. Is this considered abuse?
A

-No, it is not. Yelling is not ideal, but it is preventing Kendra from causing harm to herself

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20
Q
  1. A 2009 study found that what percentage of family caregivers for older adults with cognitive disabilities and dementia reported abusing their family member?
A

-30%

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21
Q
  1. Who is the first person you should report allegations of abuse and neglect to?
A

-Your agency’s designated investigator

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true of abuse and neglect committed by care providers?
A

-Abuse and neglect committed by care providers is so rare that it isn’t considered a problem

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following is one stress management technique that can help prevent burnout?
A

-Talking to a professional

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24
Q
  1. All of the following are considered behavioral signs of abuse, EXCEPT what?
A

-Appearing with torn, stained, bloody clothing

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25
Q
  1. True or False: People with IDD are more likely to experience abuse and neglect than individuals without IDD:
A

-True

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of mandatory reporters?
A

-Mandatory reporters must report any alleged or suspected incidents of abuse or neglect, even if they did not witness it.

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27
Q
  1. Certain conditions can contribute to environments that can cause abuse and neglect to occur, EXCEPT:
A

-Programs that provide extensive training to their employees

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28
Q
  1. True or False: If there is consensual sexual activity between an employee and an individual with IDD, then it is not considered sexual abuse:
A

-False

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29
Q
  1. If you witness an abusive situation that is dangerous or life-threatening, what should you do?
A

-Take immediate action to remove anyone in the area from harm and call 911.

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30
Q
  1. You provide support for Roberto, a man with a mild intellectual disability. WHile talking to him one day, he casually mentions that sometimes his sister (his fiduciary guardian) uses his SSI check to pay her rent. What is the most appropriate course of action to take?
A

-Contact your agency’s designated investigator

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31
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes a situation of disability-specific abuse?
A

-Eric needs assistance transferring onto a toilet, and is sometimes left on the toilet for hours

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32
Q
  1. True or False: Allegations that go unreported are just as serious as the actual abuse or neglect.
A

-True

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true of neglect?
A

-Neglect only occurs to older adults with disabilities

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34
Q
  1. What are harmful reinforcers?
A

-Harmful to health

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following factors places an individual with autism at greater risk of self-injury?
A

-Certain genetic conditions

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36
Q
  1. Why is frequent assessment important when implementing an intervention?
A

-To make adjustments as necessary

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of deficits in nonverbal communication?
A

-Not understanding facial expressions

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38
Q
  1. Why can’t intervention plans be duplicated for different individuals?
A

-Because each individual’s behavior and circumstances are unique

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39
Q
  1. Which of the following core characteristics of autism involves difficulty in responding to others in an appropriate way?
A

-Deficits in social/emotional reciprocity

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40
Q
  1. Which is the best reason why fixated interests can be a problem?
A

-Because they can distract the person from other activities

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41
Q
  1. Why is pica dangerous?
A

-Because it can cause illness or injury

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42
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of stereotyped behavior?
A

-Flapping hands repetitively

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43
Q
  1. Immediate echolalia is:
A

-Saying what you just heard over and over

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44
Q
  1. Intervention plans should be:
A

-Data-based, ethical, and closely monitored

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45
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true?
A

-While family members may disagree, it is important to work with all members the best way you can.

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46
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of an exploitive relationship?
A

-A clients mother dating his RBT

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47
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a multiple or dual relationship?
A

-Tina and Lois are best friends. Lois is an RBT who works with Tina’s son.

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48
Q
  1. Why is it important to leave work at work and take breaks?
A

-You can slip into bad habits if you don’t have a break.

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49
Q
  1. Which of the following statements made by an RBT to a parent shows practicing “non-judgement?”
A

-”Sometimes it is hard to be consistent with the visual schedule. How do you think we could make this a bit simpler to use?”

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50
Q
  1. What are 3 types of written communication RBTs have to provide?
A

-Data, incident, session notes

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51
Q
  1. When you have a conversation with a family member about a client, you should:
A

-Find a quiet private and quiet spot

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52
Q
  1. Why is it important to model optimism when working with a client with disabilities?
A

-To allow families to see what their loved one can do

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53
Q
  1. What does the Professional and Ethical Compliance Code of the BACB remind us about communication and interactions with clients and families?
A

-To interact with families and clients in a way that is free from bias and discimination

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54
Q
  1. When RBTs communicate with families, they should use:
A

-Observable and measurable terms

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55
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of conflict of interest with a client’s family?
A

-Offering to babysit for the family.

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56
Q
  1. Under which of the following circumstances should extinction not be used?
A

-When it could cause harm to the individual or others in the environment

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57
Q
  1. Differential reinforcement of other behavior (DRO) involves:
A

-Setting an interval for the problem behavior not to be displayed and reinforcing if it is not displayed

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58
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of overcorrection?
A

-Marty had to clean the bathroom wall because she wrote on it.

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59
Q
  1. Spontaneous recovery refer to:
A

-Sudden recurrence of behavior that was extinguished

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60
Q
  1. Which of the following functions of behavior involves avoiding a task or interaction?
A

-Escape

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61
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of positive punishment?
A

-Telling someone “no” when they are about to run into the street

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62
Q
  1. Which of the following could ensure that an intervention involving the use of punishment is effective?
A

-Collecting and reviewing intervention data

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63
Q
  1. Punishment is the result of a stimulus following a behavior that serves to:
A

-Reduce the behavior

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64
Q
  1. What is the difference between differential reinforcement of alternative behavior (DRA) and differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior (DRI)?
A

-The replacement behavior selected in DRA doesn’t have to be incompatible with the problem behavior

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65
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of negative punishment?
A

-Paying a speed ticket

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66
Q
  1. Type 1 punishment involves:
A

-Adding a condition to reduce a behavior

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67
Q
  1. Escape extinction works by:
A

-Not allowing the individual to escape what they were trying to avoid

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68
Q
  1. What is the best course of action to take in the event of an extinction burst?
A

-Continue the intervention

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69
Q
  1. Which part of a discrete trial makes it more likely the learner will respond again:
A

-The reinforcer

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70
Q
  1. In discrete trial instruction, a short instruction delivered to a learner is called:
A

-A discriminative stimulus (SD)

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71
Q
  1. Which of the following is a more current expansion of discrete trial instruction:
A

-Errorless learning techniques

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72
Q
  1. For learners who are new to following directions, which of the following approaches would be a good first step:
A

-Provide a simple request such as “come here,” prompt if necessary, and provide them with a reinforcer

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73
Q
  1. Which of the following might be a response that follows a discriminative stimulus?
A

-Hands card to instructor

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74
Q
  1. Prompting before a learner can select an incorrect response is called:
A

-Errorless learning

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75
Q
  1. Discrete trial instruction that is delivered from 25 to 40 hours a week is called:
A

-Early Intensive Behavioral Intervention (EIBI)

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76
Q
  1. Which of the following activities might occur during the intertrial interval:
A

-Instructor marks a data collection sheet

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77
Q
  1. The results of Lovaas studies yielded:
A

-Remarkable gains on intelligence tests

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78
Q
  1. In discrete trial instruction, least to most prompting sequences are most commonly used when:
A

-The learner can respond correctly to the discriminative stimulus around 85% of the time

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79
Q

Naturalistic techniques are used to help learners generalize skills and for learners who:

A

-Might initially resist more structured settings.

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80
Q

Fluency of skills is:

A

-Demonstrated by quick responding at high levels of accuracy.

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81
Q

Which of the following verbal operants is used when a learner requests a cookie?

A

-Mand

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82
Q

Grace is teaching Micah how to write his name. She started by giving him a sheet with his name spelled in dark dotted lines. Once Micah was able to trace his name using those dark dotted lines, she faded them until there were no lines and he could write his name independently. What was the process Grace used?

A

-Stimulus fading

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83
Q

Which of the following should you do if you are using errorless learning to deliver a trial?

A

-Provide the most intrusive prompt necessary for correct responding.

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84
Q

When larger skills are broken down into teachable steps, this is called:

A

-Task analysis

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85
Q

Which of the following parts of a written skill acquisition plan specifies the long term outcome for learner performance?

A

-Goal

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86
Q

In order to randomly rotate trials, what must a learner have done first?

A

-Mastered some targets they can be mixed in the rotation

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87
Q

Generalization of skills is achieved when:

A

-The learner uses the skill taught in DTI in the natural environment.

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88
Q

One way to help a learner generalize skills is to:

A

-Use varied program materials for targets.

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89
Q

If a learner starts displaying a skill learned in DTI within natural environment, we might say that the learner:

A

-Has generalized the skill from DTI to the natural environment.

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90
Q
  1. Which of the following could be a replacement behavior for cutting in line?
A

-Teaching to stand in line and wait

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91
Q
  1. Why are crisis plans incorporated into some behavior intervention plans?
A

-Because some behaviors cause a risk to the safety of the individual engaging in the behavior or others in the environment

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92
Q
  1. Automatic reinforcement is associated most closely with:
A

-Stereotypic behaviors

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93
Q
  1. Why are prevention strategies a valuable part of behavior intervention plans?
A

-They decrease the likelihood that an undesirable behavior will get reinforced

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94
Q
  1. Behavior intervention plans that work:
A

-Reduce problem behavior and increase desirable behavior

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95
Q
  1. Which of the following is included in a functional assessment plan:
A

-A definition of the behaviors of concern

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96
Q
  1. Which of the following behaviors might serve a “gain attention” function?
A

-Making silly noises

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97
Q
  1. The 4 basic conditions set up in a functional analysis are:
A

-Alone, attention, demand, and tangible

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98
Q
  1. Reinforcing behaviors that are incompatible with hitting would fall under which component of a behavior intervention plan?
A

-Consequence strategies

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99
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a motivating operation:
A

-Fred is hungry so crackers work well as a reinforcer for task compliance

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100
Q
  1. What are the 2 main functions of behavior?
A

-Escape and gain

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101
Q
  1. Variables that are in operation before the display of a behavior and are related to the behavior are:
A

-Setting events

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102
Q
  1. Which of the following is a consequence intervention involving punishment?
A

-Taking away a token

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103
Q
  1. Replacement behaviors are taught so:
A

-The individual has a more desirable option for the behavior of concern

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104
Q
  1. Which of the following could be a prevention strategy for a behavior that involves throwing items?
A

-Minimizing the number of items that could be thrown

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105
Q
  1. Your documentation, when reviewed, will help to assure?
A

-The person is receiving comprehensive services

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106
Q
  1. When you document, you will want to consider how the information may be used. What else will you want to consider?
A

-Who will be reading or using it

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107
Q
  1. Good record keeping assures that the team is not making decisions based on random impressions but on what?
A

-Valid information

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108
Q
  1. Maintaining accurate documentation while dependably providing excellent services requires what from you?
A

-Good judgment to strike a balance

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109
Q
  1. What is one thing you can do while you are working to remember details or events you will document later?
A

-Carry a note pad around when working to jot down notes to transcribe later

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110
Q
  1. What are the five rules of incident report writing?
A

-Write for an audience; account for everyone and everything; be clear and chronological; be timely and complete; consider the attachments

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111
Q
  1. What can your documentation related to a person’s health screenings help to ensure?
A

-That they are receiving the health screenings that are recommended for their sex, age, and medical conditions

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112
Q
  1. What is one thing you can do to maximize accuracy of what you document when assessing a person?
A

-Document immediately after an observation

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113
Q
  1. What is the purpose of writing and reviewing accurate and complete incident reports?
A

-To prevent recurrences of that incident

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114
Q
  1. What is not appropriate to document in a communication log book?
A

-Comments critical of others

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115
Q
  1. What is one benefit to digitizing documents?
A

-To reduce paper

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116
Q
  1. What should be contained in a receipt of an expenditure?
A

-A description of the item, the date of purchase and the amount of expense

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117
Q
  1. To maintain organization, what choices should you give yourself for every piece of paper you receive or generate?
A

-Throw it away, route it to someone else, act on it now or file it and put it on your master to-do list

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118
Q
  1. What does the “contractual” aspect of the annual service plan guide?
A

-All services received by the person

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119
Q
  1. When might not obtaining informed consent, possibly violating confidentiality, be justified?
A

-When there is a significant and immediate health and safety risk to the person you support, or to others

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120
Q
  1. What are three things that work together to ensure the person is living a life that reflects their needs and desires?
A

-The service plan, your support of the person based on this plan, and the documentation of your support

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121
Q
  1. For documentation to be beneficial it must be?
A

-Reviewed

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122
Q
  1. Complete this sentence: Documentation and record keeping are important to ensure…
A

-accountability, coordination of care between yourself and other supports and to guide the improvement of services

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123
Q
  1. High-quality documentation is important because it can result in which of these outcomes?
A

-A full and safe life for the person served

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124
Q
  1. What are two reasons that documentation is beneficial?
A

-More complete communication in emergencies, and more accurate assessments, will improve services to the person

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125
Q
  1. True or False: Turn-taking games do not encourage joint attention.
A

-False

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126
Q
  1. Which of the following is a joint attention behavior that is often exhibited by individuals with autism?
A

-Not following the point of another person

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127
Q
  1. Triadic eye gaze is:
A

-Two individuals sharing eye gaze on an object then looking at each other

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128
Q
  1. Which of the following is an intervention target for teaching responding joint attention?
A

-Attending to a noisy toy when it is activated and positioned across the room

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129
Q
  1. Which of the following imitation skills is the most difficult for a person with autism?
A

-Imitating facial expressions

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130
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a fine motor imitation skill?
A

-Drawing a line in the air with a finger

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131
Q
  1. Joint attention is:
A

-The shared focus of at least 2 individuals on an object or activity

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132
Q
  1. Difficulties in joint attention lead to problems in:
A

-Language development, vocabulary development, and social skills development

133
Q
  1. Responding joint attention is when:
A

-A person responds to a bid for attention

134
Q
  1. True or False: Echoics can be addressed in both discrete trial and naturalistic intervention.
A

-True

135
Q
  1. How does functional communication training (FCT) address problem behavior?
A

-By addressing communication skills needed to replace the problem behavior

136
Q
  1. Two main reasons why individuals engage in a particular behavior are:
A

-Escape and gain

137
Q
  1. Intermittent schedules of reinforcement are necessary to:
A

-Maintain behavior and get reinforcement on a more naturally occurring schedule

138
Q
  1. Which of the following behaviors could be reinforced on a fixed interval schedule of reinforcement?
A

-The amount of time spent on a task

139
Q
  1. Why are individuals taught to use replacement behaviors in place of problem behavior?
A

-Because just suppressing a problem behavior does not provide a way to get an individual’s needs met

140
Q
  1. Differential reinforcement works by:
A

-Increasing desirable behaviors while decreasing problem behavior

141
Q
  1. Which of the following is a consequence that is likely to result in the increase of a behavior?
A

-Reinforcement

142
Q
  1. Which of the following replacement behaviors might be functionally equivalent to the undesirable behavior of screaming a demand?
A

-Verbalizing what is wanted

143
Q
  1. Which of the following is a discriminative stimulus (SD)?
A

-Saying “Match blue” and receiving a blue card

144
Q
  1. Replacement behaviors are:
A

-Acceptable behaviors to teach in place of undesirable behaviors

145
Q
  1. Which of the following makes reinforcement more effective?
A

-Deprivation state, immediacy, adequate size, and contingency

146
Q
  1. Which part of the 3-term contingency addresses factors that occur before the display of behavior?
A

-Antecedents

147
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about concept of motivating operations (MO)?
A

-Reinforcers work better when they are in effect

148
Q
  1. Which of the following is an antecedent variable that could play a role in the display of a behavior?
A

-Being in a quiet environment

149
Q
  1. In studying problem solving behavior in kittens, Thorndike used which term to describe behaviors they displayed to escape an enclosure by pulling a string on a latch?
A

-Instrumental behavior

150
Q
  1. The “behavioral” dimension of ABA refers to:
A

-Being able to observe and measure behavior

151
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement?
A

-Taking away a chore for making good grades

152
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true about reinforcement?
A

-It increases a behavior

153
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of punishment?
A

-After a student got scolded in the hallway for making noises in class, he quit making noises in class.

154
Q
  1. Which of the following dimensions of ABA refers to the social importance of problems?
A

-Applied

155
Q
  1. John Watson used which term to describe the study of behavior?
A

-Behaviorism

156
Q
  1. Secondary reinforcers become reinforcing after:
A

-The secondary reinforcer is associated with other reinforcers.

157
Q
  1. Which of the following is an explanation of the “Dead Man’s Test”?
A

-If a dead man cannot do it, then it is a behavior.

158
Q
  1. Skinner used the term “operant conditioning” to describe:
A

-Rats pressing a lever to receive food until they were full

159
Q
  1. Consequences are:
A

-What happens as a result of a behavior

160
Q
  1. Why is it so important to always consider human rights and potential for risk of harm when establishing behavior change programs?
A

-Because people who need these programs are often vulnerable and can become victims of mistreatment

161
Q
  1. Which of the following evidenced based practices in ABA helps someone learn a new skill step by step?
A

-Behavior shaping

162
Q
  1. If an intrusive intervention such as punishment or physical intervention must be used, it is important to:
A

-Make sure the client and data are monitored for unintended side effects and the rate of progress.

163
Q
  1. Under what circumstances is it alright not to take data immediately after a behavior occurs:
A

-When the demands of the intervention or the behavior of the person precludes taking data immediately

164
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true?
A

-Accurate data is always necessary for building behavior change plans and measuring progress.

165
Q
  1. The United Nations General Assembly provided a standard for:
A

-The rights of all humans.

166
Q
  1. When is it okay to provide data that is not 100% accurate or true?
A

-It is never okay to provide inaccurate data

167
Q
  1. Effective treatments must also be:
A

-Humane

168
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of overzealous intrusive intervention?
A

-An RBT running over to a client who is slapping himself and screaming for help while they are trying to hold the person’s hands

169
Q
  1. What does the term “least intrusive” mean as it relates to behavior change plans?
A

-Behavior change plans that place the least amount of risk or discomfort

170
Q
  1. Prompting strategies used in naturalistic teaching approaches:
A

-Vary according to child responses

171
Q
  1. Which of the following is the best reason for conducting a reinforcer assessment before implementing a naturalistic intervention?
A

-To know what to have available as reinforcers and possibly intervention materials

172
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered a naturalistic teaching strategy?
A

-Incidental teaching

173
Q
  1. Which type of reinforcer assessment involves allowing the learner access to many items at one time and observe what they interact with the most?
A

-Free operant

174
Q
  1. Which of the following naturalistic techniques places a heavy emphasis on teaching verbal operants such as mands, tacts, and intraverbals?
A

-Natural environment teaching

175
Q
  1. The Early Start Denver Model (ESDM) places a large emphasis on:
A

-Developmental trajectories for intervention

176
Q
  1. A behavior technician provides a card written cue for what to say when ordering lunch at a restaurant. As the individual ordering at the restaurant is able to order more independently, the words on the card are reduced. This is an example of:
A

-Script fading

177
Q
  1. Which of the following items would be the best choice for using during a naturalistic teaching session with a young child?
A

-A toy car with a racetrack

178
Q
  1. When multiple people are involved in the delivery of a naturalistic intervention, it is important that everyone:
A

-Knows what skills are to be addressed and the strategies used to teach the skill

179
Q
  1. Discrete trial teaching differs from naturalistic teaching strategies in that:
A

-Discrete trial instruction is adult-initiated and naturalistic teaching strategies are child initiated

180
Q
  1. Which of the following naturalistic techniques places a heavy emphasis on self-management and the development of behaviors associated with empathy?
A

-Pivotal Response Treatment

181
Q
  1. What needs to be included as part of data collection for a naturalistic teaching session?
A

-Prompt levels needed to elicit the target behavior

182
Q
  1. What is the best reason to train parents and caregivers on how to implement naturalistic teaching?
A

-So they can help the child acquire the intervention targets quicker

183
Q
  1. Which of the following could be considered a “multiple relationship” according to the RBT Ethics Code?
A

-An RBT and parent of a client who have a romantic relationship

184
Q
  1. True or False: Videoconferencing and webcams can be used in RBT supervision.
A

-True

185
Q
  1. What is a “back-up” reinforcer?
A

-Items that tokens are exchanged for

186
Q
  1. Which of the following skills is addressed in an interview format on the competency assessment?
A

-Maintaining client dignity

187
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true about the new RBT updates?
A

-The changes are based on recommendations from a panel of experts.

188
Q
  1. Which terms replaced “responsible certificant” in the latest RBT updates?
A

-RBT Requirements Coordinator and RBT Supervisor

189
Q
  1. What percentage of time of the provision of ABA services must be devoted to supervision?
A

-5%

190
Q
  1. For which of the following examples is it critical to seek clinical supervision?
A

-When a client displays unexpected behavior

191
Q
  1. Which of the following could be considered a violation of the portion of the RBT Ethics Code that addressed accurate representation of of credentials and work?
A

-Not renewing credentials and still claiming to have a current RBT status

192
Q
  1. Which of the following items was deleted from the previous version of the competency assessment?
A

-Assist with functional assessment

193
Q
  1. The Renewal Competency Assessment requires __ skills to be demonstrated with clients.
A

-5

194
Q
  1. RBT Requirements Coordinators are responsible for:
A

-All supervision activities of RBTs across an organization

195
Q
  1. Prior to the creation of the RBT Ethics Code, which set of ethical standards did RBTs follow?
A

-The Professional and Ethical Compliance Code of the BACB

196
Q
  1. What three (3) things should be included in the Client section of the crisis plan?
A

-Name of the individual, date of birth, and date the plan was created.

197
Q
  1. The following is an example of punishment: Chris uses swear words frequently. Every time he swears his mother makes him put a dollar in a jar. His swearing behavior increases.
A

-False

198
Q
  1. Physical interventions should be applied ______________.
A

-After less restrictive interventions have proved ineffective.

199
Q
  1. Crisis plans should have interventions based on which of the following?
A

-Function of the behavior

200
Q
  1. An FBA is performed to:
A

-Hypothesize function of the behavior.

201
Q
  1. In this training, crisis is defined as:
A

-Behaviors that risk harm to self, others, or the environment.

202
Q
  1. After a crisis, data should be collected ___________.
A

-As soon as possible

203
Q
  1. _________ is defined as a stimulus that follows a response and decreases the future probability of that response.
A

-Punishment

204
Q
  1. During the FBA it is observed that the person you support engages in a behavior frequently and often when they are alone. This behavior is probably _________.
A

-For automatic reinforcement

205
Q
  1. Who needs a crisis plan?
A

-Individuals who engage in self-injurious or aggressive behavior

206
Q
  1. Marla overslept and was late dropping off her kids at school. That made her late for her work as an RBT at the ABC Autism Center. When she met her first client, Zoe this morning, she did not make her usual silly faces to Zoe that she always does. She was in a hurry to get therapy started. Zoe did not comply when Marla told her to “sit in chair.” What is this an example of?
A

-Not leaving your problems at the door

207
Q
  1. You are working with a young client in a clinic setting and are implementing a toilet training protocol. Which of the following should you do to make sure that this client’s dignity is protected?
A

-Make sure that the bathroom door is shut when the client is using the toilet.

208
Q
  1. Which of the following best explains the primary purpose of the BACB’s RBT Ethics Code?
A

-The purpose of the RBT Ethics Code is to provide guidelines for certified and credentialed individuals to follow when they are providing behavior analysis services.

209
Q
  1. According to the RBT Ethics Code, clients and their families have a right to:
A

-Your background check and credentials

210
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true about the role of an RBT in the behavior change process?
A

-RBTs implement behavior change interventions.

211
Q
  1. Which of the following tasks are RBTs allowed to perform?
A

-Implement behavior change programs

212
Q
  1. If an RBT puts a picture of herself and the clients she works with on a social media site, she is:
A

-Violating the client’s right to confidentiality

213
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of an exploitive relationships?
A

-A BCBA agreeing to take a child on his caseload if the parent of the child receiving services will agree to give a discount on power tools at his hardware store

214
Q
  1. Your supervisor tells you to use a strategy you have no idea how to use. What is the best response to the request?
A

-Tell the supervisor immediately that you do not know how to use the strategy and ask for them to demonstrate it.

215
Q
  1. Ellen is an RBT who works with clients with autism in their homes. Currently, she sees 3 children every Monday, Wednesday, and Friday for 2 hours at a time. Each of them lives 15 to 30 miles from each other. By the time she gets to the last child she works with on those days, she is exhausted and doesn’t always do as good of a job as she knows she can do. She is offered an opportunity to work with another child who lives 2 miles from the second child she sees those days. What should she do?
A

-Speak with her supervisor about the situation and offer to work with the RBT who can take over therapy for her current third child for those days.

216
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is the best way to describe this particular behavioral intervention to a parent of a child receiving the intervention?
A

-After John has written 3 letters of his name, give him a small piece of crunchy cereal.

217
Q
  1. When is it acceptable to videotape a client receiving an intervention?
A

-If the client and family provide informed consent, which means they know why the videotaping is occurring.

218
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a multiple relationship?
A

-Tina and Lois are best friends. Lois is an RBT who works with Tina’s son.

219
Q
  1. George was assigned to work with Franklin at his home today. As part of his therapy, Franklin was learning to use his electric razor to shave his face. He had been shaving the area under his nose independently. Today Franklin flatly refused to do so and shouted “No shave” over and over again. Franklin’s mother came in from her garden outside and asked George how the shaving was going. What should George say to Franklin’s mother?
A

-“Franklin did not want to shave under his nose today, that’s unusual. I would like to try a different reinforcement schedule with him to see if that will help.”

220
Q
  1. Which of the following types of interventions are RBTs allowed to use?
A

-Scientifically-based behavioral interventions

221
Q
  1. Differential reinforcement of low rates of behavior is used to:
A

-Increase the amount of time between the display of one behavior to the next

222
Q
  1. Which of the following increases the value of a reinforcer for an individual?
A

-If it is delivered immediately and only available for the display of the target behavior

223
Q
  1. Why are intermittent reinforcement schedules used?
A

-To maintain previously acquired behaviors

224
Q
  1. What is the best way to prevent ratio strain?
A

-To thin reinforcement gradually

225
Q
  1. Ratio schedules of reinforcement offer reinforcers:
A

-After a specific number of responses are displayed

226
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a continuous schedule of reinforcement (CRF)?
A

-Mike gets a point each time he raises his hand.

227
Q
  1. What is ratio strain?
A

-The disruption in the display of the behavior when reinforcement is thinned too quickly

228
Q
  1. Fixed ratio schedules:
A

-Produce high and steady rates of behavior

229
Q
  1. Interval schedules of reinforcement are delivered:
A

-After a specified amount of time has elapsed

230
Q
  1. A concurrent schedule of reinforcement is operating when:
A

-When 2 schedules of reinforcement are simultaneously available

231
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the difference between positive and negative reinforcement?
A

-Positive reinforcement involves giving something to increase a behavior and negative reinforcement involves taking something away in order to increase behavior

232
Q
  1. Which of the following illustrates an FR3 schedule of reinforcement?
A

-Reinforced after the 3rd correct response

233
Q
  1. Fixed interval schedules often result in:
A

-An increased rate of responding at the end of the interval

234
Q
  1. A limited hold is sometimes added to interval reinforcement in order to:
A

-Speed up the display of the target behavior

235
Q
  1. Variable ratio schedules of reinforcement:
A

-Provide high and steady rates of the behavior targeted for reinforcement

236
Q
  1. To achieve momentum during a discrete trial session, you must:
A

-Deliver discriminative stimuli (SD) quickly

237
Q
  1. Being punctual means:
A

-Arriving 5 to 10 minutes early to prepare

238
Q
  1. Which is the most important reason for RBTs to be active listeners?
A

-So they can understand and act on what is delivered in the message

239
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of how to interact with your supervisor?
A

-Be friendly, ask for assistance when needed, ask questions, and welcome feedback.

240
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most objective statement regarding a tantrum displayed by an individual receiving services?
A

-This tantrum lasted 10 minutes. Maybe we should review the behavior plan.

241
Q
  1. When are data typically collected during a discrete trial session?
A

-During the intertrial interval

242
Q
  1. Which of the following is unique to data collection for naturalistic interventions vs. discrete trials?
A

-Activities or routines used to elicit target behaviors

243
Q
  1. When is the best time to allow for a break during a discrete trial session?
A

-Before or when the learner shows signs of tiring but is not yet resisting requests to respond to discriminative stimuli (SD)

244
Q
  1. When delivering a discrete trial session, which is the most important reason to minimize distractions in the environment?
A

-So the learner can focus on what they are being asked to do

245
Q
  1. To prepare for a discrete trial session, you must gather the skill acquisition plan, materials, reinforcers, and __________.
A

-Data collection sheets or devices

246
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true regarding dressing for the job?
A

-Dress for the environment and follow company dress codes.

247
Q
  1. Which of the following interventionist actions is likely to be observed during naturalistic intervention?
A

-Allowing the learner to approach a reinforcing item but blocking access until they respond to a discriminative stimulus (SD)

248
Q
  1. Which of the following may be necessary to create for a functional skills intervention session?
A

-Visual task analysis

249
Q
  1. When delivering a naturalistic intervention in public, it is important to:
A

-Minimize attention drawn to prompting or redirection

250
Q
  1. Generalization across settings occurs when:
A

-The learner performs the behavior in different environments

251
Q
  1. A time delay method for fading prompts would be:
A

-Delay the delivery of prompts and wait for the person to respond

252
Q
  1. Which of the following is an illustration of most-to-least prompting?
A

-Partial physical, modeling, visual, gestural

253
Q
  1. Forward chaining involves:
A

-Teaching the beginning steps and reinforcing each subsequent step

254
Q
  1. Why is it important for learners to generalize new behavior?
A

-So they can use it in a meaningful way across different situations

255
Q
  1. When behaviors are being maintained, reinforcement schedules move from:
A

-Thick to thin

256
Q
  1. If a behavior is maintained:
A

-Then the individual continues to perform it after intervention has stopped

257
Q
  1. Walter can ride a bicycle and shoot a basketball through a hoop, but he cannot draw a picture of a dog. Which of the skills would you say are in Walter’s “behavioral repertoire?”
A

-Riding a bicycle and shooting a basketball through a hoop

258
Q
  1. Teaching with multiple instructions helps learners to generalize because:
A

-They can respond to different cues found in the natural environment

259
Q
  1. Which of the following could be a successive approximation for shaping the behavior of “having a conversation”?
A

-Saying “hello” to another person

260
Q
  1. Which prompt fading strategy involves using the most intrusive prompt initially then fading to a less intrusive prompt?
A

-Decreasing assistance

261
Q
  1. Which of the following is an advantage of backward chaining:
A

-The learner experiences the culmination of the steps of the chain more quickly

262
Q
  1. Which of the following describes a potential issue with environmental stimuli and people with disabilities?
A

-They sometimes overreact and underreact to stimuli

263
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the value of stimulus control?
A

-The learner can focus on what is important

264
Q
  1. Which of the following statements provides an example of stimulus control?
A

-A child sees a cookie and then asks for it

265
Q
  1. What is the overall intent for delivering a discriminative stimulus?
A

-To get an individual to engage in a particular behavior

266
Q
  1. Which of the following is a learner characteristic that could impact the development of stimulus control?
A

-Attending skills

267
Q
  1. Which part of the 3-term contingency is the most responsible for stimulus control?
A

-Antecedents

268
Q
  1. Stimulus discrimination training helps:
A

-The learner to discern what is correct in the presence of an incorrect stimulus

269
Q
  1. What is a stimulus class?
A

-A set of stimuli that share a common attribute

270
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of how stimulus control could be augmented?
A

-A timer to signal how long to brush teeth

271
Q
  1. Which of the following is an illustration of reflexivity in relation to stimulus equivalence?
A

-A=A

272
Q
  1. Stimulus control occurs when:
A

-An individual behaves one way in the presence of a stimulus and differently in the presence of another

273
Q
  1. When using a lag schedule of reinforcement for intraverbal training, reinforce after:
A

-The learner provides a correct but different response from the last one

274
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of an echoic?
A

-Say “juice.” “Juice.”

275
Q
  1. Which of the following is true in reference to tacts and reinforcement?
A

-Reinforcement is not necessarily specific to the tact

276
Q
  1. When teaching learners to begin to use 2-word mands, why is it important that both words are critical to the mand?
A

-So the listener will clearly understand the mand and can act accordingly

277
Q
  1. Under what circumstance would it be important to provide an echoic training session related to targeted tacts?
A

-To make sure the learner knows how to repeat words and sounds when asked

278
Q
  1. Which of the following verbal operants is directly tied to reinforcement?
A

-mands

279
Q
  1. At about what age do children start to answer who, what, and where questions?
A

-3 to 4 years

280
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a defective mand?
A

-Crying when wanting a drink

281
Q
  1. How does a motivating operation work to increase the effectiveness of mand training?
A

-It makes it more likely that the individual will want the reinforcer and will mand for it

282
Q
  1. Multiple exemplar training involves teaching target words as:
A

-Receptive identification, tacts, and intraverbals

283
Q
  1. Strategies for promoting generalization of tacts include:
A

-Teaching different forms of the tact and varying teaching conditions

284
Q
  1. When setting up natural environment teaching (NET) to teach mands, which of the following is the most important:
A

-Make sure that the motivation for reinforcers can be contrived

285
Q
  1. When using discrete trials to teach beginning mands, you should:
A

-Hold the reinforcer in sight and use echoic prompts

286
Q
  1. What framework for thinking about disability focuses on identifying and treating impairments?
A

-The medical model

287
Q
  1. What is the term for a behavior, event, or object that can help measure quality of life?
A

-Indicator

288
Q
  1. Which core domain includes a person’s finances and living situation?
A

-Material well-being

289
Q
  1. Which core domain includes a person’s feelings about themselves and their worth?
A

-Emotional well-being

290
Q
  1. Whose point of view is MOST important in measuring quality of life?
A

-The person’s

291
Q
  1. Which core domain includes nutrition and self-care skills?
A

-Physical well-being

292
Q
  1. How does the social model of disability view impairment?
A

-A person’s environment can turn an impairment into a disability.

293
Q
  1. A person’s employer agrees to install an electronic door opener so the person can more easily get into their office. What type of support is this?
A

-Adaptation

294
Q
  1. Which of these statements is one of the two main ideas behind the quality of life approach to services?
A

-Every person has the right to a life of quality.

295
Q
  1. Which of the following is done before using natural environment teaching with a learner?
A

-Identify activity routines that provide cues for responding

296
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of an advanced level of following directions?
A

-Get the large red and blue cup

297
Q
  1. In a typically developing child, at what age do they turn their heads to the source of a sound?
A

-2 months

298
Q
  1. Intermediate learners should respond to:
A

-50 simple noun/verb combinations

299
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes “match to sample”?
A

-Matching an item to an identical one

300
Q
  1. Early learning skills are important ____ for more advanced skills.
A

-Components

301
Q
  1. The term “receptive language” is similar in meaning to the term:
A

-Listener responding

302
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of using natural environment teaching (NET) to teach receptive discrimination?
A

-Choosing a spoon from a drawer full of utensils

303
Q
  1. In a typically developing child, at what age do they respond to hearing their name?
A

-6 months

304
Q
  1. Which of the following approaches are used to teach listener responding?
A

-Natural environment teaching

305
Q
  1. Which step in implementing a token economy comes after the individual displays the target behavior?
A

-A token is delivered to the individual

306
Q
  1. Why are token systems considered to be “flexible”?
A

-Because tokens can be traded for a choice of different reinforcers

307
Q
  1. In which scenario would the reinforcer be effective and ethical to use?
A

-Charlie completed a math quiz. He turned in his paper and received a point on his work completion card.

308
Q
  1. Martin is creating a reinforcer menu for 5 to 7 year olds in his social play group. Which of the following descriptions of the menu would be best for this group?
A

-A large poster in the room with photos of 5 items and a visual representation of how many tokens each costs

309
Q
  1. Why is it important to establish target behaviors in a token system?
A

-To know what behaviors an individual must display to receive a token

310
Q
  1. It is important to have a variety of back-up reinforcers on a reinforcer menu or to change them up on a regular basis because:
A

-Only having the choice among the same items may cause individuals to become bored and stop earning tokens

311
Q
  1. When delivering token reinforcement for the display of a targeted behavior, it is a good idea to:
A

-To provide the individual receiving the token a brief explanation why they are receiving it

312
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of positive reinforcement?
A

-Giving a learner a sticker for raising their hand before speaking and they continue to raise their hand

313
Q
  1. Which of the following token forms would be best for a young child receiving discrete trials?
A

-A token board with 3 spaces exchanged for reinforcers during the session

314
Q
  1. Why is it important for behaviors that are targeted for token reinforcement be clearly defined?
A

-So that everyone involved in the delivering or receiving tokens know which behaviors are being reinforced

315
Q
  1. When it is necessary to use “categories” of behaviors to be reinforced in token systems, which of the following needs to happen?
A

-Clearly define the behaviors that fall within those categories

316
Q
  1. Which ratio of reinforcers to reprimands should be used for those who display high levels of problem behavior?
A

-6 to 8 reinforcers to 1 reprimand

317
Q
  1. Which of the following is an advantage of using a token economy?
A

-They are resistant to satiation and individuals becoming bored because of the variety of back-up reinforcers that can be used.

318
Q
  1. One of the biggest drawbacks of using response cost is:
A

-So many tokens can be taken away creating a situation where the individual has a negative balance

319
Q
  1. When using a token system in a naturalistic intervention, it can be challenging to:
A

-Communicate the link between the behavior and receipt of the token at the time the behavior is displayed

320
Q
  1. True or False: Families should always have some role in ABA intervention.
A

-True

321
Q
  1. In providing written communication, RBTs should use which of the following?
A

-Observable and measurable terms and descriptions

322
Q
  1. Why is modeling optimism helpful to families?
A

-Because you can show them that there is hope for the future

323
Q
  1. Which is the best way to help families prioritize their efforts in working with their child?
A

-Help the family address the most critical issue first

324
Q
  1. What are 3 reasons to ask questions?
A

-To start a conversation, to obtain information, and to show interest in another’s ideas

325
Q
  1. Why is goal setting with families important?
A

-So they can feel like they are being heard by ABA staff

326
Q
  1. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the role of the RBT in communication with families?
A

-Agencies may have specific guidelines for communicating with families that align with the BACB’s Professional and Ethical Compliance Code.

327
Q
  1. When families have questions about the impact of ABA on the future of their child, which is the best approach toward answering them?
A

-Provide honest and accurate information about ABA in general and refer to individual data

328
Q
  1. Which of the following components of behavioral skill training (BST) was determined to have the most impact on the way in which intervention is delivered?
A

-Feedback

329
Q
  1. What are some practices that ABA professionals need to adopt to build strong professional relationships with families?
A

-Model optimism, practice nonjudgment, and prioritize intervention efforts

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