Exam Flashcards
1
Q
Dissociation
. only occurs in people with a dissociative disorder
. is a sign that something is seriously wrong
. is extremely common and not necessarily pathological
. is extremely rare and not necessarily pathological
A
is extrememly common and not necessarily pathological
2
Q
The disorder invloving the experience of sudden loss of the sense of self is:
. depresonalization/derealization disorder
. psychogenic amnesia
. disidentity disorder
. derealization disorder
A
depersonalization/derealization disorder
3
Q
Garard became amnesic, wandered away from hrom and assumed a completely new identity as a shoe salesman. He suffers from: . dissociative fugue . dissociative identity disorder . malingering identity disorder . depersonalization
A
dissociative fugue
4
Q
When a person experiences dissociative amnesia, one main type of memory is usually affected, Which? . semantic memory . procedual memory . perceptual memory . episodic memory
A
episodic memory
5
Q
Dissociative identity disorder was formerly known as: . psychogenic amnesia . multiple personality disorder . conversion hysteria . neurasthenia
A
multiple personality disorder
6
Q
In the individual with DID, ‘switches’ between identities:
. usually take several days
. produce gaps in memory
. occur symmetrically, such that all identities share equal control
. are controlled by the host identity
A
produce gaps in memory
7
Q
What is one reason why the prevalence of DID has been increasing?
A
It may be that the prevalence of DID has not changed at all, but that clinicians may unknowingly encourage the emergence of new identities
8
Q
There is debate as to the relationship between DID and abuse because:
. few of thos who develop DID have a history of abuse
. there is little evidence of a link between traunma and psychopathology
. other factors correlated with abuse may be the true casual factors in DID
. most reports of abuse are faked
A
other factors correlated with abuse may be the true casual factors in DID
9
Q
According to sociocognitive theory:
. the mind separates due to some traumatic experience and is never full integrated, resulting in the multiple identities observed in DID
. the alters in DID develop as a means of excaping from some form of trauma
. DID has a factitious origin
. DID may develop when a suggestive patient is treated by an overzealous clinician
A
DID may develop when a suggestive patient is terated by an overzealous clinician
10
Q
Which of the following is a sufficient element to determine abnormality? . suffering . maladaptiveness . deviancy . there is no single sufficient element
A
there is no single sufficient element
11
Q
Brett persistently injects himself with painkillers. This has greatly increase his chance of overdosing and dying. His behaviour harms no one else. According to the DSM-5, is Breet’s behaviour consistent with the definition of a mental disorder?
. yes, because many people in society engage in this behaviour
. yes, because he is persistently acting in a way that harms him
. no, because his behaviour must also harm the well-being of others in the community
. no, because there is no evidence that his actions are out of his own control
A
yes, because he is persistently acting in a way that harms him
12
Q
Which of the following best describes the DSM?
. a complete guide to the origin, diagnosis and treatment of mental disorders
. A work in progress that classifies mental disorders based on what is currently known
. a fundamentally flawed collection of unfounded assumptions about mental disorders
. a collection of random opinions to diagnosing mental disorders
A
a work in progress that classifies mental disorders based on what is currently known
13
Q
Which of the following is a disadvantage of having a classification system for mental disorders?
. a classification system establishes the types of problems that mental professionals can treat
. when a label is used to describe an individual’s behaviour, information about the person is lost
. a classification system allows for research to advance
. identifying the disorder that an individual has guides treatment
A
when a label is used to describe an individual’s behaviour, information about the person is lost
14
Q
Dr. Fox studies the causes of depression. In other words, she looks at factors that play a role in the \_\_\_\_ of depression. . etiology . epidemiology . prevalence . resiliency
A
etiology
15
Q
Dr. Simon, a psychiatrist, takes a biopsychosocial viewpoint of psychopathology. Which of the following treatments is he most likely to suggest for Julia’s current state of depression?
. Intense psychotherapy
. a prolonged vacation
. a combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs.
. family therapy and a change in her work environment
A
a combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs
16
Q
Which perspective or viewpoint focuses on intrapsychic conflicts as the cause of psychopathology? . biological . behavioural . psychodynamic . sociocultural
A
psychodynamic
17
Q
Which of the following statements regarding assessment is true?
. assessment should focuse only on the client’s current level of functioning
. an adequate assessment includes a determination of the amount of danger the client poses to himself and others
. an adequate assessment should include as much information as possible
A
an adequate assessment should include as much information as possible
18
Q
Under what circumstances is a structured interview most likely to be used?
. when consistent information is needed for research purposes
. when an accurate diagnosis is needed to ensure appropriate treatment
. when the behaviour of the client is erratic
. when the information provided in an unstructured interview is found to lack reliability
A
when consistent information is needed for research purposes
19
Q
the DSM acknowledges that
. the classification system has low reliability
. medical insurance dictates how most clinicians make a diagnosis
. most clinicians do not agree with the DSM system
. a DSM diagnosis is only the first step, much more is needed to determine treatment
A
a DSM diagnosis is only the first step, much more is needed to determine treatment
20
Q
Understanding the causes of mental disorders is important because ____
. effective treatment is not possible without such an understanding
. classification of disorders cannot be done without such information
. such knowledge might make both the prevention and cue of mental disorders possible
A
such knowledge might make both the prevention and cure of mental disorders possible
21
Q
Suppose that the presence of a particular gene is a necessary cause for the occurrence of schizophrenia. Which of the following statements would be true?
. the gene is also a sufficient cause for the occurrence of schizophrenia
. there are other things besides this gene that can cause schizophrenia
. most people with schizophrenia will have that gene
. a person with that gene may or may not become schizophrenic
A
A person with that gene may or may not become schizophrenic
22
Q
Dr. Simon, a psychiatrist, takes a biopsychosocial viewpoint of psychopathology. Which of the following treatments is he most likely to suggest for Julia’s current state of depression?
. intense psychotherapy
. a prolonged vacation
. a combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs
. family therapy and a change in her work environment
A
a combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs
23
Q
Reuptake of neurotransmitters is the process by which neurotransmitters ___
. are repeatedly released into the synapse
. are reabsorbed by the axon
. stimulate the post-synaptic neuron to fire
. are connected to hormones
A
are reabsorbed by the axon
24
Q
The humanistic perspective focuses primarily upon the capacity of the individual to \_\_\_ . confront the dilemma of our deaths . be driven by unconscious motives . rationally explain our behaviour . engage in positive self-growth
A
engage in positive self-growth
25
```
Learning not to do something because you are punished when you do it is an example of ____
. classical conditioning
. generalisation
. instrumental conditioning
. observational learning
```
instrumental conditioning
26
```
Which parental style is characterised by warmth, control and communication?
. authoritarian
. permissive/indulgent
. authoritative
. neglectful-uninvolved
```
authoritative
27
Children from lower-SES families ___
. are more likely to be resilient adults than those from higher-SES families
. show no signs of ill efects if there is an increase in SES before age 5
. are less likely to show ill effects of SES status if they possess a high IQ and develop healthy attachments to adults and peers
are less likely to show ill effects of SES status if they possess a high IQ and develop healthy attachments to adults and peers
28
Cross-cultural research on stress demonstrates that ___
. depression is a common response to life challenges in all countries studied
. stress rarely leads to any evidence of illness in non-Western cultures
. responses to stress vary cross-culturally
responses to stress vary cross-culturally
29
Studies on the cultural differences in parental tolerance of under-or-over-controlled behaviour suggest that ___
. these different styles can produce different rates of problem behaviours in different cultures
. parental styles make no difference in rates of different behaviour problems - they seem to be primarily genetic
. all cultures feel the same about bringing their children for treatment, regardless of he type of behaviour problem
these different styles can produce different rates of problem behaviours in different cultures
30
Selye
. recognised that both happy and sad life events can be sources of stress
. conducted extensive research on the effects of stress on the immune system
. failed to acknowledge the role of the environment in adapting to stress
. focused on the cognitive component of the stress
recognised that both happy and sad life events can be sources of stress
31
The term 'crisis' refers to:
. any time when a stressful situation exceeds one's ability to cope
. encountering a number of stressors simultaneously
. a period of especially acute stress
. any encounter that requires a readjustment of self-concept
any time when a stressful situation exceeds one's ability to cope
32
```
A main symptom of PTSD in DSM-5 is:
. development of stress-related diseases
. reexperiencing of the traumatic event
. panic attacks when remembering the trauma
. depression
```
reexperiencing of the traumatic event
33
```
For an adjustment disorder, the symptoms must appear within ___ months of the stressor
. 2
. 9
. 3
. 6
```
3
34
According to DSM-5, acute stress disorder becomes PTSD when:
. the trauma is an event out of the realm of normal life experience
. the symptoms last for more than 2 weeks
. the symptoms last more than 4 weeks
. the symptoms begin within 6 months of the trauma
the symptoms last for more than 4 weeks
35
Estimates of the prevalence of PTSD
. have not been made
. indicate that most people who experience a traumatic event develop PTSD
. demonstrate that it is more commonly seen in women
. find that it rarely exists as a comorbid condition
demonstrate that it is more commonly seen in women
36
```
Which of the following is NOT a key characteristic of stress
. severity
. chronicity
. timing
. probability
```
probability
37
According to the DSM, an adjustment disorder does NOT involve
. bereavement
. marked distress
. significant impairment in social, occupational or other areas of functioning
. identifiable stressors(s)
bereavement
38
```
The incident with the highest lifetime prevalence for PTSD is:
. massive catastrophic trauma
. sexual assault
. sudden loss of a loved one
. all of the above
```
all of the above
39
According to the DSM, an essential feature of acute stress disorder involves
development of characteristic anxiety, dissociative or other symptoms within 1 month after exposure to traumatic stressor
40
Fear is a basic emotion that involves:
. concern about the future
. the activation of the 'fight' or 'flight' response
. negative thoughts, but not a change in physiological arousal
. a complex blend of negative mood and self-preoccupation
the activation of the 'fight' or 'flight' response
41
Which of the following would be an example of anxiety?
. Julie jumped when she saw the snake
. Hilda dreaded walking home alone
. Carl was certain that the food was poisoned
. The voices in Paul's head told him he should be afraid
Hilda dreaded walking home alone
42
Martin is afraid to fly. He knows his boss wants him to take a trip for the business. Martin feels miserable, because he wants to keep his job but cannot even imagine getting on a plane. The most likely diagnosis for Marin is:
. agoraphobia without history of panic disorder
. social phobia
. specific phobia, situation type
. panic disorder with agoraphobia
specific phobia, situation type
43
```
Which of the following is associated with a unique physiological response pattern?
. agoraphobia
. blood-injection-injury phobia
. obsessive-compulsive disorder
. generalised anxiety disorder
```
blood-injection-injury phobia
44
```
Nicoles mother is terrible afraid of snakes. Although Nicole has never actually seen a snake, her mother has told her time and again to be careful to look for them when she is walking. Now Nicole has an intense fear of snakes and refuses to walk in the grass. This is an example of:
. vicarious conditioning of a phobia
. classical conditioning of a phobia
. operant conditioning of a phobia
. unconscious conditioning of a phobia
```
vicarious conditioning of a phobia
45
Evolutionary preparedness explains:
. why phobic people are likely to maintain their avoidance behaviour
. how the inflation effect works
. why cognitive variables are so important in phobias
. why some types of phobias are much more common than others
why some types of phobias are much more common than others
46
Limited symptom attacks are
. a characteristic of panic disorder
. panic attacks consisting of fewer than four symptoms
. unpredictable somatic aliments
. typically seen in individuals with agoraphobia with panic
panic attacks consisting of fewer than four symptoms
47
Research using panic provocation agents has revealed
. the neurobiological basis for panic disorder
. that there is no biological explanation for panic disorder
. flaws in the studies using sodium lactate infusion
. that there are probably multiple biological explanations for panic disorder
that there are probably multiple biological explanations for panic disorder
48
In order to meet the criteria for a major depressive episode, a person MUST have
. a depressed mood or loss of pleasure most of the day for at least 2 weeks
. significant weight loss
. intense irritability
insomnia
a depressed mood or loss of pleasure most of the day for at least 2 weeks
49
```
Which of the following disorders must symptoms be present for at least 2 years in order for a diagnosis to be made?
. persistent depressive disorder
. bipolar 1 disorder
. major depressive disorder
. bipolar 2 disorder
```
persistent depressive disorder
50
```
Which of the following is a symptom of major depressive disorder
. checking and rechecking things
. appetite and weight loss
. running thoughts
. impulsive spending
```
appetite and weight loss
51
```
Deena has major depressive disorder. Most days she feels very sad, but when her sister came and told Deena she was going to be an aunt, Deena felt happy for a little while. She has been gaining weight and sleeping much of the day. Deena most likely has
. melancholic features
. double depression
. atypical features
. psychotic features
```
atypical features
52
```
Angela has had several periods of extremely 'up' moods. They last for a couple of weeks and she has gotten into trouble several times. During those times she doesn't sleep, spends way too much money, gets involved in bad business decisions, talks quickly and thinks even more quickly and believes she can do anything. The best diagnosis for Angela is
. manic disorder
. bipolar 2 disorder
. bipolar 1 disorder
. cyclothymic disorder
```
bipolar 1 disorder
53
Which of the following is true?
. neither unipolar nor bipolar disorder have a strong genetic contribution
. unipolar and bipolar disorders have an equally strong genetic contribution
. unipolar disorder is more strongly inherited than bipolar disorder
. bipolar disorder is more strongly inherited than unipolar disorder
bipolar disorder is more strongly inherited than unipolar disorder
54
Which of the following is a true statement about rapid cycling in bipolar disorders?
. it is seen in men more than women
. it occurs in only those with bipolar 2 disorder
. lithium may trigger a cycling episode
. it is seen in 5-10% of those with bipolar disorder
it is seen in 5-10% of those with bipolar disorder
55
A diagnosis of bipolar 2 disorder indicates that the person has experienced:
. a episode of mania
. an episode of mania or major depression
. an episode of hypomania and an episode of major depression
. an episode of mania and an episode of major depression
an episode of hypomania and an episode of major depression
56
Which of the following is necessary for a diagnosis of bipolar disorder?
. the occurrence of two or more episodes of major depression
. unremitting symptoms for a period of at least two years
. symptoms of psychosis
. the occurrence of at least one manic episode
the occurrence of at least one manic episode
57
Which of the following does not describe a reluctant client?
. a child whose parents make them go to therapy
. substance abuse users
. court-ordered domestic violence
. an individual experiencing anxiety
an individual experiencing anxiety
58
```
What is one way that efficacy of treatments cannot be measured?
. client ratings
. animal models
. behaviour change
. objective markers of change
```
animal models
59
A benefit of independent third-party ratings are?
. third parties are motivated to see gains made by the client
. third parties provide a biological reason for treatment change
. third parties may be more objective
. clients are not able to fake improvement
third parties may be more objective
60
```
Who generally performs psychotheraphy?
. a clergy member
. general practice physician
. anyone who is a trained trusted advisor
. none of the above
```
none of the above
61
Why are control groups important?
. it means the treatment has proven efficacy before being used
. it increases the sample size
. they control for placebo and time-related effects
. it controls for therapist experience
they control for placebo and time-related effects
62
Which of the following is true about medication and psychotherapy?
. medications are always more effective in the short term
. evidence suggests pharmacological treatments are effective for schozophrenia and bipolar disorder but not for other mental illnesses
. combined treatments are always superior to medication OR psychotherapy
. none of the above
none of the above
63
```
Jane is scared of dogs. Her therapist had Jane write a list of different fears about dogs and then had Jane engage in each behaviour
. sytematic reinforcement
. modelling
. systematic desensitisation
. aversion therapy
```
systematic desensitisation
64
What is a positive response to medication?
. when a client reports a 50% improvement of symptoms
. when a client reports any improvement of symptoms
. when a client reports a full remission of symptoms
. when a client reports no symptoms for 6-12m
when a client reports a 50% improvement of symptoms
65
Electroconvulsive therapy
. is used for individuals with severe depression, and sometimes mania
. takes approximately 20 sessions
. is safely administered only once per week
. all of the above
is used for individuals with severe depression, and sometimes mania
66
cognitive behavioural therapy
. should only be used in combination with medication
. is the front line treatment for severe psychotic depression
. is used to treat a broad range of mental illnesses for depression to anger control
is used to treat a broad range of mental illnesses for depression to anger control
67
Psychocic is a striking and essential feature of schozophrenia. Psychosis means
. a tendency to be unpredictably violent
. significant loss of contact with reality
. an inability to know right from wrong
. an abrupt shift in personality from one pattern to another
significant loss of contact with reality
68
The majority of cases of schizophrenia begin
. late adulthood of old age
. late adolescence or early adulthood
. late childhood or early adolescence
. there is no age where the majority of cases begin
late adolescence or early adulthood
69
```
Delusions are
.perceptions with no basis in reality
. only seen in schizophrenia
. necessary for a diagnosis of schizophrenia
. disturbances in the content of thought
```
disturbances in the content of thought
70
```
Sterling believes that the TV special that was on last night was shown to tell her that she should break up with her boyfriend. She is absolutely certain this is true and plans to do it. This type of belief is an example of a
. thought broadcasting delusion
. delusion of reference
. made feelings delusion
. thought insertion delusion
```
delusion of reference
71
Which of the following is an example of the most common type of hallucination seen in schizophrenia?
. Sondra tried to ignore the voices in her head
. ned believed he was Elvis
. bill was convinced that his mother was inserting evil thoughts into his mind
. Rachel would frequently see her husband, even though he had been dead for several years
Sondra tried to ignore the voices in her head
72
```
Julia clearly had psychotic symptoms. As she also showed symptoms of bipolar disorder, she was ultimately diagnosed with
. schizoaffective disorder
. schizophreniform disorder
. undifferentiated type
. residual type
```
schizoaffective disorder
73
What is the major different between a diagnosis of schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder?
. the presence of delusions and hallucinations
. the age of the person when they develop the disorder
. the degree of emotional instability and disconnection from other people
. the duration of symptoms
the duration of symptoms
74
One aspect of family enviornment that has found to be important in schizophrenia is
. the level of parental grief over their child's illness
. the level of expressed emotion
. if the mother is cold and aloof
. if lots of double-bind communications are used
the level of expressed emotion
75
Which of the following is true about second generation antipsychotics in the treatment of schizophrenia?
. they work by decreasing frontal lobe activity
. they are more effective than first generation antipsychotics
. they prevent prenatal brain damage
. they are no more effective than first generation antipsychotics
they are no more effective than first generation antipsychotics
76
What is the evidence for and against the dopamine hypothesis?
early antipsychotic drugs that blocked dopamine receptors reduced psychotic sympotms. amphetamine psychosis is due to increased dopamine. Drugs that raise dopamine, for example Parkinsons drugs, cause psychotic-like side effects. however there is no evidence that people with schizophrenia have increased levels of dopamine.
77
```
Which of the following is a sufficient element to determine abnormality?
. suffering
. maladaptiveness
. deviancy
. there is no single element
```
there is no single sufficient element
78
the fact that body piercings are commonplace today, while they would once have been viewed as abnormal, illustrates that
. modern society is unlikely to change
. acceptable for men and women is no longer different
. American culture values independence
. the values of a society may change over time
the values of a society may change over time
79
Brett persistently injects himself with painkillers. This has greatly increased his chance of overdosing and dying. his behaviour harms no one else. According to the DSM-5, is brett's behaviour consistent with the definition of a mental disorder?
. yes, because many people in society engage in this behaviour
. yes, because he is persistently acting in a way that harms him
. no, because his behaviour must also harm the well-being of others in the community
. no, because there is no evidence that his actions are out of his own control
yes, because he is persistently acting in a way that harms him
80
According to the DSM, when is deviant behaviour viewed as indicative of a mental disorder?
. always
. only when the behaviour is inconsistent with cultural norms
. when it is symptom of a dysfunction in the individual
. never
only when the behaviour is inconsistent with cultural norms
81
in the field of abnormal psychology, what does DSM stand for?
. disorders, science and the mind
. diagnostic and statistical manual
. descriptors for the science of the mind
. diagnostic science of the mind
diagnostic and statistic and statistical manual
82
which of the following best describes the DSM?
. a complete guide to the origin, diagnosis and treatment of mental disorders
. a work in progress that classifies mental disorders based on what is currently known
. a fundamentally flawed collection of unfounded assumptions about mental disorders
. a collection of random opinions about diagnosing mental disorders
a work in progress that classifies mental disorders based on what is currently known
83
which of the following most accurately describes the notion of different viewpoints of abnormal behaviour?
. each viewpoint accurately describes the causes and symptoms of two or three different disorders
. each viewpoint offers its own explanation of abnormal behaviour
. all viewpoints are equally valid
. only the biological viewpoint has been studied experimentally
each viewpoint offers it own explanation of abnormal behaviour
84
behaviourism was___
. a reaction to what the behaviourists perceived as a lack of scientific rigor in psychoanalysis
. a reaction to the lack of moral and spiritual factors in most theories at the time
. an attempt to focus on the thinking styles of people with mental illness
. a pin-off theory that elaborated on the psychoanalytic viewpoint
a reaction to what the behaviourists perceived as a lack of scientific rigor in psychoanalysis
85
the central principle of classical conditioning is that ___
. after repeated pairings with a stimulus that naturally causes a response, a neutral stimulus will cause a similar response
. we repeat those actions that we see others engage in
. the consequences of behaviour influence its likelihood of being repeated
. the interaction of genetics and social factors best explains human behaviour
after repeated parings with a stimulus that naturally causes a response, a neutral stimulus will cause a similar response
86
```
while having a gene for Parkinsons disease guarantees that Parkinsons disease will develop, this is not the only factor that can lead to Parkinson's disease. In other words, the presence of the gene is a ___ but not a ___
. risk factor; sufficient cause
. sufficient cause; necessary cause
. necessary cause; risk factor
. contributory cause; sufficient cause
```
risk factor; sufficient cause
87
understanding the causes of mental disorders is important because ___?
. effective treatment is not possible without such an understanding
. classification of disorders cannot be done without such information
. such knowledge might make both the prevention and cure of mental disorders possible
. disagreements about the cause of psychopathology have long limited the advancements made in the study of abnormal psychology
such knowledge might make both the prevention and cure of mental disorders possible
88
suppose that the presence of a particular gene is a necessary cause for the occurrence of schizophrenia. which of the following statements would be?
. the gene is also a sufficient cause for the occurrence of schizophrenia
. there are other things besides this gene that can cause schizophrenia
. most people with schizophrenia will have that gene
. a person with that gene may or may not become schizophrenic
a person with that gene may or may not become schizophrenic
89
Dr. Simon, a psychiatrist takes a biopsychosocial viewpoint of psychopathology. which of the following treatments is he most likely to suggest for Julia's current state of depression?
. intense psychotherapy
. a prolonged vacation
. a combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs
. family therapy and a change in her work environment
a combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs
90
reuptake of neurotransmitters is the process by which neurotransmitters ___
. are repeatedly released into the synapse
. are reabsorbed by the axon
. stimulate the post-synaptic neuron to fire
. are connected to hormones
are reabsorbed by the axon
91
```
the humanistic perspective focuses primarily upon the capacity of the individual to ___
. confront the dilemma of our deaths
. be driven by unconscious motives
. rationally explain our behaviour
. engage in positive self-growth
```
engage in positive self-growth
92
```
learning not to do something because you are punished when you do it is an example of ___
. classical conditioning
. generalization
. instrumental conditioning
. observational learning
```
instrumental conditioning
93
```
which parental style is characterised by warmth, control and communication?
. authoritarian
. permissive/indulgent
. authoritative
. neglectful-uninvolved
```
authoritative
94
Children from lower-SES families ___
. are more likely to be resilient adults than those from higher-SES families
. show no signs of ill effects if there is an increase in SES before age 5
. are not affected by SES status unless persistent employment is the reason for the economic hardships of the family
. are less likely to show ill effects of SES status if they possess a high IQ and develop healthy attachments to adults and peers
are less likely to show ill effects of SES status if they possess a high IQ and develop healthy attachments to adults and peers
95
cross-cultural research on stress demonstrates that ___
. depression is a common response to life challenges in all countries studied
. stress rarely leads to any evidence of illness in non-western cultures
. responses to stress vary cross-culturally
. culture-specific reactions are not seen to respond to alterations in the environment
responses to stress vary cross-culturally
96
the term 'stress' is used in the text to refer to ___
. only those external events in our lives that challenge us
. any positive demand made on an organism
. the effects of external stressors within the organism
. anything that makes us unhappy
the effects of external stressors within the organism
97
```
distress is ___
. seen when a situation is ambiguous
. a response to a happy life event
. the same thing as eutress
. a response to a negative event
```
a response to a negative event
98
```
which of the following terms refers to efforts to deal with stress?
. coping strategies
. compensatory strategies
. sublimation
. projection
```
coping strategies
99
```
in DSM-5 a new category has been added what is this new category?
. stress not specified
. positive stressor disorders
. stress and psychopathology
. trauma-and-stressor-related disorder
```
trauma-and-stressor-related disorders
100
```
which of the following psychological disturbances does not occur in response to an identifiable experience?
. adjustment disorder
. acute stress disorder
. depression
. post-traumatic stress disorder
```
depression
101
```
according to your etext, which of the following is most stressful to people and animals?
. constant stressors
. predictable stressors
. uncontrollable stressors
. physical stressors
```
uncontrollable stressors
102
the term 'crisis' refers to ___
. any time when a stressful situation exceeds one's ability to cope
. encountering a number of stressors simultaneously
. a period of especially acute stress
. any encounter that requires a readjustment of self concept
any time when a stressful situation exceeds one's ability to cope
103
according to DSM-5 acute stress disorder becomes PTSD when ___
. the trauma is an event out of the realm of normal life experience
. the symptoms last for more than 2 weeks
. the symptoms last for more than 4 weeks
. the symptoms begin within 6 months of the trauma
the symptoms last for more than 4 weeks
104
Etimates of the prevalence of PTSD ___
. have not been made
. indicate that most people who experience a traumatic event develop PTSD
. demonstrate that it is more commonly seen in women
. find that it rarely exists as a comorbid condition
demonstrate that it is more commonly seen in women
105
```
A core symptom of PTSD is DSM-5 is ___
. development of stress-related diseases
. reexperiencing of the traumatic event
. panic attacks when rememberng the trauma
. depression
```
reexperiencing of the traumatic event
106
selye
. recognised that both happy and sad life events can be sources of stress
. conducted extensive research on the effects of stress on the immune system
. failed to acknowledge the role of the environment in adapting to stress
. focused on the cognitive component of the stress response
recognised that both happy and sad life events can be sources of stress
107
```
for an adjustment disorder, the symptoms must appear within ___ months of the stressor
. two
. nine
. three
. six
```
three
108
```
which of the following is NOT a key characteristic of stress
. severity
. chronicity
. timing
. probability
```
probability
109
according to the DSM an adjustment disorder does NOT involve
. bereavement
. marked distress
. significant impairment in social, occupational or other areas of functioning
. identifiable stressor(s)
bereavement
110
```
the incident with the highest lifetime prevalence for PTSD is
. massive catastrophic trauma
. sxeual assault
. sudden loss of a loved one
. all of the above
```
all of the above
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according to the DSM an essential feature of acute stress disorder involves
. development of characteristic anxiety, disssociative or other symptoms within 1 month after exposure to traumatic stressor
. development of characteristic anxiety dissociative or other symptoms within 2 months after exposure to traumatic stressor
development of characteristic anxiety dissociative or other symptoms within 1 month after exposure to traumatic stressor
112
describe the key features of the DSM's adjustment disorder
. maladaptive response to common stressor within 3 months of the stressor
. the symptoms cause significant clinical difficulties including marked distress that is out of proportion to the severity of the stress being experienced
. the stress causes significant impairment to the individuals social, education and/or occupational functioning
. the symptom should not continue for more than more than 6 months once the stressor has ceased
.
