Exam Flashcards

1
Q
A concept that matches the defining characteristics of the original concept is known as a:
. superordinate
. subordinate
. exemplar
. prototype
A

prototype

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2
Q
Which one of the following terms describes a specific category of a concept (such as a dog as a pet) lowest in status?
. exemplar
. subordinate
. prototype
. superordinate
A

subordinate

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3
Q

select one option from the following. Emotion is a characteristic that is more important in:
. episodic memory
. semantic memory

A

episodic memory

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4
Q

procedural memory is located within declarative memory. Is this true of false?

A

false

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5
Q

___ is the term that corresponds to a person, a place, an object or some other entity that serves as an excellent example of a given concept
. exemplar
. prototype

A

exemplar

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6
Q
Which of the following is a binocular depth cue?
. stereopsis
. interposition
. motion parallax
. familiar size
A

stereopsis

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7
Q
Which of the following is not a Gestait Law of perceptual organisation?
. the law of similarity
. the law of proximity
. the law of closure
. the law of connection
A

the law of connection

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8
Q

Oculomotor cues help us make inferences about depth and distance by using:
. visual input from each eye separately
. visual input integrated from two eyes
. information from eye muscles on where the eyes are directed
. none of the above

A

information from eye muscles on where the eyes are directed

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9
Q
Visually-guided action, also known as perception for action, appears to be controlled by the areas of the
. ventral stream
. dorsal stream
. limbic system
. mirror neuron system
A

dorsal stream

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10
Q

Which of the following explains the special nature of the perception of biological motion?
. biological motion is the only type of visual motion humans can produce as well as perceive
. most people spend more time perceiving and trying to make sense of other people’s motion than any other form of visual motion
. other people’s movements are a rich source of social and emotional information
. all of the above

A

all the above

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11
Q

which of the following is true regarding the mirror neuron system?
. correlational evidence exists suggesting that areas within the mirror neuron system are typically activated when someone observes the actions of another person
. the mirror neuron system is not involved in understanding the intentions behind observed actions
. mirror neurons provide us with an exact motoric coding of observed actions
. all of the above

A

correlational evidence exists suggesting that areas within the mirror neuron system are typically activated when someone observes the actions of another person

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12
Q
the reason why we are perceived different groupsing of vegetables in the supermarket, even though they are close together is explain by the Gestail Law of
. similarity
. continuity
. closure
. proximity
A

similarity

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13
Q
Annie draws fully the tree closest to her, and the ones behind it are drawn partially Annie is using the monocular depth cue of \_\_
. interposition
. light
. linear perspective
. shadow
A

interposition

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14
Q
Finding by Posner (1980) led to which two systems?
. what and where systems
. exogenous and endogenous systems
. directed and focused attention systems
. priming and semantic systems
A

exogenous and endogenous systems

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15
Q
According to Lavie's perceptual load theory, susceptibility to distraction is greater when the task involves what?
. more items in the visual field
. low perceptual load
. low demand on executive function
. only auditory stimuli
A

low perceptual load

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16
Q
AWH and Pashler (2000) were interested in whether attention could be directed to two or more regions of space that are not adjacent to each other. The type of attention that they were interested in is named
. split attention
. divided attention
. focused attention
. directed attention
A

split attention

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17
Q
which theory was developed by Treisman?
. filter theoy
. attenuation theory
. perceptual theory
. none of the above
A

attenuation theory

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18
Q
Dichotic listening studies are used to examine:
. selective attention
. divided attention
. task attention
. paying attention
A

selective attention

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19
Q
You're at a party chatting to someone, and you hear someone else mention your name. This is best explained by:
. Broadbant's Filter model
. Divided Attention Model
. Treismen'a attenuation model
. subliminal perception
A

Treismen’s attenuation model

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20
Q

Which of the following is correct of Briadbent’s theory?
. input, sensory register, STM
. input, sensory register, selective filter, STM
. input, sensory register, attenuator, limited capacity, STM
. input, selective filter, STM

A

input, sensory registerm selective filter, STM

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21
Q

What are the two routes information can go into the phonological store as proposed in Baddley’s model?
. The visuo-spatial sketchpad and visual presentation to phonological store
. Movement and colour detection to phonological store
. Auditory word presentation straight to phonological store, or visual word presentation to articulatory control process, then to the phonological store
. Central executive and episodic buffer to the phonological store

A

auditory word presentation straight to phonological store or visual word presentation to articulatory control process, then to the phonological store

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22
Q

What is the main function of the central executive?
. preserves wird order
. Stores and manipulate visual information
. Deals with any cognitively demanding task
. all of the above

A

deals with any cognitively demanding task

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23
Q
The three memory stores in teh multi-store model of memory differ in which of the following ways?
. Temporal duration
. Storage capacity
. Forgetting machanisms
. all of the above
A

all of the above

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24
Q
Baddeley's working memory model essentially replaced the concept of:
. the Unitary-store model
. The sensory buffer
. The short-term store/memory
. The phonological loop
A

the short-term store/memory

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25
Q

Working memory (WM) interacts with long-term memory (LTM) through
. ACtivation of LTM via the central executive
. The linking of WM components and LTM via the episodic buffer
. Activation of the sensory buffer via LTM
. both a and b

A

both a and b

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26
Q
Which is not one of the three stages of learning and retrieval?
. Encoding
. Decoding
. Stoarge
. Retrieval
A

decoding

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27
Q
Which of the following is not typically cited as an impediment to memory?
. Mnemonic devices
. Encoding failures
. Decays
. Interference
A

mnemonic devices

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28
Q

What are some problems identified with the central executive?
. It is unlikely to be a signle entity
. The notion of a single dysexecutive syndrome is misleading
. neither a or b
. both a and b

A

both a and b

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29
Q
According to the working memory model Baddely, words presented visually obtain access to the phonological loop indirectly through:
. Articulartory suppression
. Rehearsal
. Visuospatial sketchpad
. subvocal articulation
A

subvocal articulation

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30
Q

John has recently had a car accident that has resulted in him experiencing damage to his semantic system. John has started to find that he sometimes make associative errors (eg. saying dog for cat) and also errors across conceptual hierarchical levels (eg. saying animal for cat). Which type of errors (associative or conceptual hierarchical) are most common with the type of damage;
. Associative
. Conceptual hierarchical
. Both types or errors are equally common
. The pattern of errors are equally common
. The pattern of errors differs across individuals

A

The pattern of errors are equally common

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31
Q

What is the correct comparison between Classical theory and Theory theory:
. Classical theory doesn’t use categories whereas the Theory theory does
. Classical theory assumes categories are defined by a set of features or rules, where the Theory theory suggests that context and theories of the world around us drive concepts
. Theory theory has sets of rules that we use to conceptualise our world, whereas Classical theory states these are not important
. Classical theory is too old to be relevant anymore, and only Theory theory matters

A

Classical theory assumes categories are defined by a set of features or rules, where the theory theory suggests that context and theories of the world around us drive concepts

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32
Q

An examplar is:
. An ideal example that does not have all features of every member of the category but resembles most category members
. An example that has all of the defining features of a category but does not have all of the features at the same time.
. The category that most people think of when they are asked to provide an example in a given category
. Is a theory that one holds about a category

A

The category that most people think of when they are asked to provide an example in a given category

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33
Q
Rosch and colleagues proposed that concepts are organised into hierarchies that have three levels (superordinate, basic and subordinate). When dog experts are asked to describe a picture of a dog they are most likely to use which level of the hierarchy:
. Superordinate
. basic
. subordinate
. they use all category levels equally
A

subordinate

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34
Q

Why do researchers think categorisation is important?
. to help us communicate with each other more easily
. to stop us being overwhelmed with information
. to reduce complex data into something simple
. all of the above

A

all of the above

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35
Q
One theory suggests that objects are classified into categories based on a set of weighted features, Features are weighted by their frequency in a category. For the category of birds, having wings and feathers would have a high weight and living in Antarctica would have a low weight (but would still have some weight as penguins live there). The higher the weight of a set of features of an object, the easier it is to classify into a respective category. The theory is known as:
. Exemplar theory
. Weighted features theory
. Prototype theory
. Theory theory
A

Prototype theory

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36
Q
Declarative memory is thought to involve the:
. Medial temporal lobe
. Cerebellum
. Basal ganglia
. Spinal cord
A

Medial temporal lobe

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37
Q
Retrograde amnesia tends to involve:
. problems learning new facts
. the loss of short-term memory
. the loss of memory of past events
. the inability to listen to disco
A

The loss of memory of past events

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38
Q

Lavie’s perceptual load theory suggests:
. The amount of attention allocated to a main task depends on the load that our perceptual system is under.
. That distraction effects are greater when cognitive load is high than when it is low.
. High cognitive load reduces people’s ability to use cognitive control to discriminate between target and distractor stimuli.
. All of the above

A

all of he above

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39
Q
Which of the following is NOT a major dimension of multiple resource theory?
. Processing stages
.  Processing codes
. Focussing types
. Modalities
A

focusing types

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40
Q

A patient with anterograde amnesia can easily use the telephone, but when asked they don’t remember who they spoke to during the say. This tells us that:

a) The amnesia has affected their declarative memory and not their procedural memory
b) The amnesia has affected the procedural memory as well as their declarative memory
c) The amnesia has affected procedural memory and not declarative memory
d) There might have been some interference with the task, and they should remember both pieces of information.

A

the amnesia has affected their declarative memory and not their procedural memory

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41
Q

What is the memory when a vivid and detailed account of an event is printed permanently in the memory system?

a) Long term memory
b) Flashbulb memory
c) Autobiographical memory
d) Declarative memory

A

flashbulb memory

42
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of autobiographical memory?

a) It comprises memories of our own lives
b) It consists of events of personal significance
c) It involves the memory and recall of general facts, such as knowledge of geographical locations
d) It can’t be replaced of rehearsed by other people
e) It is more sensitive to loss in amnesia

A

it involves the memory and recall of general facts, such as knowledge of geographical locations

43
Q

Which of the following BEST describes flashbulb memories:

a) Memories of each time you have had a photo taken using a flash camera e.g. taking a selfie on NYE
b) Vivid and detail memories of dramatic events, e.g. memories of the September 11 attacks
c) Long term memories of the events of one’s own life, e.g. our last birthday
d) Memories created through practical learning, e.g. learning to drive a car

A

vivid and detail memories of dramatic events, eg. memories of the Sept 11 attacks

44
Q

What is the ‘reminiscence bump’?

a) That feeling when you’ve eaten a large meal and your full stomach reminds you of all the delicious food you just ate
b) The loss of access to memories of events that occurred, or information that was learned, directly before a head injury or the onset of a disease
c) The tendency of older people to recall a disproportionate number of autobiographical memories from early adulthood
d) The inability of adults to recall autobiographical memories from early childhood

A

the tendency of older people to recall a disproportionate number of autobiographical memories from early childhood

45
Q

According to Conway and Pleydell-Pearce’s (2000) theory, which of the following is NOT one of the levels of specificity in the autobiographical memory knowledge base:

a) Lifetime periods – memories that cover substantial periods of time defined by major ongoing situations (e.g. time spent working in one job)
b) General events – Including both repeated events (e.g. visiting the gym) and single events (e.g. a holiday)
c) Event-specific knowledge – Images, felings and other details relating to general events spanning periods of time.
d) Flashbulb memories – Vivid memories of specific events (e.g. sudden death of a loved one)

A

flashbulb memories - vivid memories of specific events (eg. sudden death of a loved one)

46
Q

According to St Jacques et al. (2011), which of the following areas of the brain are activated when people produce autobiographical memories in response to emotionally arousing words?

a) Medial temporal lobe network
b) Medial prefrontal cortex network
c) Fronto-parietal network
d) Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
e) Cingulooperculum network
f) C, D and E
g) A, B, C, and E

A

A, B, C and E

47
Q

What impact has depression been shown to have on memory:

a) Depressed individuals produce over-general autobiographical memories in part because of avoidant coping strategies
b) Depressed individuals have a negative and poorly integrated sense of self
c) A and B
d) None – there is no impact of depression on memory

A

A and B

48
Q

Which of the following theories attempt to explain the phenomenon of childhood and infantile amnesia?

a) Two stage theory
b) Developmental theory
c) Cognitive self
d) Socio-cultural development
e) Neurogenic theory
f) A, C, D, and E
g) B, D, and E

A

A, C, D and E

49
Q

Which of the following BEST describes prospective memory

a) Memory for actions / events that we are planning to do e.g. future based memory
b) Memory for actions / events that occurred in early adulthood e.g. first date
c) Memory for events that occurred most recently e.g. tasks completed yesterday
d) Memories created through practical learning, e.g. learning to drive a car

A

memory for actions/events that we are planning to do eg. future based memory

50
Q

If I had a problem with my recent retrospective memory, which of the following would be a classic symptom:

a) Forgetting heavily learning and practiced manual tasks e.g. forgetting how to ride a bike
b) Forgetting upcoming appointments e.g. forgetting an upcoming doctor’s appointment
c) Forgetting events from early childhood e.g. breaking my arm when I was 5 years old
d) Forgetting most details of a conversation we had today e.g. forgetting details of a conversation we just had about a holiday you took

A

forgetting most details of a conversation we had today eg. forgetting details of a conversation we just had about a holiday you took

51
Q

What are the correct components of emotion?

a) eliciting stimuli, evaluation, and behaviour tendencies,
b) eliciting stimuli, cognitive appraisal, arousal, and expressive and/or instrumental behaviours.
c) arousal, cognitive evaluation, expressive behaviours, and instrumental behaviours.
d) evaluation, arousal, appropriate behaviour.

A

Eliciting stimuli, cognitive appraisal, arousal and expressive and/or instrumental behaviours

52
Q

lzard, Tomkins & Plutchik are leading evolutionary theorists who each proposed a number of primary innate emotions. However, Ekman suggested there to be _______ universal expressions of emotions; ______________?

a) four; happiness, shame, sadness, interest.
b) five; joy, sadness, disgust, anger, fear.
c) six; happiness, fear, sadness, surprise, disgust, anger.
d) seven; surprise, contempt, distress, desire, sadness, anticipation, shame

A

six; happiness, fear, sadness, surprise, disgust, anger

53
Q

What is the important distinction between conscious content and conscious level?

a) conscious level is more important than conscious content.
b) conscious content is information we’re aware of at any given time, but conscious level refers to our current state of consciousness.
c) conscious level is self awareness, and conscious content is self experience.
d) none; they’re the same.

A

conscious content is information we’re aware of at any given time, but conscious level refers to our current state of consciousness

54
Q

Baumeister and Masicampo (2010) proposed a distinction of consciousness which involves one part that describes feelings and sensations in the present moment, and another that is about reasoning, reflecting, and a sense of self. What are these parts of consciousness called?

a) phenomenal consciousness and higher order consciousness.
b) they both are just consciousness.
c) mindful consciousness and theory of mind consciousness.
d) awareness and reflection.

A

phenomenal consciousness and higher order consciousness

55
Q

According to Humphrey, what is the main function of consciousness?

a) perceiving environment.
b) controlling actions.
c) social.
d) all of the above.

A

social

56
Q

There are many different theories of appraisal. The common thread among them all is:

a) a they are all about evaluation.
b) there is no difference – they’re the same, just different theorists.
c) they all involve bottom-up processes, with sensations prompting appraisals.
d) each emotion is elicited by its own specific and distinct pattern of appraisal, suggesting top-down processing is crucial.

A

each emotion is elicited by its own specific and distinct pattern of appraisal, suggesting top-down processing is crucial

57
Q

Which of the following is a limitation of appraisal theories?

a) the assumption that situational appraisal is always crucial for emotional experience is too strong.
b) the research focus is passive participants on their own presented with an emotional situation, which is unrealistic in a real world setting.
c) all of these points are limitations.
d) appraisals focus on emotional experience determined by current situation, whereas in reality emotions often relate to the past or future.

A

all of these points are limitations

58
Q

Wegner argued that three principles jointly lead us to believe our actions are caused by conscious thought. What are they?

a) exclusivity, authorship, and priority.
b) thoughts, feelings, actions.
c) conscious thought, actions, behaviour.
d) priority, consistency, and exclusivity.

A

priority, consistency and exclusivity

59
Q

Modern emotion researchers assume that most emotions:

a) are determined primarily by physiological responses.
b) involve a combination of cognitive and physiological response patterns
c) involve a combination of cognitive, physiological, and behavioural response patterns.
d) are reflected in particular behavioural responses.

A

involve a combination of cognitive, physiological and behavioural response patterns

60
Q

Richard and Robert are watching a film on public television. The film is of the amputation of an arm. The film evoked interest in Richard and disgust in Robert because each boy attached different meaning to the film. Richard, who is studying to become a doctor, interpreted the film in a clinical, detached way. The sight of blood, on the other hand, sickened Robert. Each male had a different ________ of the film.

a) cognitive appraisal
b) instrumental reaction
c) cultural appraisal
d) internal eliciting appraisal

A

cognitive appraisal

61
Q

LeDoux’s work on the brain areas involved in emotional processes revealed that there is an independent neural path taking sensory information through the thalamus to a specific connection, which could account for why we are sometimes able to respond behaviourally to environmental stimuli before we have the chance to make a cognitive appraisal of these stimuli. This connection from the thalamus runs to the ________.

a) hypothalamus
b) amygdala
c) hippocampus
d) cortex

A

amygdala

62
Q
  1. You can readily use language to describe the features of a person that you know. This use of language demonstrates how language is symbolic and illustrates the linguistic feature of ________.
    a) displacement
    b) syntax
    c) semantics
    d) pragmatic
A

displacement

63
Q
  1. The smallest unit of sound that can be distinctly recognized in a language is known as
    a) morpheme.
    b) semantic unit.
    c) phoneme.
    d) proposition.
A

semantic unit

64
Q
  1. Prior to 6 months of age, infants around the world are able to differentiate the phonemes of all languages, but between 6 to 12 months of age they begin to differentiate ________.
    a) only the phonemes associated with their native language
    b) approximately only 5 to 10 phonemes associated with their native language
    c) approximately only 2 to 4 phonemes associated with their native language
    d) only the phonemes not associated with their native language
A

only the phonemes associated with their native language

65
Q
  1. According to the dual-route cascaded model of reading, a patient who could pronounce words with regular spelling-to-sound correspondences, but not irregular words, would be most likely to be reading via:
    a) Route 1
    b) Route 2
    c) Routes 1 and 3
    d) Routes 2 and 3
A

route 1

66
Q
  1. Language can be used to create an infinite number of messages that can have novel or new meanings. This quality of language is referred to as:
    a) symbolic
    b) generative
    c) . propositional
    d) structural
A

generative

67
Q
  1. In English, there are words that don’t seem to be spelled correctly like “pint” (compare this to mint, hint, tint, lint). If these were slower to read aloud than words with a similar spelling, it would suggest that:
    a) We use a single word lookup mechanism
    b) We use two mechanisms, one that looks up whole words and one that breaks the word into its smaller parts
    c) We break words up into their smaller parts only
    d) None of the above
A

we use two mechanisms, one that looks up whole words and one that breaks the word into its smaller parts

68
Q
  1. The Dual route cascade model of reading
    a) Suggests that the same parallel processes are used in processing words and non words
    b) suggests that the processes involved in reading words and non words differ from each other
    c) Involves many more than two routes to explain reading
    d) is problematic because it does not provide an explanation for dyslexia
A

suggests that the processes involved in reading words and non words differ from each other

69
Q
  1. There are four qualities that define language referred to as discreteness, grammar, productivity and displacement. What does productivity refer to?
    a) These are the small units or sounds that we use to create works. When combined they help us to communicate ideas
    b) The ability to produce an unlimited number of communication from these sounds and/or word units
    c) The system of rules that govern how we combine individual sounds and/or word units.
    d) A and C
    e) None of the above
A

the ability to produce an unlimited number of communication from these sounds and/or word units

70
Q
  1. The following example was described by Kashima (2017)
    Imagine a scenario where you see two men of 30-something age, Adam and Ben walking down the corridor. You overhear the following exchange between them:
    Adam: “You know, Gary bought a ring.”
    Ben: “Oh yeah? For Mary, isn’t it?” (Adam nods.)
    According to Kashima (2017), if you are watching this scene and hearing their conversation, what can you guess from this?
    a) That they were both expecting Gary to propose to Mary
    b) That Mary is Adam’s sister and they have been friends since primary school
    c) The social relationships surrounding the people who are engaging in the conversation and the people whom they are talking about
    d) That Ben and Adam work with Gary
A

the social relationships surrounding the people who are engaging in the conversation and the people whom they are talking about

71
Q
  1. As described by Eysenck and Keane (2015), if someone was experiencing Wernicke’s aphasia, what would their speech potentially sound like?
    a) Speech would be slow and non-fluent
    b) Fluent and apparently grammatical speech that often lacks meaning
    c) Short sentences containing only content words (e.g. nouns & verbs)
    d) None of the above
A

fluent and apparently grammatical speech that often lacks meaning

72
Q
  1. Certain types of aphasia (i.e. damage that has an impact on language) may arise from damage to different parts of the brain. What are some of the known causes of aphasia?
    a) Stroke
    b) Head trauma
    c) Brain tumors
    d) Infections
    e) All of the above
A

all of the above

73
Q
  1. What do different patterns of aphasia tell us about the organisation of language?
    a) That language comprehension and production are controlled by the Wernicke’s area of the brain alone, therefore if that area is damaged then both will be impacted
    b) This is dependent on the neuroplasticity of the individual
    c) That there are several areas of the brain that are involved in language comprehension and/or production
    d) That it is an important consideration to make when thinking about the origins of fine motor control
A

that there are several areas of the brain that are involved in language comprehension and/or production

74
Q
  1. This is the dual-route cascaded model of reading (2018) adapted from Castes and Coltheart. The next two questions are in reference to certain aspects of it the model.
    a) What is the direct access hypothesis?
    b) The meaning of the word is accessed directly from the text, without first being converted into sound
    c) The meaning of the word is converted into sound first and then directly understood by the person
    d) The meaning is inaccessible by the phonological route
    e) The word must be read out loud in order to be understood
A

the meaning of the word is accessed directly from the text, without first being converted into sound

75
Q
  1. The dual route model of reading proposes two routes to reading: The direct access route and the indirect access route. A person who has damage to the indirect access route will likely to have problems reading
    a) Irregular words like “yacht”
    b) Nonsense words that are pronounceable such as “darp”
    c) Both irregular and nonsense words
    d) Neither irregular or nonsense words
A

nonsense words that are pronounceable such as “darp”

76
Q
  1. Matthew is under much pressure from his boss to complete the tasks given to him. To make sure that he meets the requirements of his boss, he decides to take the first option he thinks of and rushes through his tasks to get them done, potentially missing important information. This is not necessarily the best option, but Matthew needs meet the immediate requirements of his boss. This decision is an example of?
    a) Planning fallacy
    b) Satisficing
    c) Functional fixedness
    d) All of the above
A

satisficing

77
Q
  1. What is system 2 of the dual-process model?
    a) System 2 is slow, effortful and serial, and is more likely to be deliberately controlled and monitored. Rules are likely to govern processes.
    b) System 2 monitors or evaluates system 1, and may make corrections
    c) System 2 is fast, automated, effortless, associative, implicit and often emotionally charged. It is difficult to control or modify.
    d) Both A and B are correct
A

both a and b are correct

78
Q
  1. What is the assumption that the frequencies of events can be estimated accurately by the accessibility of memory?
    a) Representativeness heuristic
    b) Recognition heuristic
    c) Availability heuristic
    d) Base-rate heuristic
A

availability heuristic

79
Q
  1. What of the following statements are true about heuristics?
    a) They are ‘rules of thumb’ that allow us to make quick decisions
    b) They allow us to cope with the complex environment surrounding our decision
    c) They are not always reliable
    d) All of the above
A

all of the above

80
Q
  1. According to prospect theory, people are typically much more sensitive to potential ____ than to potential____
    a) gains, losses
    b) Losses, gains
    c) pain, pleasure
    d) pleasure, pain
A

losses, gains

81
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes anchoring
    a) The tendency to rely to heavily on the first piece of information we receive when making decisions
    b) The bias toward using information in traditional ways
    c) This happens when we assume that two independent events are dependent.
    d) None of the above
A

the tendency to rely to heavily on the first piece of information we receive when making decisions

82
Q
  1. What is the assumption that the frequencies of events can be estimated accurately by the accessibility in memory?
    a) Representativess hypothesis
    b) Recognition heuristic
    c) Availability heuristic
    d) base rate heuristic
A

availability heuristic

83
Q
  1. Satificing is what?
    a) Selection of the best choice in decision making
    b) Selection of the first choice meeting certain minimum requirements
    c) The influence of relevant aspects of a situation
A

selection of the first choice meeting certain minimum requirements

84
Q
A neuropsychologist has found that during a task to determine the extent of damage of a head injury to a patient that some patients performed well on the first task but poorly on the second task. This was the opposite pattern for the other patients the neuropsychologist tested. This is an example of: 
. Top-down processing
. Double dissociation
. Dissociative identity disorder
. none of the above
A

double dissociation

85
Q

Which of the following is the best definition of cognitive psychology?
. The way our brains process info
. The branch of psychology involved in attempting to understand human cognition by experimental methods
. The branch of psychology that allows us to make direct connections between cognitive processes and the structure of the brain
. The way that we experience emotions

A

The branch of psychology involved in attempting to understand human cognition by experimental methods

86
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE about introspection for learning about cognition?
. It is not necessarily a reliable way of explaining an experience
. It doesn’t necessarily tell us about the reason why something has occurred
. It is subjective
. all of the above

A

all of the above

87
Q
Mitchell is going for a walk on a nice day, and he catches a smell of some neighbours bbqing, and he immediately is reminded of a vivid memory of when his own family used to go to the park and have a bbq. This is an example of:
. bottom-up processing
. top-down processing
. sideways processing
. parallel processing
A

bottom-up processing

88
Q

The McGurk effect occurs when what we see (the mouth movements) overrides what we hear. Which of the following statements in FALSE
. if we close our eyes we hear the sound correctly
. when the brain has conflicting information, it tries to make sense of this conflict
. the effect continues to occur even if you are aware of the effect
. the effect occurs because vision is our dominant sense

A

the effect occurs because vision is our dominant sense

89
Q

Which of the following factors might impact on reaction time and errors
. the number of steps of processing
. how quickly and individual processes info
. differences in the types of info being processed
. all of the above

A

all of the above

90
Q
Jennifer is trying to put together a jigsaw puzzle. Since she has no idea what the completed picture is supposed to be, she has to rely on the shapes and colours of the individual pieces to create and understand the whole picture. We can refer to her efforts to combine individual elements of the puzzle into a unified whole as:
. perceptual organisation
. top-down processing
. bottom-up processing
. selective attention
A

bottom-up processing

91
Q
Using the image on the box, jennifer is putting together a jigsaw puzzle. The picture of the completed puzzle allows her to guess how and where the pieces fit. We can refer to her interpretation of individual pieces in light of the expectation created by the box picture as
. perceptual organisation
. selective attention
. top-down processing
. bottom-up processing
A

top-down processing

92
Q

The what (ventral) pathway originates from and them terminates in which brain area?
. originates in the primary visual cortex and terminates in the posterior parietal cortex
. originates in the frontal visual cortex and terminates in superior longitudinal fasciculus
. it doesn’t follow any of these pathways
. originates in the primary visual cortex and terminates in the inferotemporal cortex

A

originates in the primary visual cortex and terminates in the inferotemporal cortex

93
Q

The parvocellular pathway is sensitive to ______, whereas the magnocellular pathway is sensitive to_________

a) Motion and dim light/ colour and fine detail
b) Motion and fine detail/ colour and dim light
c) Colour and fine detail/ motion and dim light
d) None of the above are correct

A

Colour and fine detail/motion and dim light

94
Q

A person who has optic ataxia

a) Cannot make visually guided movements
b) Does not have intact visual perception
c) Cannot recognise objects
d) All of the above

A

cannot make visually guided movements

95
Q

Milner and Goodale put forth the argument for two visual pathways. Schenk and McIntosh (2010) identified some characteristics of these pathways, one of which was the ventral stream is allocentric and the dorsal stream is egocentric. What does this mean?

a) Representations in dorsal stream are sustained over time whereas those in ventral stream are short-lasting.
b) fMRI has shown us that this is so named because of the neural regions where these streams start and finish – they are in the central neural regions.
c) Allocentric is independent of observer’s perspective, whereas Egocentric is dependent on the observer’s perspective.
d) Allocentric is dependent on observer’s perspective, whereas Egocentric is independent of the observer’s perspective.

A

Allocentric is independent of observer’s perspective, whereas egocentric is dependent on the observer’s perspective

96
Q

Two patients with optic ataxia both made grasping movements towards a target object. What does this tell us?

a) They needed real time bottom-up guidance for object identification.
b) There is memory involvement in the ventral stream, because these patients could use their ventral stream as it was intact. The grasping demonstrated top-down processing.
c) These patients cannot recognise objects and wanted to use touch sense to identify it.
d) There wasn’t memory involvement because their dorsal stream was intact and that is what was needed to grasp.

A

there is memory involvement in the ventral stream, because these patients could use their ventral stream as it was intact. The grasping demonstrated top-down processing

97
Q

What is the approximate absolute threshold of the ‘touch’ sense?

a) The warmth of a candle flame from 500 cm
b) Room temperature water droplet on the back of a person’s hand, dropped from 1000 cm.
c) A feather brushing past a person’s cheek at a rate of 1cm/sec
d) Wing of a fly or bee falling on a person’s cheek from a distance of 1 cm

A

wing of a fly or bee falling on a person’s cheek from a distance of 1cm

98
Q

Which of the following is the most recent and accepted theory of colour vision?

a) The trichromatic theory, which states there are three different receptors, one for blue, one for green and one for red.
b) The opponent-process theory, which also assumes that there are three different receptors: one for blue-yellow, one for red-green and one for black-white
c) Dual-process theory, which takes part of Young–Helmholtz’s theory (cone characteristics and function) and part of Hering’s theory (cells in visual pathways alter firing dependent on wavelengths) and combines for one theory of colour transduction.
d) We are still researching colour vision and what theory you follow depends on what theory you read first. There is no consensus.

A

dual-process theory, which takes part of Young-Helmholtz’s theory (cone characteristics and function) and part of the Hering’s theory (cells in visual pathways alter firing dependent wavelengths) and combines for one theory of colour transduction

99
Q

Which of these is not a major part of the eye

a) Conea
b) Iris
c) Lens
d) Case

A

case

100
Q

Jasmine is playing a game with Josh. Josh throws a ball toward her. She will use ______ pathway to identify that the object coming toward her is a ball.

a) Ventral
b) Dorsal
c) Contralateral
d) Dorsolateral

A

Ventral

101
Q

Which of the following statements are true;

a) There is no one–to–one correspondence between physical and psychological reality.
b) Sensation and perception are active processes.
c) Sensation and perception are adaptive (facilitation of survival and reproduction).
d) All of the above are true

A

all of the above

102
Q

Which of the following is a binocular depth cue?

a) Stereopsis
b) Interposition
c) Motion parallax
d) Familiar size

A

stereopsis