Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the so-called brain-gut peptides?

A

a. ) Peptides originally discovered in gastrointestinal tract and later found in the brain
b. ) In brain they function as neurotransmitters and neuroimediators.

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2
Q

Describe the renin-angiotensin system; which steps can be inhibited by drugs?

A

a. ) When renin is released into the blood, it acts upon a circulating substrate, angiotensinogen, that undergoes proteolytic cleavage to form the decapeptide angiotensin I. Surface of pulnorary and renal endothelium (lungs, liver) has an enzyme, angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE), that cleaves off two amino acids to form the octapeptide, angiotensin II (AII), which functions via 4 GPCR receptors AT1, AT2, AT3, AT4. It increases blood pressure by stimulatin Gq protein in vascular smooth muscle cells (which in turn activates contraction by an IP3-dependant mechanism)
b. ) Cleaving off two amino acids from AI (ACE inhibitors), binding of angiotensin to receptors (inhibitors of angiotensin receptors (ARBs)), binding of neurotransmitter to beta adrenergic receptors, movement of Ca2+ through calcium channels (calcium channel blockers), diuretics (natriuresis)

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3
Q

Draw schematically plasma membrane and name its main components.

A

Lipids (glycerophospolipids, sphingolipids, cholesterol), proteins (enzymes, receptors, ion channels, transporters, hormones) and oligosacharides

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4
Q

What are inborn metabolic diseases, what is causing them. Name at least one and describe its impact on organism?

A

a.) Are rare genetic or inherited disorders resulting from an enzyme defect in biochemical and metabolic pathways (affecting proteins, fats, carbohydrates metabolism or impaired organelle function). The disorders are usually caused by defects in specific proteins (enzymes) that help break down (metabolize) parts of food.
b.) Disorder of phenylalanine metabolism, disorder of methionine and cysteine metabolism, disorders of tyrosine metabolism, glutaric aciduria, deficiency in tryptophan metabolism, MSUD (maple syrup urine disease)
• MSUD
o ketoacidurie – Leu, Ille, Val and their toxic by-products accumulate in blood and urine. The patients excrete branched chain alfa keto acids, corresponding hydroxy acids and other side products which have characteristic odor as maple syrup - mental retardation, short life span
• Albinism (disorders of tyrosine metabolism)
o lack of tyrosine (enzyme involved in the production of melanin) - lack of melanin - sensitivity to sun, increasing incidence of skin cancer, photophobia
• Phenylketonuria (disorder of phenylalanine metabolism)
o excretion of phenylketon, phenylacetic acid in the urine
o mice-like smell of urine
o if not treated – mental retardation

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5
Q

What are acute phase proteins?

A

A class of proteins whose plasma concentrations increase (positive APP or AP reactants) or decrease (negative APP or AP reactants) in response to: infection, inflammation, trauma, burns, etc.
• Increase of: C-reactive protein, procalcitonin, caeruloplasmin, etc.
• Decrease of: albumin, prealbumin, transferrin

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6
Q

What do you know about lactate dehydrogenase?

A

a.) It catalises the conversion of pyruvate to lactate
b.) It’s activity is measured by monitoring absorbance at λ = 340 nm (NADH) or other when using coupled color reaction
c.) Total LD activity has poor specificity
d.) LD isoenzymes are mostly found in heart, RBC, kidney, brain, liver, skeletal muscle
e.) LD isoenzyme electrophoresis (normal serum): LD-2 > LD-1 > LD-3 > LD-4 > LD-5
f.) It is an enzyme marker used in differential diagnosis of myocardial infarction
• five isoenzymes, composed of combinations of H (heart) and M (muscle) subunits

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7
Q

Which are the main aminotransferases used in diagnosis and what is their meaning in the diagnostic tests?

A

a.) Alanine aminotransferase
• now it is part of diagnostic liver function tests, to determine liver health
• it is raised in blood in acute liver damage
b.) Aspartate aminotransferase
• it is commonly measure clinically as a part of diagnostic liver function test (more important than AST)
• identify liver disease, especially cirrhosis and hepatitis caused by alcohol, drugs or viruses
• help to check for liver damage
• find out whether jaundice was cause by a blood disorder or liver disease
• follow the effects of cholesterol-lowering medicines and other medicines that can damage the liver

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8
Q

Describe standard thyroid function test.

A

The T4 test and the TSH test are the two most common thyroid function tests. They’re usually ordered together.
• The T4 test
o total T4 - which measures the entire amount of thyroxine in the blood, including the amount attached to blood proteins that help transport the hormone through the bloodstream
o free T4 - which measures only the thyroxine that’s not attached to proteins (this is the portion of T4 in the blood that’s available to affect the functioning of many types of body cells)
• The TSH test measures the level of thyroid-stimulating hormone in your blood.

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9
Q

Name hormones derived from amino acids, their function and mechanism of action.

A

a.) Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine
• Both T4 and T3 regulate the metabolism and affect the growth and rate of function of many other systems in the body
• The thyroid hormones function via a well-studied set of nuclear receptors, termed the thyroid hormone receptors. When triiodothyronine (T3), which is the active form of thyroxine (T4), binds a receptor, it induces a conformational change in the receptor, displacing the corepressor from the complex. This leads to recruitment of coactivator proteins and RNA polymerase, activating transcription of the gene.
b.) Catecholamins
• They cause general physiological changes that prepare the body for physical activity (the fight-or-flight response). Some typical effects are increases in heart rate, blood pressure, blood glucose levels, and a general reaction of the sympathetic nervous system.
• In the blood, catecholamines target alpha and beta-adrenergic receptors, a family of g protein coupled receptors (GPCRs). The adrenergic receptors utilize either cAMP or phosphoinositol second messenger systems to activate ion channels that ultimately mediate the body’s sympathetic response.

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10
Q

Inhibitors of fatty acid reabsorption, bile acid binding resins, statins, plant sterols – what do they do and how? Describe for at least two molecules/molecule types

A

a. ) Lipofermata: inhibits the transport through a non-competitive process in blocking the transport of long and very long chain fatty acids ?
b. ) Orlistat: prevents the absorption of fats by inhibiting pancreatic lipase, which can break down triglycerides in the intestine to decrease the caloric intake
c. ) C75: acts on KR, ACP and TE domains of FAS as a competitive irreversible inhibitor
d. ) Orlistat (inhibitor of fatty acid absorption): prevents the intestinal absorption of about 30% of fat from the diet. It is a gastric and pancreatic lipase inhibitor; inhibits both gastric and pancreatic lipases, the key enzymes that break down triacylglycerols in the small intestine.
e. ) Atorvastatin (statin): effective in lowering LDL cholesterol. It is a competitive inhibitor of HMG-CoA reductase. Inhibition of the enzyme decreases de novo cholesterol synthesis.
f. ) Bile acid binding resins: bile acid sequestrants exchange anions such as chloride ions for bile acids. By doing so, they bind bile acids and increase the excretion of bile acids. This reduces the amount of bile acids returning to the liver and forces the liver to produce more bile acids to replace the bile acids lost sequester them from the enterohepatic circulation. Because the body uses cholesterol to make bile acids, this reduces the level of LDL cholesterol circulating in the blood.[

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11
Q

Name at least 3 steroid hormones and their function in the organism.

A

a. ) Estrogens: They promote development of female sex characteristics and skeletal growth.
b. ) Cortisol: Aids in metabolism regulation by stimulating the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources in the liver. Cortisol is also an important anti-inflammatory substance and helps the body deal with stress.
c. ) Testosterone: It is responsible for the development of male reproductive organs and male secondary sex characteristics.

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12
Q

Name consequences of high and low cholesterol levels.

A

a. ) Elevated levels of cholesterol in the blood lead to atherosclerosis which may increase the risk of heart attack, stroke, and peripheral vascular disease
b. ) Low levels of cholesterol are termed hypocholesterolemia. Researchers suggest that because cholesterol is involved in making hormones and vitamin D, low levels may affect the health of your brain; may trigger hormonal imbalances.

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13
Q

Which enzyme is the key enzyme in biosynthesis of cholesterol and how can we inhibit it?

A

a. ) 3-hydroxy-methylglutaryl-CoA reductase (HMG-CoA reductase)
b. ) Statins - HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

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14
Q

What are statins and what is mechanism of their action.

A

a. ) Statins are HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
b. ) Statins act by competitively inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase, the rate-limiting enzyme. Because statins are similar in structure to HMG-CoA on a molecular level, they will fit into the enzyme’s active site and compete with the native substrate (HMG-CoA). This competition reduces the rate by which HMG-CoA reductase is able to produce mevalonate.

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15
Q

What is cholesterol, what are its functions, describe methods of its determination.

A

a.) Cholesterol is a sterol
b.) Main component of cell membranes (it regulates membrane fluidity), precursor of bile acids, major precursor for the synthesis of vitamin D, involved in metabolism of the other fat-soluble vitamins, precursor of steroid hormones, important part of neurons in myelin (it helps to conduct nerve impulses), participate in the formation of lipid rafts in the plasma membrane, etc.
c.) Methods:
• Triacylglycerol (TAG) determination
• Total cholesterol determination
o 1/3 cholesterol free in plasma, 2/3 in the form of esters
o It is either chemical or enzymatic
a. Chemical - cheaper, less precise less specific, less exact
i. reaction with sulfuric acid and acetyl anhydride – green product
b. Enzymatic - more expensive, more specific, more accurate
i. hydrolysis using cholesterase
ii. oxidation to get cholest-4-en-3-on and hydrogen peroxide by cholesteroloxidase
iii. determination of hydrogen peroxide using indicator or coupled reaction (catalase and aldehyd dehydrogenase)
• HDL-cholesterol determination
o HDL is measured directly in serum
• LDL-cholesterol determination
o LDL-cholesterol is calculated from measured values of total cholesterol, triglycerides and HDLcholesterol

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16
Q

Describe the role of bile acids and their metabolism.

A

a.) They are critical for digestion and absorption of fats and fat-soluble vitamins in the small intestine. Many waste products, including bilirubin, are eliminated from the body by secretion into bile and feces.
b.) The excretion and reabsorption of bile acids form the basis of the enterohepatic circulation which is essential for the digestion and absorption of dietary fats (and plenty of other molecules.
They are synthesized by oxidation of cholesterol and are then conjugated with glycine, taurine, glucuronic acid, or sulfate for secretion into bile. Bile salts form mixed micelles with phospholipids and cholesterol and stored in the gallbladder, secreted into the intestinal tract to facilitate digestion and absorption of nutrients. Most bile acids are reabsorbed in the ileum and are transported back to the liver via portal blood circulation to inhibit bile acid synthesis.

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17
Q

What is bile? Describe its turnover.

A

a.) A mixture of conjugated and non-conjugated bile acids along with cholesterol itself which is excreted from the liver
b.) Bile acids are conjugated with glycine, taurine, glucuronic acid, or sulfate for secretion into bile. Bile salts form mixed micelles with phospholipids and cholesterol and stored in the gallbladder, secreted into the intestinal tract to facilitate digestion and absorption of nutrients.
Initially, hepatocytes secrete bile into canaliculi, from which it flows into bile ducts. This hepatic bile contains bile acids, cholesterol, phospholipids, bilirubin, and other organic xeno substances. As bile flows through the bile ducts in the second stage, it is modified by addition of a watery, bicarbonate-rich secretion from ductal epithelial cells.

In species with a gallbladder, bile is stored in the gallbladder. The gallbladder concentrates bile during the fasting state. Typically, bile is concentrated fivefold in the gall bladder by absorption of H2O and electrolytes across the gallbladder mucosa. Bile is ultimately secreted into the intestine during a meal, where it aids in the digestion and absorption of dietary lipids.

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18
Q

What is bilirubin? What means high bilirubin in plasma?

A

a. ) Is an orange-yellow substance made during the normal breakdown of red blood cells  waste product.
b. ) It’s a sign that either your red blood cells are breaking down at an unusual rate or that your liver isn’t breaking down waste properly and clearing the bilirubin from your blood.

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19
Q

Describe endocrine and exocrine function of pancreas.

A

a. ) Endocrine: it functions mostly to regulate blood sugar levels, secreting the hormones insulin, glucagon, somatostatin, and pancreatic polypeptide.
b. ) Exocrine: as a part of the digestive system; secreting pancreatic juice. This juice contains bicarbonate, which neutralizes acid entering the duodenum from the stomach; and digestive enzymes, which break down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats in food entering the duodenum from the stomach.

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20
Q

What is cholestasis?

A

Is a reduction or stoppage of bile flow caused by disorders of the liver, bile duct, or pancreas.

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21
Q

Describe the hypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal axis – name examples of the produced and regulated hormones.

A

a. ) Produced: corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF), cortisol
b. ) Regulated: adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), glucocorticoid

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22
Q

Explain the terms: endocrine, paracrine, autocrine, neurocrine.

A

a. ) Endocrine: pertaining to hormones and the glands that make and secrete them into the bloodstream through which they travel to affect distant organs. (a cell targets a distant cell through the bloodstream)
b. ) Paracrine: relating to the release of locally acting substances from endocrine cells. (a cell targets a nearby cell)
c. ) Autocrine: of or relating to self-stimulation through cellular production of a factor and a specific receptor for it. (a cell targets itself)
d. ) Neurocrine: neuron secretes signal molecule. Signal molecule acts as a neurotransmitter (NT), which acts on receptors on neighbor (gland, another neuron or muscle). Acts locally.

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23
Q

Which hormones modulate calcium homeostasis? How the level of calcium is being determined?

A

a. ) Parathyroid hormone (PTH), calcitonin
b. ) A blood sample is taken. There are two tests to measure blood calcium. The total calcium test measures both the free and bound forms. The ionized calcium test measures only the free, metabolically active form. If a urine collection is required, a 24-hour urine sample or a timed collection of a shorter duration is obtained.

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24
Q

Order lipoproteins (lipid particles) according to density and content of cholesterol.

A

a. ) Density: HDL > LDL > IDL > VLDL > chylomicrons

b. ) Content of cholesterol: LDL (CEs) > IDL (TGs) > VLDL (TGs) > HDL (CEs) > chylomicrons (TGs)

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25
Q

Name the main lipoproteins (lipid particles) which occur in blood and describe them.

A

They all enable fats and cholesterol to move within the water-based solution of the bloodstream

a. ) HDL (high-density lipoprotein): HDL is the smallest of the lipoprotein particles. It is the densest because it contains the highest proportion of protein to lipids. HDL transports cholesterol mostly to the liver or steroidogenic organs such as adrenals, ovary, and testes by both direct and indirect pathways.
b. ) LDL (low-density lipoprotein): it delivers fat molecules to cells. LDL particles are formed as VLDL lose triglyceride and they become smaller and denser. LDL can be grouped based on its size: large low density LDL particles are described as pattern A, and small high density LDL particles are pattern B. It can contribute to atherosclerosis if it is oxidized within the walls of arteries.
c. ) IDL (intermediate-density): are formed from the degradation of very low-density lipoproteins as well as high-density lipoproteins. Each native IDL particle consists of protein that encircles various lipids, enabling these lipids to travel in the aqueous blood environment as part of the fat transport system within the body. Their size is, in general, 25 to 35 nm in diameter, and they contain primarily a range of triacylglycerols and cholesterol esters.
d. ) VLDL (very low density): VLDL particles have a diameter of 30–80 nm. It is assembled in the liver. VLDL is converted in the bloodstream to LDL and IDL. It transports endogenous products.
e. ) Chylomicrons: due to their density relative to lipoproteins, they are also commonly known as ultra low-density lipoproteins (ULDL). They transport exogenous (dietary) products from the intestines to other locations in the body.

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26
Q

What is the role of liver in the lipid metabolism?

A

a. ) The liver is extremely active in oxidizing triglycerides to produce energy. The liver breaks down many more fatty acids that the hepatocytes need, and exports large quantities of acetoacetate into blood where it can be picked up and readily metabolized by other tissues
b. ) Synthesis of lipoproteins
c. ) Converting excess carbohydrates and proteins into fatty acids (if overproduction of acetyl-CoA) and triglyceride
d. ) Synthesis of cholesterol and phospholipids. Some of this is packaged with lipoproteins and made available to the rest of the body. The remainder is excreted in bile as cholesterol or after conversion to bile acids.

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27
Q

Explain principles of determination of lipoprotein

A
Lipoprotein distribution (electrophoresis)
•	Serum lipoproteins were separated by electrophoresis on nondenaturing polyacrylamide gradient gels according apoprotein determination (most often apoA-I and apo-B)
•	Immunoblot analysis of the apolipoprotein composition of the particles separated by polyacrylamide gradient gel electrophoresis (GGE) under nondenaturing conditions. The reactions of antibodies to apoA-I, apoA-11, apoE, apoB, apoD, and apoA-IV have revealed discrete bands of particles which differ widely in size and apolipoprotein composition
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28
Q

What kinds of lipids are based on glycerol?

A

Triacylglycerols and glycerophospholipids

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29
Q

Describe the principle of determination of triacylglycerol concentration.

A

They are measured using enzymatic reagents, including lipase, glycerol kinase, and glycerol-3-phosphate oxidase linked to a peroxidase-chromogen detection system.

30
Q

Lipid metabolism (lipid particles in blood).

A

a.) Exogenous (TAG, CH, phospholipids, chylomicrons, FFAs, glycerol)
• Following digestion and absorption of dietary fat, TAG and CH combine with protein and phospholipids to form chylomicrons in the epithelial layer of the small intestine. These chylomicrons are then absorbed into the lymphatic system where they enter the circulation via the thoracic duct. Here they are transported to the rest of the body to be stored in adipose tissue. Endothelial LPL cleaves TAGs from chylomicrons to form FFAs and glycerol, which can enter skeletal muscle and adipose tissue, leaving behind chylomicron remnants that are recycled by the liver.
b.) Endogenous (VLDL, fatty acids, IDL, LDL, fatty acids)
• VLDL is synthesized by the liver and released into the systemic circulation. In the tissues LPL cleaves TAGs from the VLDL to release fatty acids, which are taken up by myocytes for energy or by adipose tissue for storage. As LPL cleaves TAGs, the cholesterol concentration within the lipoprotein increases and becomes a smaller, denser lipoprotein named “intermediate density lipoproteins” (IDL)—the action of LPL may continue to form LDL, a smaller denser particle than IDL.
c.) Reverse Cholesterol Transport (cholesterol, HDL)
• It involves the movement of cholesterol from non-hepatic peripheral tissues back to the liver. This is mainly regulated by the ATP-binding cassette transporter on HDL, which allows the transfer of cholesterol onto the HDL.

31
Q

Structure, function of lipids in the human organism.

A

a.) Triylcerides
• Ester derived from glycerol and 3 fatty acids (contains palmitic acid and two oleic acids)
• They contain most of the fat stored by the body  major energy store. insulation
b.) Cholesterol, sterols
• Is a sterol
• Main component of cell membranes (it regulates membrane fluidity), precursor of bile acids, major precursor for the synthesis of vitamin D, involved in metabolism of the other fat-soluble vitamins, precursor of steroid hormones, important part of neurons in myelin (it helps to conduct nerve impulses), participate in the formation of lipid rafts in the plasma membrane, etc.
c.) Steroid hormones
• Is an organic compound with four rings arranged in a specific molecular configuration
• They that act as chemical messengers in the body and are required for many critical physiological processes including survival of stress, injury (and illness), metabolism, inflammation, salt and water balance, immune functions, and development of sexual characteristics
d.) Phospholipids
• The structure consists of two hydrophobic fatty acid “tails” and a hydrophilic “head” consisting of a phosphate group. The two components are usually joined together by a glycerol molecule.
• They are a major component of all cell membranes. They can form lipid bilayers (amphipilic characteristic)
e.) Sphingolipids
• The sphingosine backbone is O-linked to a (usually) charged head group. The backbone is also amide-linked to an acyl group, such as a fatty acid.
• Important roles in maintaining membrane function and integrity, preserving lipoprotein structure and functions, and preventing diseases such as atherosclerosis
• Sphingomyelin – present in myelin of nerve cell axons and is also a part of membranes in other tissues
f.) Glycolipids
g.) Fatty acids
• Fatty acids consist of carboxylic acid with a long aliphatic chain, which is either saturated or unsaturated
• Part of phospholipids of cell membranes, especially of cells of brain, neural system & retina. They influence membrane fluidity and membrane receptors and enzymes near the cell membrane. They play a role in oxygen transport throughout the body, providing energy (when glucose, a form of sugar, is not available), development of strong tissues and organs and managing inflammation in the body.
h.) Prostacyclins, prostaglandind

32
Q

What is glycated hemoglobin and what do high levels of glycated hemoglobin in blood mean?

A

a. ) Hemoglobin to which sugar is bound (glucose, galactose, fructose).
b. ) The high level of glycosylated hemoglobin in the red blood cells indicates poorer control of blood glucose levels of person with diabetes mellitus.

33
Q

Methods for determination of insulin and of C-peptide – which determination is a more relevant index of insulin secretion?

A

C-peptide test can be a good way to measure insulin levels because C-peptide tends to stay in the body longer than insulin. In patients on insulin, C-peptide measurement must be used as exogenous insulin will be detected by insulin assays. Insulin produced by the pancreas is extensively (approximately 50%) first-pass metabolized by the liver, therefore peripheral insulin levels may not accurately reflect portal insulin secretion. Even in non-insulin-treated patients, peripheral C-peptide levels more accurately reflect portal insulin secretion than measurement of peripheral insulin.

34
Q

What is glucagon, when is it released, what it does.

A

a. ) Is a polypeptide hormone of 29 amino acids.
b. ) It is released when the concentration of insulin (and indirectly glucose) in the bloodstream falls too low, when there is an increase in catecholamines, increase in plasma amino acids and when there is an activation of sympathetic nervous system.
c. ) It causes liver to release glucose – stored in the form of glycogen. It encourages liver to synthesize additional glucose by gluconeogenesis if the stores of glycogen are depleted.

35
Q

What is insulin, what is mechanism of its action and what it causes?

A

a. ) Is a glucose metabolism governing peptide hormone produced in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.
b. ) Insulin initiates its action by binding to a glycoprotein receptor on the surface of the cell. This receptor consists of an alpha-subunit, which binds the hormone, and a beta-subunit, which is an insulin-stimulated, tyrosine-specific protein kinase. Activation of this kinase is believed to generate a signal that eventually results in insulin’s action on glucose, lipid, and protein metabolism.
c. ) It causes body’s cells to take up glucose from the blood, store it as glycogen in the liver and muscle, and stop the use of fat as an energy source.

36
Q

What are the main causes of hypoglycemia in diabetic patients?

A

The most common cause of hypoglycemia is medications used to treat diabetes mellitus such as insulin and sulfonylureas. Risk is greater in diabetics who have eaten less than usual, exercised more than usual or drunk alcohol. Other causes of hypoglycemia include kidney failure, certain tumors, liver disease, hypothyroidism, starvation, inborn error of metabolism, severe infections, reactive hypoglycemia and a number of drugs including alcohol.

37
Q

How will you follow a diabetic patient treatment – which molecules will you determine to check the levels of glucose in the moment of taking the blood sample and longer in history?

A

Molecules that determine level of glucose in the moment of taking the blood sample are plasma glucose molecules and for long term blood glucose control it is the concentration of hemoglobin Alc.

38
Q

What is the glucose tolerance test?

A

The glucose tolerance test, also known as the oral glucose tolerance test, measures your body’s response to sugar (glucose). The glucose tolerance test can be used to screen for type 2 diabetes. More commonly, a modified version of the glucose tolerance test is used to diagnose gestational diabetes — a type of diabetes that develops during pregnancy. The glucose tolerance test identifies abnormalities in the way your body handles glucose after a meal — often before your fasting blood glucose level becomes abnormal.

39
Q

Name the main signs of DM. What is the difference between DM type I and type II?

A

a.) Main signs:
- glucose is not taken up by most cells and concentration in blood increases
- The body begins to use fat as an energy source
b.) Type 1 DM: patients depend on external insulin for their survival because the hormone is not produced by the body. Age of onset is in children or young adult and it is acute. Patients are usually lean and weight loss is present. Insulin in plasma is low or absent. Family history is less common than compared to Type2.
Type 2 DM: patients are insulin resistant or have relatively low insulin production. Some Type2 patients may eventually require insulin, when other medication fail to control blood glucose levels adequately. Patients are usually middle aged and elderly, as well as often obese. It is gradual rather than acute and weight loss in not frequent. The concentration of insulin in plasma is often normal and may be increased. It is commonly accompanied by family history.

40
Q

What happens if the concentration of glucose in blood drops below 2 mmol/L?

A

If the concentration od glucose in blood drops bellow 2mmol/L there will firstly be cognitive disturbance, then EEG changes (2 1.0 mmol/L).

41
Q

Which hormones influence the level of glucose and how?

A

Insulin is the main hormone that lowers the level of glucose in the blood - causes the body to take up glucose from the blood and store it as glycogen in liver and muscles, also to stop using fat as an energy source.
Glucagon works in the opposite way, it causes the liver to release glucose that is stored in the form of glycogen. Also its role is to encourage the liver to synthesize additional glucose through glucogenesis if the stores of glycogen are depleted.

42
Q

How do you call situation when pH of blood is > 7.45? What may be the reasons for that phenomenon?

A

a. ) Alkalosis is the state when your blood pH is higher than 7.45. Alkalosis occurs when there is a decreased blood level of carbon dioxide, that acts like an acid. Also it can occur due to increased blood levels of bicarbonate (base).
b. ) There are different kinds of alkalosis:
- Respiratory alkalosis: happens when there is not enough CO2 in your bloodstream - that can be caused by hyperventilation, high fever, lack of oxygen, salicylate poisoning, being in high altitudes, liver disease and lung disease
- Metabolic alkalosis happens when body loses too much acid or gains too much base - attributed to excess vomiting (electrolyte loss), overuse of diuretics, adrenal disease, large loss of potassium or sodium in short amounts of time, antacids, accidental ingestion of bicarbonate, laxatives and alcohol abuse
- Hypochloremic alkalosis occurs when there is a significant decline of chloride in your body, which can be due to prolonged vomiting or sweating
- Hypokalemic alkalosis occurs when the body lacks the normal amount of the mineral potassium. That can happen due to kidney disease, excessive sweating and diarrhea.

43
Q

How do you call situation when pH of blood is < 7.34? What may be the reasons for that phenomenon?

A

The phenomenon of blood pH being lower than 7.34 is called acidosis. The type of acidosis can be either respiratory or metabolic, depending on the prime cause.
Respiratory acidosis occurs, when there is too much CO2 in the body, as the long do not get rid of it. This can happen due to chronic airway conditions like asthma, injury to the chest, obesity, sedative misuse, overuse of alcohol, muscle weakness in the chest, problems with the nervous system and deformed chest structure.
Metabolic acidosis occurs in the kidneys and not the lungs. The kidneys can not get rid of enough acid pr they remove to much base. We separate metabolic acidosis into 3 different ones:
Diabetic acidosis: happens to people with diabetes that is poorly controlled. The body lacks enough insulin, ketones build up in your body and acidify the blood.
Lactic acidosis occurs when there is too much lactic acid in the body. This can be caused by chronic alcohol use, heart failure, cancer, seizures, liver failure, prolonged lack of oxygen and low blood sugar (even exercise can lead to build up).
Renal tubular acidosis happens when the kidneys are unable to excrete acids into urine - blood becomes acidic.

44
Q

What are the primary acid-base disorders? What test will you perform to confirm it?

A

Acid-base disorders are a group of conditions characterized by changes in the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) or bicarbonate (HCO3-), which lead to changes in the arterial blood pH. These conditions can be categorized as acidoses or alkaloses and have a respiratory or metabolic origin, depending on the cause of the imbalance.
Diagnosis is made by arterial blood gas (ABG) interpretation. In the setting of metabolic acidosis, calculation of the anion gap is an important resource to narrow down the possible causes and reach a precise diagnosis. Treatment is based on identifying the underlying cause.

45
Q

What are the so-called cardiac enzymes?

A

Are proteins from heart muscle cells that have leaked out into the bloodstream after an injury to the cardiac muscle.

a. ) Myoglobin is released into circulation with any damage to muscle tissue, including myocardial necrosis. Because skeletal muscle contains myoglobin, this measurement is quite nonspecific for MIs. The benefit in myoglobin is that a detectable increase is seen only 30 minutes after injury occurs, unlike in troponin and creatine kinase, which can take between 3 and 4 hours.
b. ) The enzymes troponin I and troponin T are normal proteins that are important in the contractile apparatus of the cardiac myocyte. The proteins are released into the circulation between 3 and 4 hours after myocardial infarction and remain detectable for 10 days following. This long half-life allows for the late diagnosis of MI but makes it difficult to detect re-infarction, as can occur in acute stent thrombosis after percutaneous coronary intervention, or PCI. There are a number causes for troponin elevation not related to myocardial infarction; however, troponin elevation is much more sensitive than myoglobin and even creatine kinase.
c. ) Creatine kinase ― also known as creatine phosphokinase, or CPK ― is a muscle enzyme that exists as isoenzymes. The MB type is specific to myocardial cells, whereas MM and BB are specific to skeletal muscle and brain tissue, respectively. The CK level increases approximately 3 to 4 hours after MI and remains elevated for 3 to 4 days. This makes it useful for detecting re-infarction in the window of 4 to 10 days after the initial insult; troponin remains elevated for 10 days, making it less useful for this purpose.

46
Q

Which methods are used for determination of creatine kinase isoenzymes?

A

An immunoassay for CK isoenzyme is provided based on capture of the CK isoenzyme by a specific antibody immobilized through a cleavable linker containing a disulfide bond onto a solid phase and release of the resulting antibody-CK complex by the addition of a reducing agent to cleave the disulfide bond and simultaneously activate the CK isoenzyme.

47
Q

What is hypertension and which drugs are commonly used for its treatment? What is their mechanism of action?

A

Hypertension is high blood pressure.

a. ) Thiazide diuretics. Diuretics, sometimes called water pills, are medications that act on your kidneys to help your body eliminate sodium and water, reducing blood volume.
b. ) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. These medications — such as lisinopril (Zestril), benazepril (Lotensin), captopril (Capoten) and others — help relax blood vessels by blocking the formation of a natural chemical that narrows blood vessels. People with chronic kidney disease may benefit from having an ACE inhibitor as one of their medications.
c. ) Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs). These medications help relax blood vessels by blocking the action, not the formation, of a natural chemical that narrows blood vessels. ARBs include candesartan (Atacand), losartan (Cozaar) and others. People with chronic kidney disease may benefit from having an ARB as one of their medications.
d. ) Calcium channel blockers. These medications — including amlodipine (Norvasc), diltiazem (Cardizem, Tiazac, others) and others — help relax the muscles of your blood vessels. Some slow your heart rate. Calcium channel blockers may work better for older people and people of African heritage than do ACE inhibitors alone.

48
Q

List markers for myocardial infarction. Which one appears first?

A

a. ) Markers: creatine kinase-MB, troponin I or troponin T, aspartate transaminase, lactate dehydrogenase and myoglobin.
b. ) A rise in troponin occurs within 2-3 hours of injury to the heart and peaks within 2-3 days.

49
Q

Name classes of immunoglobulins and characterize their function.

A
IgG: neutralizes toxins, activates complement, follows IgM
IgA: antimicrobial
IgM: first Ab response
IgD: cell surface antigen receptors
IgE: antiallergenic, antiparasitic
50
Q

Hormones and neurotransmitters derived from amino acids

A

Hormones: Thyroxine(T4), Triiodothyronine (T3), Catecholamins.
Neurotransmitters: some amino acids themselves are important neurotransmitters, like

51
Q

What do you know about albumin?

A

It is the most abundant protein in plasma. It is synthesized and secreted by liver. It is the 80%contributor zo the oncotic pressure of plasma. It is also important for hormone and Ca+ regulation.

52
Q

Hormones and neurotransmitters derived from amino acids

A

Hormones: Thyroxine(T4), Triiodothyronine (T3), Catecholamins.
Neurotransmitters: some amino acids themselves are important neurotransmitters, like glutamate, aspartate, glycine.
Neurotransmitters deriver from amino acids: glycine, glutamate, aspartate, dopamine, melatonin, catecholamins, histamin, serotonin.

53
Q

What do you know about phenylketonuria?

A

Phenylketonuria is an inborn genetic disorder (autosomal recessive fashion). In 97-99% of cases it is the lack of phenylalanine hydroxylase, which means phenylketon and phenylacetic acid will be excreted in urine. Incidence is 1:10 000. If it is not treated, it can result in mental retardation, so early detection is vital. They screen the babies with microbiological tests and treatment is a diet with low phenylalanine content, but rich in tyrosine, for 5-10 years to prevent brain damage. After that diet is not that strict.

54
Q

Describe the main protein components of serum and methods of their determination.

A

Albumin, globulins, and fibrinogen.
a.) Albumin prevents blood vessel leakiness, is a blood carrier (transporter) of insoluble molecules. grows & heals tissue.
Globulins: contain high-density lipoprotein (HDL) , contain haptoglobin that binds hemoglobin and prevents loss of iron, carrie substances, such as iron, through the bloodstream and helps fight infection, antibodies—prevents and fights infection
Fibrinogen: blood coagulation
b.) Deetermination: dye-binging techniques, ultraviolet absorption, the Lowry protein assay, the Kjeldahl method, electrophoresis and immunochemical methods

55
Q

Explain the term “nitrogen balance”. When do we speak about positive and negative “nitrogen balance”?

A

Nitrogen balance = nitrogen intake – nitrogen loss
Nitrogen intake: meat, dairy, eggs, nuts, lagumes, grains and cereals.
Nitrogen loss: urin, feces, sweat, hair and skin.
Positive nitrogen balance is associated with periods of growth, hypothyroidism, tissue repair and pregnancy - intake of nitrogen in the body is greater than the loss, increase in the total body pool of protein.
Negative nitrogen balance is associated with burns, serious tissue injuries, fevers, hyperthyroidism, wasting disease and during periods of fasting.

56
Q

Name two main hormones which regulate water loss and sodium loss, where are they synthesized?

A

Three major hormones are involved in regulating sodium and water balance in the body at the level of the kidney.

  1. ) ADH (antidiuretic hormone) from the posterior pituitary acts on the kidney to promote water reabsorption, thus preventing its loss in the urine.
  2. ) Aldosterone from the adrenal gland acts on the kidney to promote sodium reabsorption, thus preventing its loss in the urine.
  3. ) ANH (atrial natriuretic hormone) from the atrium of the heart acts on the kidney to promote sodium excretion so that it is excreted in the urine.
57
Q

What is “oncotic” pressure? What happens when it is decreased?

A

Oncotic pressure is a form of osmotic pressure that tends to pull fluid into the capillaries. It forms due to protein determines distribution of fluid between intravascular and extravascular compartments. When it is decreased, water flows out of the capillary.

58
Q

What are the pH values of blood and urine?

A

Blood: 7.2-7.5, urine: 5.0- 6.2 (it is normal that urine is a bit acidic, to prevent infections).

59
Q

What is electrophoresis? Name examples of its use in a clinical biochemistry laboratory

A

Electrophoresis is the motion of dispersed particles relative to a fluid under the influence of a spatially uniform electric field. In clinical biochemistry it can be used for separation of proteins, for example blood serum - separating different components, according to size and electrical charge.

60
Q
  1. Ways of sampling, procession of samples, factors influencing the values in the samples, necessary precautions.
A

The ways of sampling differ depending on which sample we need. Some can be collected at home by the patient, some are collected by the medical staff etc.
Samples have to be handled in the proper way so they can be used for further testing. For example, temperature is one of the major factors for most samples affecting their quality.
Factors influencing the values in samples:
Blood: posture (plasma volume varies by 14% if we are standing or lying down), tourniquet (loss of water and electrolytes to interstitium), quantity (incomplete sample ratio), quality (haemolysis, IV fluid contamination).

61
Q

What are dynamic functional tests?

A

Dynamic function tests involve either stimulating or suppressing a particular hormone and observing the appropriate hormonal response. In general, if a deficiency is suspected a stimulation test should be used whilst if excess is considered likely, a suppression test is required.

62
Q

What is the difference between serum and plasma? List at least anticoagulants

A

Blood plasma is the liquid part of the blood with the particles centrifuged off. Different anticoagulants can be used; EDTA, citrate, heparin, hirudin.
Blood serum is the liquid fraction of blood collected after the blood is allowed to clot. No anticoagulant is added. The clot is removed by centrifugation and the resulting supernatant is our serum. It contains no blood cells or clotting factors.

63
Q

Which samples are the most often used for analysis and how do they differ?

A

Blood, plasma, serum, urine, CSF, saliva, sputum, sweat, semen, pus, lesions, tissue, faeces, areas of infection, swabs etc.
They differ in what they are used for and the way they are collected.

64
Q

What can be determined by the stick or strip method; name at least three analytes? How is such a method being performed?

A

Dipstick tests detect a wide range of proteins and work on the principle of protein error of indicators  indicators change either by change of pH or action of proteins (losing H+)

a. ) Urine: for example a pregnancy test. The urine is collected in a cup and the stick is dipped inside. It measures the concentration of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) present in urine and blood approximately 10-14days after the conception. After a few minutes it shows the results.
b. ) Blood: strip test can be used to measure blood sugar levels. A small needle is used to prick a finger and form a drop of blood, which is applied to the strip. The machine connected to the strip calculates the blood sugar level.
c. ) Dipstick urinalysis has chemicals in the stick that change color if levels of something are above normal. They check acidity/pH, protein, glucose, white blood cells, bilirubin, blood in urine.

65
Q

What means “point-of-care” testing? What kind of tests are performed this way usually?

A

Point of care testing is defined as medical diagnostic testing at or near the point of care  time and place of patient care. Examples are various kinds of urine test strips, pulse oximetry (measures arterial oxygen saturation), rapid diagnostic tests (malaria antigen detection test), even portable ultrasonography.

66
Q

Which tests belong to the so called “Core biochemical tests” performed in every clinical biochemistry laboratory?

A

Sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, urea and creatinine, calcium and phosphate, total protein and albumin, bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase, glucose, amylase, ALT, AST, etc.

67
Q

What are the purposes of performing biochemical tests?

A
  • Helping formulate the diagnosis - confirmation or rejection
  • Helping to make the prognosis of the disease
  • Monitoring the progression of the disease or response to treatment
  • Important for screening (detecting a subclinical phase of a disease)
    Overall we could say the aim is the maintenance of health to ensure that all the many thousand reactions that occur intra and extracellularly, proceed in optimal rates so that the organism will survive as long as possible in physiological state.
68
Q

Name the essential and nonessential amino acids. How the organism gains amino acids?

A

Essential amino acids: phenylalanine, valine, threonine, tryptophan, methionine, leucine, isoleucine, lysine and histidine.
Nonessential amino acids are: alanine, aspartic acid, asparagine, glutamic acid, serine, arginine, cysteine, glycine, glutamine, proline, tyrosine. Amino acids are received through food intake - important that the human diet contains enough amino acids

69
Q

What is proteinuria and what it marks?

A

Proteinuria means excess of serum proteins in the urine (often foamy urine). Causes for proteinuria can be different, depending on what kind of proteinuria we are talking about.
Overload proteinuria: Bance-Jones, Myoglobin (crush injury, rhabdomyolysis), hemoglobin
Tubular proteinuria: mostly low MW proteins, Fanconi’s, Wilson’s, pyelonephritis, cystinosis.

70
Q

Receptors – main types, second messengers.

A
Types:
 - Ligand gated ion channels
 - G-protein coupled receptors
 - Enzyme-linked receptors
 - Intracellular receptors
Second messengers:
 - cAMP
 - cGMP
 - Diacryl glycerol
 - Inositol 1,4,5-trosphosphate
 - Calcium
71
Q

Draw the structure of immunoglobulin G (IgG) and mark its binding sites, constant and variable regions.

A

slika