Exam Flashcards
1
Q
Which type of infrastructure service provides data, voice and video connectivity to employees, customers, and suppliers? A) Networking B) Telephone C) VOIP D) Telecommunications E) Data management
A
D) Telecommunications
2
Q
Which of the following is not an IT infrastructure service component?
A) Operating system software
B) Computing platforms to provide a coherent digital environment
C) Physical facilities management to manage the facilities housing physical components
D) IT management services to plan and develop the infrastructure and provide project management
E) IT education services that provide training to employees
A
A) Operating system software
3
Q
Specifications that establish the compatibility of products and the ability to communicate in a network are called: A) network standards. B) telecommunications standards. C) technology standards. D) Internet standards. E) compatibility standards.
A
C) technology standards.
4
Q
Which of the following is a leading networking hardware provider? A) Dell B) Intel C) Seagate D) IBM E) Cisco
A
E) Cisco
5
Q
Software that manages the resources of the computer is called: A) operating system software. B) application software. C) data management software. D) network software. E) web services software.
A
A) operating system software.
6
Q
A SAN is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ network. A) server area B) storage area C) scalable architecture D) service-oriented architecture E) software arrangement
A
B) storage area
7
Q
Which of the following is an example of a legacy system?
A) Transaction processing system running on a mainframe.
B) Scalable grid computing system
C) Web services running on a cloud computing platform
D) MDM software
E) Quantum computing system
A
A) Transaction processing system running on a mainframe.
8
Q
Which of the following is not an example of a wearable computing device? A) Smartwatch B) Smart glasses C) Smartphones D) Activity trackers E) Smart ID badges
A
C) Smartphones
9
Q
A(n)\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ server is used to communicate between a web server and an organization's back-end systems. A) public server B) private server C) legacy server D) application server E) blade server
A
D) application server
10
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are computers consisting of a circuit board with processors, memory, and network connections that are stored in racks. A) Mainframes B) Rack servers C) Cloud servers D) Hybrid servers E) Blade servers
A
E) Blade servers
11
Q
Client/server computing is a primary example of centralized processing.
A
False
12
Q
In N-tier computing, significant parts of website content, logic, and processing are performed by different servers.
A
True
13
Q
Application server software is responsible for locating and managing stored web pages.
A
False
14
Q
IT infrastructure consists of only those physical computing devices required to operate the enterprise.
A
False
15
Q
An application server may reside on the same computer as a web server or on its own dedicated computer.
A
True
16
Q
The operating system is used to manage the computer’s activities.
A
True
17
Q
SANs maintain a series of servers and provide fee-paying subscribers with space to maintain their websites.
A
False
18
Q
Place the following eras of IT infrastructure evolution in order, from earliest to most recent: 1. Cloud Computing Era; 2. Client/Server; 3. Enterprise Era; 4. Personal Computer; and 5. Mainframe and Minicomputer. A) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1 B) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1 C) 4, 5, 2, 3, 1 D) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3 E) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1
A
B) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
19
Q
The introduction of the minicomputer:
A) allowed computers to be customized to the specific needs of departments or business units.
B) strengthened centralized computing.
C) offered new, powerful machines at higher prices than mainframes.
D) represented the rise of Microsoft.
E) was dominated by IBM.
A
A) allowed computers to be customized to the specific needs of departments or business units.
20
Q
A client computer networked to a server computer, with processing split between the two types of computers, is called a(n):
A) service-oriented architecture.
B) on-demand architecture.
C) multi-tiered client/server architecture.
D) two-tiered client/server architecture.
E) divided architecture.
A
D) two-tiered client/server architecture.
21
Q
In a multi-tiered network:
A) the work of the entire network is centralized.
B) the work of the entire network is balanced over several levels of servers.
C) processing is split between clients and servers.
D) processing is handled by multiple, geographically-remote clients.
E) processing is located in the cloud.
A
B) the work of the entire network is balanced over several levels of servers.
22
Q
Interpretations of Moore’s law assert that:
A) computing power will eventually level off.
B) transistors decrease in size 50% every two years.
C) data storage costs decrease by 50% every 18 months.
D) PCs decrease in market share by 9% every 5 years.
E) computing power doubles every 18 months.
A
E) computing power doubles every 18 months.
23
Q
Today's nanotechnology-produced computer transistors are roughly equivalent in size to: A) the width of a fingernail. B) a human hair. C) a virus. D) an atom. E) a grain of sand.
A
C) a virus.
24
Q
ZipRealty, which combines Google Maps with real estate data, is an example of: A) cloud computing. B) SOA. C) a widget. D) a mashup. E) a web service.
A
D) a mashup.
25
```
Which of the following is a multitasking, multi-user, operating system developed by Bell Laboratories that operates on a wide variety of computing platforms?
A) Unix
B) Linux
C) OS X
D) COBOL
E) DOS
```
A) Unix
26
```
Which of the following is the network standard for connecting desktop computers into local area networks that enabled the widespread adoption of client/server computing and local area networks and further stimulated the adoption of personal computers?
A) TCP/IP
B) COBOL
C) Ethernet
D) ASCII
E) Linux
```
C) Ethernet
27
The development of TCP/IP occurred during the ________ era.
A) cloud and mobile computing
B) general-purpose mainframe and minicomputer
C) client/server era
D) personal computer
E) enterprise computing
E) enterprise computing
28
```
Which of the following became the standard PC in the Personal Computer Era?
A) Wintel PC
B) DOS PC
C) MITS PC
D) Altair
E) Apple II
```
A) Wintel PC
29
```
________ uses individual atoms and molecules to create computer chips and other devices.
A) Virtualization
B) Nanotechnology
C) Quantum computing
D) A minicomputer
E) On-demand computing
```
B) Nanotechnology
30
```
________ states that the value or power of a network grows exponentially as a function of the number of network members.
A) Metcalfe's Law
B) Moore's Law
C) Law of scalability
D) Law of outsourcing
E) Law of networks
```
A) Metcalfe's Law
31
```
________ interfaces allow users to employ one or more fingers to manipulate objects on a screen without a mouse or keyboard.
A) Hypertouch
B) Nanotech
C) Multitouch
D) Linux
E) Scalable
```
C) Multitouch
32
Enterprise infrastructure requires software that can link disparate applications and enable data to flow freely among different parts of the business.
True
33
```
Which of the following is not an example of the mobile digital platform?
A) Tablets
B) Kindle
C) Cell phones
D) CRM
E) Apps
```
D) CRM
34
```
All of the following are current hardware platform trends except:
A) green computing.
B) virtualization.
C) cloud computing.
D) Unix.
E) quantum computing.
```
D) Unix.
35
```
The ability to be in multiple states at once, dramatically increasing processing power, is a hallmark of:
A) co-location.
B) edge computing.
C) grid computing.
D) utility computing.
E) quantum computing.
```
E) quantum computing.
36
```
Which of the following is a recent addition to the mobile digital platform?
A) Quantum computing devices
B) Wearable computing devices
C) Cloud computing devices
D) Grid computing devices
E) Green computing devices
```
B) Wearable computing devices
37
```
At what percent of capacity do most servers operate?
A) 100%
B) 80-90%
C) approximately 70 percent
D) 40-50%
E) 15-20%
```
E) 15-20%
38
```
Which of the following enables a single physical resource (such as a server or a storage device) to appear to the user as multiple logical resources?
A) Cloud computing
B) Autonomic computing
C) Virtualization
D) Multicore processing
E) Ubiquitous computing
```
C) Virtualization
39
```
Which of the following types of computing involves purchasing computing power from a remote provider and paying only for the computing power used?
A) On-demand
B) Grid
C) Edge
D) Autonomic
E) Quantum
```
A) On-demand
40
```
All of the following are cloud computing services except:
A) infrastructure as a service.
B) platform as a service.
C) software as a service.
D) on-demand computing.
E) virtualization as a service.
```
E) virtualization as a service.
41
```
Firms that allow employees to use their own devices are embracing which of the following?
A) Wearable computing
B) Mobile consolidation
C) Cloud computing
D) BYOD
E) Self computing
```
D) BYOD
42
The marketplace for computer hardware:
A) has become increasingly concentrated in top firms.
B) has expanded to include a wide variety of start-up and mobile-computing firms.
C) has moved significantly to Asian firms.
D) has been decimated by mobile and cloud computing.
E) has begun moving away from blade servers.
A) has become increasingly concentrated in top firms.
43
```
Which of the following is the most popular mobile operating system?
A) Linux
B) Android
C) Chrome OS
D) iOS
E) Unix
```
B) Android
44
```
Which of the following is not one of the NIST defined characteristics of cloud computing?
A) Ubiquitous network access
B) Location-independent resource pooling
C) On-demand self service
D) Measured service
E) Reduced elasticity
```
E) Reduced elasticity
45
```
Which of the following is not an example of the consumerization of IT?
A) Google Apps
B) Dropbox
C) Facebook
D) Gmail
E) Amazon Web Services
```
E) Amazon Web Services
46
```
A(n) ________ is an integrated circuit to which two or more processors have been attached for enhanced performance and reduced power consumption.
A) multicore processor
B) legacy processor
C) scalable processor
D) aggregate circuit
E) green circuit
```
A) multicore processor
47
In green computing, reducing computer power consumption is a top priority.
True
48
Quantum computing is implemented primarily with enterprise or ISP servers.
False
49
```
Which type of software is created and updated by a worldwide community of programmers and available for free?
A) Software packages
B) Mashups
C Outsourced
D) Open source
E) Closed source
```
D) Open source
50
Which of the following is not one of the current software platform trends?
A) Web services and service-oriented architecture
B) Open-source software
C) HTML5
D) Software outsourcing
E) Multicore processors
E) Multicore processors
51
Linux is:
A) primarily concerned with the tasks of end users.
B) designed for specific machines and specific microprocessors.
C) an example of open-source software.
D) especially useful for processing numeric data.
E) poorly suited to power fast computers.
C) an example of open-source software.
52
Which of the following statements about Linux is not true?
A) It plays a major role in the back office running local area networks.
B) It is available in free versions downloadable from the Internet.
C) It has garnered 20 percent of the server operating system market.
D) Linux applications are embedded in cell phones, smartphones, netbooks, and other handheld devices.
E) Linux works on all the major hardware platforms.
C) It has garnered 20 percent of the server operating system market.
53
Running a Java program on a computer requires:
A) a Java Virtual Machine to be installed on that computer.
B) a Java Virtual Machine to be installed on the server hosting the Java applet.
C) a miniature program to be downloaded to the user's computer.
D) no specialized software, as Java is platform-independent.
E) the Mozilla Firefox browser and no other browsers.
A) a Java Virtual Machine to be installed on that computer.
54
```
A software program with a graphical user interface for displaying web pages and for accessing the web and other Internet resources is called a web:
A) service.
B) client.
C) browser.
D) app.
E) beacon.
```
C) browser.
55
```
Sets of loosely coupled software components that exchange information with each other using standard web communication standards and languages are referred to as:
A) web services.
B) EAI software.
C) SOA.
D) SOAP.
E) SaaS.
```
A) web services.
56
```
Which of the following is the foundation technology for web services?
A) XML
B) HTML
C) SOAP
D) UDDI
E) SCSI
```
A) XML
57
```
Which of the following refers to a set of self-contained services that communicate with each other to create a working software application?
A) Web services
B) EAI software
C) SOA
D) SOAP
E) Prepackaged software
```
C) SOA
58
```
Prewritten, commercially available sets of software programs that eliminate the need for a firm to write its own software programs for certain functions, are referred to as:
A) software packages.
B) mashups.
C) outsourced software.
D) open-source software.
E) service level agreements.
```
A) software packages.
59
```
________ are created by combining and customizing components from different online software applications.
A) Apps
B) Web browsers
C) SaaS
D) Web services
E) Mashups
```
E) Mashups
60
```
The practice of contracting custom software development to an outside firm is commonly referred to as:
A) outsourcing.
B) scaling.
C) service-oriented architecture.
D) application integration.
E) utility computing.
```
A) outsourcing.
61
```
A formal contract between customers and their service providers that outlines the specific responsibilities of the service provider and to the customer is called a(n):
A) SOA.
B) SLA.
C) TCO.
D) RFQ.
E) SaaS.
```
B) SLA.
62
SaaS refers to:
A) supplying online access over networks to storage devices and storage area network technology.
B) managing combinations of applications, networks, systems, storage, and security as well as providing Web site and systems performance monitoring to subscribers over the Internet.
C) self-contained services that communicate with each other to create a working software application.
D) easy-to-use software tools for displaying Web pages.
E) hosting and managing access to software applications delivered over the Internet to clients on a subscription basis.
E) hosting and managing access to software applications delivered over the Internet to clients on a subscription basis.
63
```
________ provides a standard format for data exchange, enabling web services to pass data from one process to another.
A) HTML
B) HTML5
C) Java
D) Chrome OS
E) XML
```
E) XML
64
```
Which of the following involves practices and technologies to minimize the environmental effects of manufacturing and managing computing devices?
A) Capacity planning
B) Cloud computing
C) Green computing
D) Utility computing
E) On-demand computing
```
C) Green computing
65
The decision to purchase your own IT assets or rent them from external providers is also referred to as the rent-versus-buy decision.
True
66
It is much easier to eliminate a cloud service than to remove functionality from a company’s core internal systems.
True
67
Java software is designed to run on any computing device, regardless of the specific microprocessor or operating system it uses.
True
68
Web services can exchange information between two different systems only if the operating systems and programming languages upon which the systems are based are identical.
False
69
Whereas HTML is limited to describing how data should be presented in the form of Web pages, XML can perform presentation, communication, and data storage tasks.
True
70
Hypertext markup language specifies how text, graphics, video, and sound are placed on a web page.
True
71
A service-oriented architecture is set of self-contained services that communicate with each other to create a working software application.
True
72
Today, many business firms continue to operate legacy systems because they meet a business need and would be costly to replace.
True
73
Which of the following factors does not help explain why computing resources today are even more available than in previous decades?
A) Network economics
B) Law of mass digital storage
C) Moore's law
D) Declining communications costs and the Internet
E) Widespread rejection of technology standards
E) Widespread rejection of technology standards
74
```
Which of the following refers to the ability of a computer, product, or system to expand to serve a larger number of users without breaking down?
A) Modality
B) Scalability
C) Expandability
D) Disintermediation
E) Customizability
```
B) Scalability
75
```
Hardware and software acquisition costs account for about ________ percent of TCO.
A) 20
B) 40
C) 50
D) 75
E) 90
```
A) 20
76
```
Which model can be used to analyze the direct and indirect costs to help firms determine the actual cost of specific technology implementations?
A) Supply and demand
B) Return on investment
C) Breakeven point
D) Cost-benefit analysis
E) Total cost of ownership
```
E) Total cost of ownership
77
How would you determine the market demand for your firm's IT services?
A) Perform a TCO analysis.
B) Benchmark your services.
C) Hold focus groups to assess your services.
D) Analyze sales returns on key investments.
E) Perform a stress test.
C) Hold focus groups to assess your services.
78
Which of the following is not one of the main six factors to consider when evaluating how much your firm should spend on IT infrastructure?
A) Your firm's business strategy
B) The IT investments made by competitor firms
C) Market demand for your firm's services
D) Your firm's organizational culture
E) Information technology assessment
D) Your firm's organizational culture
79
Scalability refers to the ability of a computer, product, or system to expand to serve a large number of users without breaking down.
True
80
TCO refers to the original cost of purchased technology: both hardware and software.
False
81
In financial services firms, investments in IT infrastructure represent more than half of all capital invested.
True
82
Microsoft is the market leader in client/server networking.
True
83
Cloud computing is the fastest growing form of computing.
True
84
Exponential growth in the number of transistors and the power of processors is expected to consider for the foreseeable future.
False
85
Quantum computing is not yet available to the general public.
False
86
Which of the following best illustrates the relationship between entities and attributes? A) The entity CUSTOMER with the attribute PRODUCT
B) The entity CUSTOMER with the attribute PURCHASE
C) The entity PRODUCT with the attribute PURCHASE
D) The entity PRODUCT with the attribute CUSTOMER
E) The entity PURCHASE with the attribute CUSTOMER
B) The entity CUSTOMER with the attribute PURCHASE
87
All of the following are issues with the traditional file environment except:
A) data inconsistency.
B) inability to develop specialized applications for functional areas.
C) lack of flexibility in creating ad-hoc reports.
D) poor security.
E) data sharing.
B) inability to develop specialized applications for functional areas.
88
```
A characteristic or quality that describes a particular database entity is called a(n):
A) field
B) tuple
C) key field
D) attribute
E) relationship
```
D) attribute
89
A ________ is an example of pre-digital data storage that is comparable to a database.
A) library card catalog
B) cash register receipt
C) doctor's office invoice
D) list of sales totals on a spreadsheet
E) schedule of due dates on a project outline
A) library card catalog
90
```
________ creates confusion that hampers the creation of information systems that integrate data from different sources.
A) Batch processing
B) Data redundancy
C) Data independence
D) Online processing
E) Data quality
```
B) Data redundancy
91
```
Data ________ occurs when the same data is duplicated in multiple files of a database.
A) redundancy
B) repetition
C) independence
D) partitions
E) discrepancy
```
A) redundancy
92
```
Which of the following occurs when the same attribute in related data files has different values?
A) Data redundancy
B) Data duplication
C) Data dependence
D) Data discrepancy
E) Data inconsistency
```
E) Data inconsistency
93
```
Which of the following is a grouping of characters into a word, a group of words, or a complete number?
A) File
B) Table
C) Entity
D) Field
E) Tuple
```
D) Field
94
A record is a characteristic or quality used to describe a particular entity.
False
95
Program-data dependence refers to the coupling of data stored in files and the specific programs required to update and maintain those files such that changes in programs require changes to the data.
True
96
```
The fact that a traditional file system cannot respond to unanticipated information requirements in a timely fashion is an example of which of the following issues with traditional file systems
A) Program-data dependence
B) Lack of flexibility
C) Poor security
D) Lack of data sharing
E) Data redundancy
```
B) Lack of flexibility
97
Which of the following enables a DBMS to reduce data redundancy and inconsistency?
A) Ability to enforce referential integrity
B) Ability to couple program and data
C) Use of a data dictionary
D) Ability to create two-dimensional tables
E) Ability to minimize isolated files with repeated data
E) Ability to minimize isolated files with repeated data
98
A DBMS makes the:
A) physical database available for different logical views.
B) relational database available for different logical views.
C) physical database available for different analytic views.
D) relational database available for different analytic views.
E) logical database available for different analytic views.
A) physical database available for different logical views.
99
The logical view of a database:
A) displays the organization and structure of data on the physical storage media.
B) includes a digital dashboard.
C) allows the creation of supplementary reports.
D) enables users to manipulate the logical structure of the database.
E) presents data as they would be perceived by end users.
E) presents data as they would be perceived by end users.
100
```
Which of the following is a DBMS for desktop computers?
A) DB2
B) Oracle Database
C) Microsoft SQL Server
D) Microsoft Access
E) Microsoft Exchange
```
D) Microsoft Access
101
```
A(n) ________ organizes data in two-dimensional tables.
A) non-relational DBMS
B) mobile DBMS
C) relational DBMS
D) hierarchical DBMS
E) object-oriented DBMS
```
C) relational DBMS
102
```
Microsoft SQL Server is a(n):
A) DBMS for both desktops and mobile devices.
B) Internet DBMS.
C) desktop relational DBMS.
D) DBMS for midrange computers.
E) DBMS for mobile devices.
```
D) DBMS for midrange computers.
103
```
In a table for customers, the information about a single customer resides in a single:
A) field.
B) row.
C) column.
D) table.
E) entity.
```
B) row.
104
```
In a relational database, a record is referred to in technical terms as a(n):
A) tuple.
B) table.
C) entity.
D) field.
E) key.
```
A) tuple.
105
```
A field identified in a table as holding the unique identifier of the table's records is called the:
A) primary key.
B) key field.
C) primary field.
D) unique ID.
E) primary entity.
```
A) primary key.
106
```
A field identified in a record as holding the unique identifier for that record is called the:
A) primary key.
B) key field.
C) primary field.
D) unique ID.
E) key attribute.
```
B) key field.
107
```
In a relational database, the three basic operations used to develop useful sets of data are:
A) select, project, and where.
B) select, join, and where.
C) select, project, and join.
D) where, from, and join.
E) where, find, and select.
```
C) select, project, and join.
108
The select operation:
A) combines relational tables to provide the user with more information than is otherwise available.
B) creates a subset consisting of columns in a table.
C) identifies the table from which the columns will be selected.
D) creates a subset consisting of all records in the file that meet stated criteria.
E) creates a subset consisting of rows in a table.
D) creates a subset consisting of all records in the file that meet stated criteria.
109
The join operation:
A) combines relational tables to provide the user with more information than is otherwise available.
B) identifies the table from which the columns will be selected.
C) creates a subset consisting of columns in a table.
D) organizes elements into segments.
E) creates a subset consisting of rows in a table.
A) combines relational tables to provide the user with more information than is otherwise available.
110
A) combines relational tables to provide the user with more information than is otherwise available.
B) creates a subset consisting of columns in a table.
C) organizes elements into segments.
D) identifies the table from which the columns will be selected.
E) creates a subset consisting of rows in a table.
B) creates a subset consisting of columns in a table.
111
Microsoft Access’s data dictionary displays all of the following information about a filed except the:
A) size of the field
B) format of the field.
C) description of the field.
D) type of the field.
E) the organization within the organization that is responsible for maintain the data.
E) the organization within the organization that is responsible for maintain the data.
112
```
Which of the following is an automated or manual file that stores information about data elements and data characteristics such as usage, physical representation, ownership, authorization, and security?
A) Data dictionary
B) Data definition diagram
C) Entity-relationship diagram
D) Relationship dictionary
E) Data table.
```
A) Data dictionary
113
```
Which of the following is a specialized language that programmers use to add and change data in the database?
A) Data access language.
B) Data manipulation language.
C) Structured query language.
D) Data definition language.
E) DBMS.
```
B) Data manipulation language.
114
```
Which of the following is the most prominent data manipulation language today?
A) Access
B) DB2
C) SQL
D) Crystal Reports
E) NoSQL
```
C) SQL
115
DBMSs typically include report-generating tools in order to:
A) retrieve and display data.
B) display data in an easier-to-read format.
C) display data in graphs.
D) perform predictive analysis.
E) analyze the database's performance.
B) display data in an easier-to-read format.
116
```
The process of streamlining data to minimize redundancy and awkward many-to-many relationships is called:
A) normalization.
B) data scrubbing.
C) data cleansing.
D) data defining.
E) optimization.
```
A) normalization.
117
```
A schematic of the entire database that describes the relationships in a database is called a(n):
A) data dictionary.
B) intersection relationship diagram.
C) entity-relationship diagram.
D) data definition diagram.
E) data analysis table.
```
C) entity-relationship diagram.
118
```
A one-to-many relationship between two entities is symbolized in a diagram by a line that ends with:
A) one short mark.
B) two short marks.
C) three short marks.
D) a crow's foot.
E) a crow's foot topped by a short mark.
```
E) a crow's foot topped by a short mark.
119
```
You are creating a database to store temperature and wind data from various airports. Which of the following fields is the most likely candidate to use as the basis for a primary key in the Airport table?
A) Address
B) City
C) Airport code
D) State
E) Day
```
C) Airport code
120
The logical and physical views of data are separated in a DBMS.
True
121
Every record in a file should contain at least one key field.
True
122
NoSQL technologies are used to manage sets of data that don't require the flexibility of tables and relations.
True
123
CGI is a DBMS programming language that end users and programmers use to manipulate data in the database.
False
124
Complicated groupings of data in a relational database need to be adjusted to eliminate awkward many-to-many relationships.
True
125
A physical view shows data as it is actually organized and structured on the data storage media.
True
126
DBMS have a data definition capability to specify the structure of the content of the database.
True
127
Relational DBMSs use key field rules to ensure that relationships between coupled tables remain consistent.
False
128
The term big data refers to all of the following except:
A) datasets with fewer than a billion records.
B) datasets with unstructured data.
C) machine-generated data (i.e. from sensors).
D) data created by social media (i.e. tweets, Facebook Likes).
E) data from Web traffic.
A) datasets with fewer than a billion records.
129
```
Which of the following technologies would you use to analyze the social media data collected by a major online retailer?
A) OLAP
B) Data warehouse
C) Data mart
D) Hadoop
E) DBMS
```
D) Hadoop
130
```
Which of the following is not one of the techniques used in web mining?
A) Content mining
B) Structure mining
C) Server mining
D) Usage mining
E) Data mining
```
C) Server mining
131
```
You work for a retail clothing chain whose primary outlets are in shopping malls and are conducting an analysis of your customers and their preferences. You wish to find out if there are any particular activities that your customers engage in, or the types of purchases made in the month before or after purchasing select items from your store. To do this, you will the data mining software you are using to do which of the following?
A) Identify associations
B) Identify clusters
C) Identify sequences
D) Classify data
E) Create a forecast
```
C) Identify sequences
132
```
You work for a car rental agency and want to determine what characteristics are shared among your most loyal customers. To do this, you will the data mining software you are using to do which of the following?
A) Identify associations
B) Identify clusters
C) Identify sequences
D) Classify data
E) Create a forecast
```
D) Classify data
133
```
A data warehouse is composed of:
A) historical data from legacy systems.
B) current data.
C) internal and external data sources.
D) historic and current internal data.
E) historic external data.
```
D) historic and current internal data.
134
```
All of the following are technologies used to analyze and manage big data except:
A) cloud computing.
B) noSQL.
C) in-memory computing.
D) analytic platforms.
E) Hadoop.
```
A) cloud computing.
135
```
A household appliances manufacturer has hired you to help analyze its social media datasets to determine which of its refrigerators are seen as the most reliable. Which of the following tools would you use to analyze this data?
A) Text mining tools
B) Sentiment analysis software
C) Web mining technologies
D) Data mining software
E) Data governance software
```
B) Sentiment analysis software
136
```
Which of the following tools enables users to view the same data in different ways using multiple dimensions?
A) Predictive analysis
B) SQL
C) OLAP
D) Data mining
E) Hadoop
```
C) OLAP
137
OLAP enables:
A) users to obtain online answers to ad-hoc questions in a rapid amount of time.
B) users to view both logical and physical views of data.
C) programmers to quickly diagram data relationships.
D) programmers to normalize data.
E) users to quickly generate summary reports.
A) users to obtain online answers to ad-hoc questions in a rapid amount of time.
138
Data mining allows users to:
A) quickly compare transaction data gathered over many years.
B) find hidden relationships in data.
C) obtain online answers to ad-hoc questions in a rapid amount of time.
D) summarize massive amounts of data into much smaller, traditional reports.
E) access the vast amounts of data in a data warehouse.
B) find hidden relationships in data.
139
In the context of data relationships, the term associations refers to:
A) events linked over time.
B) patterns that describe a group to which an item belongs.
C) occurrences linked to a single event.
D) undiscovered groupings.
E) relationships between different customers.
C) occurrences linked to a single event.
140
```
________ tools are used to analyze large unstructured data sets, such as e-mail, memos, and survey responses to discover patterns and relationships.
A) OLAP
B) Text mining
C) In-memory
D) Clustering
E) Classification
```
B) Text mining
141
```
Which of the following enables you to create a script that allows a web server to communicate with a back-end database?
A) CGI
B) HTML
C) Java
D) SQL
E) NoSQL
```
A) CGI
142
HTML has become the preferred method of communicating with back-end databases because it is a cross-platform language.
False
143
Legacy systems are used to populate and update data warehouses.
True
144
Multiple data marts are combined and streamlined to create a data warehouse.
False
145
You can use OLAP to perform multidimensional data analysis.
True
146
OLAP is unable to manage and handle queries with very large sets of data.
False
147
In-memory computing relies primarily on a computer (RAM) for data storage.
True
148
Middleware is an application that transfers information from an organization's internal database to a web server for delivery to a user as part of a web page.
True
149
Implementing a web interface for an organization's internal database usually requires substantial changes to be made to the database.
False
150
You can manipulate data on a web server by using a CGI script.
True
151
You can use text mining tools to analyze unstructured data, such as memos and legal cases.
True
152
In a client/server environment, a DBMS is located on a dedicated computer called a web server.
False
153
Associations are occurrences linked to multiple events.
False
154
High-speed analytic platforms use both relational and non-relational tools to analyze large datasets.
True
155
```
Which of the following is software that handles all application operations between browser-based computers and a company's back-end business applications or databases?
A) Database server software
B) Application server software
C) Web browser software
D) Data mining software
E) Web server software
```
B) Application server software
156
```
In data mining, which of the following involves using a series of existing values to determine what other future values will be?
A) Associations
B) Sequences
C) Classifications
D) Clustering
E) Forecasting
```
E) Forecasting
157
```
An organization's rules for sharing, disseminating, acquiring, standardizing, classifying, and inventorying information is called a(n):
A) information policy.
B) data definition file.
C) data quality audit.
D) data governance policy.
E) data policy.
```
A) information policy.
158
```
In a large organization, which of the following functions would be responsible for physical database design and maintenance?
A) Data administration
B) Database administration.
C) Information policy administration
D) Data auditing
E) Database management
```
B) Database administration.
159
```
Which common database challenge is illustrated by a person receiving multiple copies of an L.L. Bean catalog, each addressed to a slightly different variation of his or her full name?
A) Data normalization
B) Data accuracy
C) Data redundancy
D) Data inconsistency
E) Data duplication
```
D) Data inconsistency
160
```
Detecting and correcting data in a database or file that are incorrect, incomplete, improperly formatted, or redundant is called:
A) data auditing.
B) defragmentation.
C) data scrubbing.
D) data optimization.
E) data normalization.
```
C) data scrubbing.
161
Data cleansing not only corrects errors but also:
A) establishes logical relationships between data.
B) structures data.
C) normalizes data.
D) removes duplicate data.
E) enforces consistency among different sets of data.
E) enforces consistency among different sets of data.
162
Which of the following is not a method for performing a data quality audit?
A) Surveying entire data files
B) Surveying samples from data files
C) Surveying data definition and query files
D) Surveying end users about their perceptions of data quality
E) Surveying managers about their perceptions of data quality
C) Surveying data definition and query files
163
The term data governance refers to the policies and processes for managing the integrity and security of data in a firm.
True
164
```
In a large organization, which of the following functions would be responsible for policies and procedures for managing internal data resources?
A) Data administration
B) Database administration.
C) Information policy administration
D) Data auditing
E) Database management
```
A) Data administration
165
Data scrubbing is a more intensive corrective process than data cleansing.
False
166
```
In data mining, which of the following involves recognizing patterns that describe the group to which an item belongs by examining existing items and inferring a set of rules?
A) Associations
B) Sequences
C) Classifications
D) Clustering
E) Forecasting
```
C) Classifications
167
```
In data mining, which of the following involves events linked over time?
A) Associations
B) Sequences
C) Classifications
D) Clustering
E) Forecasting
```
B) Sequences
168
```
MongoDB and SimpleDB are both examples of:
A) open source databases.
B) SQL databases.
C) NoSQL databases.
D) cloud databases.
E) .big data databases.
```
C) NoSQL databases.
169
A one-to-one relationship between two entities is symbolized in a diagram by a line that ends:
A) in two short marks.
B) in one short mark.
C) with a crow's foot.
D) with a crow's foot topped by a short mark.
E) with a crow’s foot topped by two short marks.
A) in two short marks.
170
```
Which of the following would you use to find patterns in user interaction data recorded by a web server?
A) Web usage mining
B) Web server mining
C) Web structure mining
D) Web content mining
E) Web protocol mining
```
A) Web usage mining
171
```
Which of the following is a device that acts as a connection point between computers and can filter and forward data to a specified destination?
A) Hub
B) Switch
C) Router
D) NIC
E) Modem
```
B) Switch
172
The Internet is based on which three key technologies?
A) TCP/IP, HTML, and HTTP
B) TCP/IP, HTTP, and packet switching
C) Client/server computing, packet switching, and the development of communications standards for linking networks and computers
D) Client/server computing, packet switching, and HTTP
E) E-mail, instant messaging, and newsgroups
C) Client/server computing, packet switching, and the development of communications standards for linking networks and computers
173
```
Which of the following involves slicing digital messages into parcels, transmitting them along different communication paths, and reassembling them at their destinations?
A) Multiplexing
B) Packet shifting
C) Packet routing
D) ATM.
E) Packet switching
```
E) Packet switching
174
```
The telephone system is an example of a ________ network.
A) peer-to-peer
B) wireless
C) packet-switched
D) circuit-switched
E) client/server
```
D) circuit-switched
175
Which of the following is not a characteristic of packet switching?
A) Packets travel independently of each other.
B) Packets are routed through many different paths.
C) Packet switching requires point-to-point circuits.
D) Packets include data for checking transmission errors.
E) Packets are reassembled into the original message when they reach their destinations.
C) Packet switching requires point-to-point circuits.
176
In TCP/IP, IP is responsible for which of the following?
A) Disassembling and reassembling packets during transmission
B) Establishing an Internet connection between two computers
C) Moving packets over the network
D) Sequencing the transfer of packets
E) Breaking messages down into packets
A) Disassembling and reassembling packets during transmission
177
Which of the following is the best description of a protocol in a telecommunications network architecture?
A) A device that handles the switching of voice and data in a local area network
B) A standard set of rules and procedures for control of communications in a network
C) A communications service for microcomputer users
D) The main computer in a telecommunications network
E) A pathway through which packets are routed
B) A standard set of rules and procedures for control of communications in a network
178
What are the four layers of the TCP/IP reference model?
A) Physical, application, transport, and network interface
B) Physical, application, Internet, and network interface
C) Application, transport, Internet, and network interface
D) Application, hardware, Internet, and network interface
E) Software, hardware, network interface, Internet
C) Application, transport, Internet, and network interface
179
```
On which of the following protocols is the Internet based?
A) TCP/IP
B) FTP
C) IMAP
D) HTTP
E) DNS
```
A) TCP/IP
180
```
A(n) ________ is a device that forwards packets of data through different networks, ensuring that the data gets to the right address.
A) modem
B) router
C) packet
D) telnet
E) hub
```
B) router
181
Computer networks are fundamentally different from telephone networks.
True
182
An NOS must reside on a dedicated server computer in order to manage a network.
False
183
A hub is a networking device that is used to filter and forward data to specified destinations on the network.
False
184
In a client/server network, a network server provides every connected client with an address so it can be found by others on the network.
True
185
A computer network consists of at least three computers.
False
186
Central large mainframe computing has largely replaced client/server computing.
False
187
Circuit switching makes much more efficient use of the communications capacity of a network than does packet switching.
False
188
Two computers using TCP/IP can communicate even if they are based on different hardware and software platforms.
True
189
More than 200 million Americans access the Internet via mobile devices.
True
190
In a large company today, you will often find an infrastructure that includes hundreds of small LANs linked to each other as well as to corporate-wide networks.
True
191
TCP/IP was developed in the developed during the early 1970s to support Uefforts to help scientists transmit data among different types of computers over long distances.
True
192
```
Which signal types are represented by a continuous waveform?
A) Laser
B) Optical
C) Digital
D) RFID
E) Analog
```
E) Analog
193
```
To use the analog telephone system for sending digital data, you must also use:
A) a modem.
B) a router.
C) DSL.
D) twisted wire.
E) TCP/IP.
```
A) a modem.
194
```
Which type of network is used to connect digital devices within a half-mile or 500-meter radius?
A) Wi-Fi
B) LAN
C) WAN
D) MAN
E) SAN
```
B) LAN
195
```
Which type of network treats all processors equally and allows peripheral devices to be shared without going to a separate server?
A) MAN
B) Wireless
C) LAN
D) Windows domain network
E) Peer-to-peer
```
E) Peer-to-peer
196
```
Which type of network would be most appropriate for a business comprised of three employees and a manager located in the same office space, whose primary need is to share documents?
A) MAN
B) Domain-based LAN
C) Peer-to-peer network
D) WAN
E) SAN
```
C) Peer-to-peer network
197
```
A network that spans a city, and sometimes its major suburbs, as well, is called a:
A) CAN.
B) MAN.
C) LAN.
D) WAN.
E) WSN.
```
B) MAN.
198
```
A network that covers entire geographical regions is most commonly referred to as a(n):
A) local area network.
B) intranet.
C) peer-to-peer network.
D) wide area network.
E) MAN.
```
D) wide area network.
199
Bandwidth is the:
A) number of frequencies that can be broadcast through a medium.
B) number of cycles per second that can be sent through a medium.
C) difference between the highest and lowest frequencies that can be accommodated on a single channel.
D) total number of bytes that can be sent through a medium per second.
E) geographical distance spanned by a network.
C) difference between the highest and lowest frequencies that can be accommodated on a single channel.
200
```
The total amount of digital information that can be transmitted through any telecommunications medium is measured in:
A) bps.
B) Hertz.
C) baud.
D) gigaflops.
E) RPMs.
```
A) bps.
201
```
A(n) ________ signal is a discrete, binary waveform that transmits data coded into two discrete states such as 1-bits and 0-bits.
A) modulated
B) broadband
C) T1
D) analog
E) digital
```
E) digital
202
Coaxial cable is similar to that used for cable television and consists of thickly insulated copper wire.
True
203
Fiber-optic cable is more expensive and harder to install than wire media.
True
204
The number of cycles per second that can be sent through any telecommunications medium is measured in kilobytes.
False
205
```
Which of the following is not one of the top five search engines?
A) Facebook
B) Yahoo
C) Microsoft Bing
D) Ask
E) Google
```
A) Facebook
206
Digital subscriber lines:
A) operate over existing telephone lines to carry voice, data, and video.
B) operate over coaxial cable lines to deliver Internet access.
C) are very-high-speed data lines typically leased from long-distance telephone companies.
D) have up to twenty-four 64-Kbps channels.
E) are assigned to every computer on the Internet.
A) operate over existing telephone lines to carry voice, data, and video.
207
T1 lines:
A) operate over existing telephone lines to carry voice, data, and video.
B) operate over coaxial lines to deliver Internet access.
C) do not provide guaranteed service levels, but simply "best effort."
D) have up to twenty-four 64-Kbps channels.
E) are high-speed, leased data lines providing guaranteed service levels.
E) are high-speed, leased data lines providing guaranteed service levels.
208
```
What service converts IP addresses into more recognizable alphanumeric names?
A) HTML
B) FTP
C) IP
D) HTTP
E) DNS
```
E) DNS
209
```
The child domain of the root is called the:
A) top-level domain.
B) second-level domain.
C) host name.
D) domain extension.
E) mid-tier domain.
```
A) top-level domain.
210
In the domain name "http://books.azimuth-interactive.com", which element is the second-level domain?
A) books
B) azimuth-interactive
C) com
D) none; there is no second-level domain in this name
E) books.azimuth-interactive
B) azimuth-interactive
211
```
Which organization helps define the overall structure of the Internet?
A) none (no one "owns" the Internet)
B) W3C
C) ICANN
D) The Department of Commerce (U.S.)
E) IAB
```
E) IAB
212
IPv6 has been developed in order to:
A) update the packet transmission protocols for higher bandwidth.
B) create more IP addresses.
C) allow for different levels of service.
D) support Internet2.
E) reduce excess IP addresses.
B) create more IP addresses.
213
Predictive search in Google's search engine:
A) maintains a history of your searches and then predicts what you will search on next.
B) uses a tracking service and cookies on your browser to predict search results.
C) uses a knowledge graph of what similar people searched on to predict your search interests.
D) uses a semantic approach to predict what you are looking for.
E) predicts what you are looking for as you enter words into the query box.
E) predicts what you are looking for as you enter words into the query box.
214
```
Instant messaging is a type of ________ service.
A) chat
B) cellular
C) e-mail
D) wireless
E) network
```
A) chat
215
```
________ integrate disparate channels for voice communications, data communications, instant messaging, e-mail, and electronic conferencing into a single experience.
A) Wireless networks
B) Intranets
C) Virtual private networks
D) Modems
E) Unified communications
```
E) Unified communications
216
A VPN:
A) is an encrypted private network configured within a public network.
B) is more expensive than a dedicated network.
C) provides secure, encrypted communications using Telnet.
D) is an Internet-based service for delivering voice communications.
E) is a proprietary networking service technology developed by individual corporations.
A) is an encrypted private network configured within a public network.
217
```
Web browser software requests web pages from the Internet using which of the following protocols?
A) URL
B) HTTP
C) DNS
D) HTML
E) FTP
```
B) HTTP
218
```
Together, a protocol prefix, a domain name, a directory path, and a document name, are called a(n):
A) uniform resource locator.
B) IP address.
C) third-level domain.
D) root domain.
E) child domain.
```
A) uniform resource locator.
219
```
The most common web server today is:
A) Microsoft IIS.
B) WebSTAR.
C) IBM HTTP Server.
D) Netscape Server.
E) Apache HTTP Server.
```
E) Apache HTTP Server.
220
```
Which of the following pulls content from websites and feeds it automatically to a user’s computers?
A) FTP
B) RSS
C) HTTP
D) Bluetooth
E) IPv6
```
B) RSS
221
```
Which of the following can be used to help a website achieve a higher ranking with the major search engines?
A) VPN.
B) IAB.
C) SEM.
D) SEO.
E) RSS.
```
D) SEO.
222
Which of the following statements is not true about search engines?
A) They are arguably the Internet's "killer app."
B) They have solved the problem of how users instantly find information on the Internet.
C) They are monetized almost exclusively by search engine marketing.
D) There are hundreds of search engines vying for user attention, with no clear leader having yet emerged.
E) Users are increasingly using search engines on mobile devices.
D) There are hundreds of search engines vying for user attention, with no clear leader having yet emerged.
223
```
Which process is used to protect transmitted data in a VPN?
A) Tunneling
B) PPP
C) VOIP
D) Packet-switching
E) Chaining
```
A) Tunneling
224
```
________ monetizes the value of the data stored by search engines.
A) TCP/IP
B) RSS
C) WiMax
D) IoT
E) SEM
```
E) SEM
225
```
Shopping bots use ________ software for searching the Internet.
A) Web 2.0
B) Web 3.0
C) intelligent agent
D) comparison
E) SEO
```
C) intelligent agent
226
```
Which of the following is not a defining feature of Web 2.0?
A) Interactivity
B) Real-time user control
C) Semantic search
D) Social participation (sharing)
E) User-generated content
```
C) Semantic search
227
```
A(n) ________ is a commercial organization with a permanent connection to the Internet that sells temporary connections to retail subscribers.
A) RSS
B) WAN
C) NFP
D) ISP
E) FTP
```
D) ISP
228
```
The backbone networks of the Internet are typically owned by long-distance telephone companies called:
A) regional network providers.
B) enhanced service providers.
C) internet bulk providers.
D) backbone providers.
E) network service providers.
```
E) network service providers.
229
```
A(n) ________ is software for locating and managing stored web pages.
A) web server
B) net server
C) router
D) modem
E) hub
```
web pages.
| A) web server
230
Wikis allow visitors to change or add to the original posted material.
True
231
The Domain Name System (DNS) converts domain names to IP addresses.
True
232
VoIP technology delivers voice information in digital form using packet switching.
True
233
Web 3.0 is an effort to add a layer of meaning to the existing web in order to reduce the amount of human involvement in searching for and processing web information.
True
234
Mobile search makes up at more than 50% of all Internet searches.
True
235
```
All of the following are physical components of an RFID system except:
A) bar codes.
B) antennas.
C) radio transmitters.
D) tags.
E) a stationary or handheld device.
```
A) bar codes.
236
```
Which digital cellular standard is used widely throughout the world except the United States?
A) GSM
B) CDMA
C) WLAN
D) LTD
E) 4G
```
A) GSM
237
```
The concept of a future web in which it is commonplace for everyday objects to be connected, controlled or monitored over the Internet is called:
A) the Internet of Things.
B) the Semantic Web.
C) Internet2.
D) a 3-D Web.
E) Web 2.0.
```
A) the Internet of Things.
238
Which of the following statements about RFID is not true?
A) RFIDs transmit only over a short range.
B) RFIDs use an antenna to transmit data.
C) Microchips embedded in RFIDs are used to store data.
D) RFIDs require line-of-sight contact to be read.
E) RFID tags and antennas come in a variety of shapes and sizes.
D) RFIDs require line-of-sight contact to be read.
239
```
Which of the following is the first generation of cellular systems suitable for watching videos?
A) 2G
B) 2.5G
C) 3G
D) 3.5G
E) 4G
```
E) 4G
240
```
4G networks use which of the following standards?
A) GSM and LTD
B) CDMA and PAN
C) LTE and LTD
D) T-Mobile and AT&T
E) LTE and WiMax
```
E) LTE and WiMax
241
```
The most appropriate wireless networking standard for creating PANs is:
A) I-mode.
B) IEEE 802.11b.
C) Wi-Fi.
D) Bluetooth.
E) RFID.
```
D) Bluetooth.
242
```
Bluetooth can be used to link up to ________ devices within a 10-meter area using low-power, radio-based communication.
A) two
B) five
C) eight
D) fifteen
E) twenty
```
C) eight
243
```
One or more access points positioned on a ceiling, wall, or other strategic spot in a public place to provide maximum wireless coverage for a specific area are referred to as:
A) touch points.
B) netcenters.
C) hot points.
D) wireless hubs.
E) hotspots.
```
E) hotspots.
244
```
The 802.11 set of standards is known as:
A) WLAN.
B) WSN.
C) Wi-Fi.
D) WiMax.
E) WAN.
```
C) Wi-Fi.
245
```
The WiMax standard can transmit up to a distance of approximately:
A) 30 meters.
B) 500 meters.
C) 30 miles.
D) 5 miles.
E) 70 miles.
```
C) 30 miles.
246
```
Based on your reading of the examples in the chapter, which of the following would be the best use of RFID for a business?
A) Logging transactions
B) Managing the supply chain
C) Lowering network costs
D) Enabling client communication
E) Improving employee engagement
```
B) Managing the supply chain
247
```
Macy’s Pick to the Last Unit system, described in the chapter-opening case, is an example of which of the following?
A) IoT application
B) IoP application
C) BLE application
D) GPS application
E) Web 3.0 application
```
A) IoT application
248
```
A(n) ________ is a box consisting of a radio receiver/transmitter and antennas that links to a wired network, router, or hub.
A) RFID receiver
B) WiMax receiver
C) access point
D) hub
E) hotspot
```
C) access point
249
RFID technology is being gradually replaced by less costly technologies such as WSNs.
False
250
e "Internet of Things" refers to a vision of a pervasive Web, in which common objects are connected to and controlled over the Internet.
True
251
Apple Pay uses an RFID-related technology called near field communication.
True
252
NFC tags are always passive.
False
253
Digital rights activists believe “zero-rating” practices violate net neutrality principles.
True
254
In addition to being an online retailer, Amazon is also a powerful search engine.
True
255
The emerging Internet of People is based on sensors attached to clothing and personal effects that monitor physical states and locations of individuals.
True
256
```
Which of the following refers to policies, procedures, and technical measures used to prevent unauthorized access, alteration, theft, or physical damage to information systems?
A) Security
B) Controls
C) Benchmarking
D) Algorithms
E) Identity management
```
A) Security
257
```
Which of the following refers to all of the methods, policies, and organizational procedures that ensure the safety of the organization's assets, the accuracy and reliability of its accounting records, and operational adherence to management standards?
A) Legacy systems
B) SSID standards
C) Vulnerabilities
D) Security policy
E) Controls
```
E) Controls
258
```
Most computer viruses deliver a:
A) worm.
B) Trojan horse.
C) driveby download.
D) keylogger.
E) payload.
```
E) payload.
259
Which of the following statements about wireless security is not true?
A) SSIDs are broadcast multiple times and can be picked up fairly easily by sniffer programs.
B) Radio frequency bands are easy to scan.
C) An intruder who has associated with an access point by using the correct SSID is capable of accessing other resources on the network,
D) Intruders can force a user’s NIC to associate with a rogue access point.
E) Bluetooth is the only wireless technology that is not susceptible to hacking by eavesdroppers.
E) Bluetooth is the only wireless technology that is not susceptible to hacking by eavesdroppers.
260
```
All of the following are specific security challenges that threaten the communications lines in a client/server environment except:
A) errors.
B) tapping.
C) theft and fraud.
D) radiation.
E) sniffing.
```
A) errors.
261
```
All of the following are specific security challenges that threaten corporate servers in a client/server environment except:
A) hacking.
B) malware.
C) denial-of-service attacks.
D) sniffing.
E) vandalism.
```
D) sniffing.
262
```
All of the following are specific security challenges that threaten corporate systems in a client/server environment except:
A) theft of data.
B) copying of data.
C) alteration of data.
D) radiation.
E) hardware failure.
```
D) radiation.
263
```
CryptoLocker is an example of which of the following?
A) Worm
B) SQL injection attack
C) Sniffer
D) Evil twin
E) Ransomware
```
E) Ransomware
264
Which of the following statements about the Internet security is not true?
A) The use of P2P networks can expose a corporate computer to outsiders.
B) A corporate network without access to the Internet is more secure than one that provides access.
C) VoIP is more secure than the switched voice network.
D) Instant messaging can provide hackers access to an otherwise secure network.
E) Smartphones have the same security weaknesses as other Internet devices.
C) VoIP is more secure than the switched voice network
265
A Trojan horse:
A) is software that appears to be benign but does something other than expected.
B) is a virus that replicates quickly.
C) is malware named for a breed of fast-moving Near-Eastern horses.
D) installs spyware on users' computers.
E) is a type of sniffer used to infiltrate corporate networks.
A) is software that appears to be benign but does something other than expected.
266
```
A salesperson clicks repeatedly on the online ads of a competitor's in order to drive the competitor's advertising costs up. This is an example of:
A) phishing.
B) pharming.
C) spoofing.
D) evil twins.
E) click fraud.
```
E) click fraud.
267
```
Which of the following is a virus that uses flaws in Windows software to take over a computer remotely?
A) Sasser
B) Zeus
C) Cryptolocker
D) ILOVEYOU
E) Conficker
```
E) Conficker
268
```
________ is malware that hijacks a user's computer and demands payment in return for giving back access.
A) A Trojan horse
B) Ransomware
C) Spyware
D) A virus
E) An evil twin
```
B) Ransomware
269
```
________ is malware that logs and transmits everything a user types.
A) Spyware
B) A Trojan horse
C) A keylogger
D) A worm
E) A sniffer
```
C) A keylogger
270
Which of the following statements about botnets is not true?
A) Eighty percent of the world’s malware is delivered by botnets..
B) Botnets are often used to perpetrate DDoS attacks.
C) Ninety percent of the world’s spam is delivered by botnets.
D) Botnets are often used for click fraud.
E) It is not possible to make a smartphone part of a botnet.
E) It is not possible to make a smartphone part of a botnet.
271
```
Using numerous computers to inundate and overwhelm the network from numerous launch points is called a(n) ________ attack.
A) DDoS
B) DoS
C) SQL injection
D) phishing
E) botnet
```
A) DDoS
272
Which of the following is not an example of a computer used as a target of crime?
A) Knowingly accessing a protected computer to commit fraud
B) Accessing a computer system without authority
C) Illegally accessing stored electronic communication
D) Threatening to cause damage to a protected computer
E) Breaching the confidentiality of protected computerized data
C) Illegally accessing stored electronic communication
273
Which of the following is not an example of a computer used as an instrument of crime?
A) Theft of trade secrets
B) Intentionally attempting to intercept electronic communication
C) Unauthorized copying of software
D) Breaching the confidentiality of protected computerized data
E) Schemes to defraud
D) Breaching the confidentiality of protected computerized data
274
Which of the following specifically makes malware distribution and hacker attacks to disable websites a federal crime?
A) Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
B) Economic Espionage Act
C) Electronic Communications Privacy Act
D) Data Security and Breach Notification Act
E) National Information Infrastructure Protection Act
E) National Information Infrastructure Protection Act
275
```
The intentional defacement or destruction of a website is called:
A) spoofing.
B) cybervandalism.
C) cyberwarfare.
D) phishing.
E) pharming.
```
B) cybervandalism.
276
Evil twins are:
A) Trojan horses that appears to the user to be a legitimate commercial software application.
B) e-mail messages that mimic the e-mail messages of a legitimate business.
C) fraudulent websites that mimic a legitimate business's website.
D) computers that fraudulently access a website or network using the IP address and identification of an authorized computer.
E) bogus wireless network access points that look legitimate to users.
E) bogus wireless network access points that look legitimate to users.
277
Pharming involves:
A) redirecting users to a fraudulent website even when the user has typed in the correct address in the web browser.
B) pretending to be a legitimate business's representative in order to garner information about a security system.
C) setting up fake website to ask users for confidential information.
D) using e-mails for threats or harassment.
E) setting up fake Wi-Fi access points that look as if they are legitimate public networks
A) redirecting users to a fraudulent website even when the user has typed in the correct address in the web browser.
278
```
hich of the following is the single greatest cause of network security breaches?
A) Viruses
B) User lack of knowledge
C) Trojan horses
D) Cyberwarfare
E) Bugs
```
B) User lack of knowledge
279
```
Tricking employees into revealing their passwords by pretending to be a legitimate member of a company is called:
A) sniffing.
B) social engineering.
C) phishing.
D) pharming.
E) snooping
```
B) social engineering.
280
```
According to Ponemon Institute’s 2015 Annual Cost of Cyber Crime Study, the average annualized cost of cybercrime for companies in the United States was approximately:
A) $1.5 million.
B) $15 million.
C) $150 million.
D) $1.5 billion.
E) $15 billion.
```
B) $15 million.
281
```
Which of the following refers to eavesdroppers driving by buildings or parking outside and trying to intercept wireless network traffic?
A) War driving
B) Sniffing
C) Cybervandalism
D) Drive-by tapping
E) Snooping
```
A) War driving
282
```
________ is a crime in which an imposter obtains key pieces of personal information to impersonate someone else.
A) Identity theft
B) Spoofing
C) Social engineering
D) Evil twins
E) Pharming
```
A) Identity theft
283
```
________ identify the access points in a Wi-Fi network.
A) NICs
B) Mac addresses
C) URLs
D) UTMs
E) SSIDs
```
E) SSIDs
284
```
A foreign country attempting to access government networks in order to disable a national power grid is an example of:
A) phishing.
B) denial-of-service attacks.
C) cyberwarfare.
D) cyberterrorism.
E) evil twins.
```
C) cyberwarfare
285
Smartphones have the same security flaws as other Internet-connected devices.
True
286
The Apple iOS platform is mobile platform most frequently targeted by hackers
False
287
Viruses can be spread through e-mail.
True
288
The term cracker is used to identify a hacker whose specialty is breaking open security systems.
False
289
Wireless networks are more difficult for hackers to gain access too because radio frequency bands are difficult to scan.
False
290
A computer virus replicates more quickly than a computer worm
False
291
One form of spoofing involves forging the return address on an e-mail so that the e-mail message appears to come from someone other than the sender.
True
292
Sniffers enable hackers to steal proprietary information from anywhere on a network, including e-mail messages, company files, and confidential reports.
True
293
DoS attacks are used to destroy information and access restricted areas of a company's information system.
False
294
Zero defects cannot be achieved in larger software programs because fully testing programs that contain thousands of choices and millions of paths would require thousands of years.
True
295
Most IoT devices support sophisticated security approaches
False
296
Malicious software programs referred to as spyware include a variety of threats such as computer viruses, worms, and Trojan horses.
False
297
The HIPAA Act of 1996:
A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.
B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control.
C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.
D) outlines medical security and privacy rules.
E) identifies computer abuse as a crime and defines abusive activities.
D) outlines medical security and privacy rules.
298
The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act:
A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.
B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control.
C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.
D) outlines medical security and privacy rules.
E) identifies computer abuse as a crime and defines abusive activities.
A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.
299
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act:
A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.
B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control.
C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.
D) outlines medical security and privacy rules.
E) identifies computer abuse as a crime and defines abusive activities.
C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.
300
```
Which of the following is the most common type of electronic evidence?
A) Voice-mail
B) Spreadsheets
C) Instant messages
D) E-mail
E) VOIP data
```
D) E-mail
301
Which of the following is a type of ambient data?
A) Computer log containing recent system errors
B) A file deleted from a hard disk
C) A file that contains an application's user settings
D) A set of raw data from an environmental sensor
E) Data that has been recorded over
B) A file deleted from a hard disk
302
Computer forensics tasks include all of the following except:
A) presenting collected evidence in a court of law.
B) securely storing recovered electronic data.
C) collecting physical evidence on the computer.
D) finding significant information in a large volume of electronic data.
C) collecting physical evidence on the computer.
303
```
Your company, an online discount pet supply store, has calculated that a loss of Internet connectivity for 3 hours results in a potential loss of $2,000 to $3,000 and that there is a 50% chance of this occurring each year. What is the annual expected loss from this exposure?
A) $500
B) $1,000
C) $1,250
D) $1,500
E) $2,500
```
C) $1,250
304
Application controls:
A) can be classified as input controls, processing controls, and output controls.
B) govern the design, security, and use of computer programs and the security of data files in general throughout the organization.
C) apply to all computerized applications and consist of a combination of hardware, software, and manual procedures that create an overall control environment.
D) include software controls, computer operations controls, and implementation controls.
E) monitor the use of system software and prevent unauthorized access to software and programs.
A) can be classified as input controls, processing controls, and output controls.
305
```
________ controls ensure that valuable business data files on either disk or tape are not subject to unauthorized access, change, or destruction while they are in use or in storage.
A) Software
B) Administrative
C) Data security
D) Implementation
E) Input
```
C) Data security
306
```
An analysis of an information system that rates the likelihood of a security incident occurring and its cost would be included in which of the following?
A) Security policy
B) AUP
C) Risk assessment
D) Business impact analysis
E) Business continuity plan
```
C) Risk assessment
307
```
A statements ranking information risks and identifying security goals would be included in which of the following?
A) Security policy
B) AUP
C) Risk assessment
D) Business impact analysis
E) Business continuity plan
```
A) Security policy
308
An acceptable use policy defines the acceptable level of access to information assets for different users.
False
309
```
Which of the following specifications replaced WEP with a stronger security standard that features changing encryption keys?
A) TLS
B) AUP
C) VPN
D) WPA2
E) UTM
```
D) WPA2
310
Which of the following statements about passwords is not true?
A) Authentication cannot be established by the use of a password
B) Password systems that are too rigorous may hinder employee productivity.
C) Passwords can be stolen through social engineering.
D) Passwords are often disregarded by employees.
E) Passwords can be sniffed when being transmitted over a network.
A) Authentication cannot be established by the use of a password
311
An authentication token is a(n):
A) device the size of a credit card that contains access permission data.
B) type of smart card.
C) gadget that displays passcodes.
D) electronic marker attached to a digital authorization file.
C) gadget that displays passcodes.
312
```
All of the following are currently being used as traits that can be profiled by biometric authentication except:
A) fingerprints.
B) facial characteristics.
C) body odor.
D) retinal images.
E) voice.
```
C) body odor.
313
A firewall allows the organization to:
A) enforce a security policy on data exchanged between its network and the Internet.
B) check the accuracy of all transactions between its network and the Internet.
C) create an enterprise system on the Internet.
D) check the content of all incoming and outgoing e-mail messages.
E) create access rules for a network.
A) enforce a security policy on data exchanged between its network and the Internet.
314
________ use scanning software to look for known problems such as bad passwords, the removal of important files, security attacks in progress, and system administration errors.
A) Stateful inspections
B) Intrusion detection systems
C) Application proxy filtering technologies
D) Packet filtering technologies
E) Firewalls
B) Intrusion detection systems
315
```
Currently, the protocols used for secure information transfer over the Internet are:
A) TCP/IP and SSL.
B) S-HTTP and CA.
C) HTTP and TCP/IP.
D) S-HTTP and SHTML.
E) SSL, TLS, and S-HTTP.
```
E) SSL, TLS, and S-HTTP.
316
```
According to the 2016 Identity Fraud Study by Javelin Strategy & Research, how much did consumers lose to identity fraud in 2015?
A) $1.5 million
B) $15 million
C) $150 million
D) $1.5 billion
E) $15 billion
```
E) $15 billion
317
```
In which method of encryption is a single encryption key sent to the receiver so both sender and receiver share the same key?
A) SSL/TLS
B) Symmetric key encryption
C) Public key encryption
D) Private key encryption
E) Distributed encryption
```
B) Symmetric key encryption
318
A digital certificate system:
A) uses third-party CAs to validate a user's identity.
B) uses digital signatures to validate a user's identity.
C) uses tokens to validate a user's identity.
D) is used primarily by individuals for personal correspondence.
E) protects a user's identity by substituting a certificate in place of identifiable traits.
A) uses third-party CAs to validate a user's identity.
319
```
All of the following are types of information systems general controls except:
A) application controls.
B) computer operations controls.
C) physical hardware controls.
D) software controls.
E) administrative controls
```
A) application controls.
320
```
For 100-percent availability, online transaction processing requires:
A) high-capacity storage.
B) a multi-tier server network.
C) fault-tolerant computer systems.
D) dedicated phone lines.
E) a digital certificate system.
```
C) fault-tolerant computer systems.
321
```
In controlling network traffic to minimize slow-downs, a technology called ________ is used to examine data files and sort low-priority data from high-priority data.
A) high availability computing
B) deep-packet inspection
C) application proxy filtering
D) stateful inspection
E) unified threat management
```
B) deep-packet inspection
322
```
An authentication system in which a user must provide two types of identification, such as a bank card and PIN, is called:
A) smart card authentication.
B) biometric authentication.
C) two-factor authentication.
D) symmetric key authorization.
E) token authentication.
```
C) two-factor authentication.
323
```
Which of the following provides additional security by determining whether packets are part of an ongoing dialogue between a sender and receiver?
A) NAT
B) Packet filtering
C) Deep packet inspection
D) Stateful inspection
E) Application proxy filtering
```
D) Stateful inspection
324
```
Comprehensive security management products, with tools for firewalls, VPNs, intrusion detection systems, and more, are called ________ systems.
A) DPI
B) MSSP
C) NSP
D) PKI
E) UTM
```
E) UTM
325
Organizations can use existing network security software to secure mobile devices
False
326
The dispersed nature of cloud computing makes it difficult to track unauthorized access.
True
327
Biometric authentication is the use of personal, biographic details such as the high school you attended and the first street you lived on to provide identification.
False
328
Packet filtering catches most types of network attacks.
False
329
NAT conceals the IP addresses of the organization's internal host computers to deter sniffer programs
True
330
SSL is a protocol used to establish a secure connection between two computers.
True
331
Public key encryption uses two keys.
True
332
Smartphones typically feature state-of-the-art encryption and security features, making them highly secure tools for businesses.
False
333
Authentication refers to verifying that a person is who he or she claims to be.
True
334
You can test software before it is even written by conducting a walkthrough.
True
335
When errors are discovered in software programs, the sources of the errors are found and eliminated through a process called debugging.
True
336
All of the following have contributed to an increase in software flaws except:
A) the growing complexity of software programs.
B) the growing size of software programs.
C) demands for timely delivery to markets,
D) the inability to fully test programs.
E) the increase in malicious intruders seeking system access.
E) the increase in malicious intruders seeking system access.
337
```
Which of the following defines acceptable uses of a firm’s information resources and computing equipment?
A) An information systems audit policy
B) A CA policy
C) A MSSP
D) A UTM system
E) An AUP
```
E) An AUP
338
```
Which of the following focuses primarily on the technical issues of keeping systems up and running?
A) Business continuity planning
B) Security policies
C) Disaster recovery planning
D) An AUP
E) An information systems audit
```
C) Disaster recovery planning
339
```
Which of the following is an example of a keylogger?
A) Zeus
B) Conficker
C) Sasser
D) ILOVEYOU
E) Cryptolocker
```
A) Zeus
340
Target has had to pay out over $100 million to U.S. banks, credit card companies and consumers as a result of a data breach in 2013.
True
341
Which of the following statements best describes the business value of improved decision making?
A) Improved decision making creates better products.
B) Improved decision making results in a large monetary value for the firm as numerous small daily decisions affecting efficiency, production, costs, and more add up to large annual values.
C) Improved decision making enables senior executives to more accurately foresee future financial trends.
D) Improved decision making strengthens customer and supplier intimacy, which reduces costs.
E) Improved decision making creates a better organizational culture.
B) Improved decision making results in a large monetary value for the firm as numerous small daily decisions affecting efficiency, production, costs, and more add up to large annual values.
342
```
When there is no well-understood or agreed-on procedure for making a decision, it is said to be:
A) undocumented.
B) unstructured.
C) documented.
D) semi-structured.
E) ad-hoc.
```
B) unstructured.
343
```
If you can follow a definite procedure to make a business decision, you are making a(n) ________ decision.
A) ad-hoc
B) procedural
C) unstructured
D) semistructured
E) structured
```
E) structured
344
```
Which type of decision is calculating gross pay for hourly workers?
A) Semi-structured
B) Procedural
C) Structured
D) Unstructured
E) Ad hoc
```
C) Structured
345
```
Which type of decision is deciding whether to introduce a new product line?
A) Structured
B) Unstructured
C) Recurring
D) Nonrecurring
E) Procedural
```
B) Unstructured
346
```
The decision to approve a capital budget is an example of a(n) ________ decision.
A) structured
B) ad hoc
C) semi-structured
D) undocumented
E) unstructured
```
E) unstructured
347
```
The decisions involved in creating and producing a corporate intranet can be classified as ________ decisions.
A) semistructured
B) procedural
C) ad hoc
D) structured
E) unstructured
```
A) semistructured
348
```
Checking store inventory is an example of a(n) ________ decision.
A) procedural
B) structured
C) ad hoc
D) unstructured
E) semi-structured
```
B) structured
349
```
The ________ phase of decision making finds or recognizes a problem, need, or opportunity.
A) choice
B) design
C) implementation
D) analysis
E) intelligence
```
E) intelligence
350
```
Which of the following is not one of the Simon's four stages of decision making?
A) Implementation
B) Intelligence
C) Analysis
D) Choice
E) Design
```
C) Analysis
351
Which of the following is not one of the five observed ways in which managerial behavior differs from the classical description of managers?
A) Managers perform a great deal of work at an unrelenting pace.
B) Managers perform a low number of activities for a high percentage of time.
C) Managers prefer current, specific, ad-hoc information.
D) Managers prefer oral forms of communication.
E) Managers give high priority to maintaining a diverse web of contacts.
B) Managers perform a low number of activities for a high percentage of time.
352
```
The role of liaison falls into which of Mintzberg's managerial classifications?
A) Decisional
B) Informational
C) Interpersonal
D) Symbolic
E) Leading
```
C) Interpersonal
353
Mintzberg outlined three categories of managerial roles:
A) interpersonal, informational, and decisional.
B) control, leadership, oversight.
C) operational, management, and executive.
D) cultural, organizational, and technical.
E) middle management, senior management, executive
A) interpersonal, informational, and decisional.
354
```
The role of entrepreneur falls into which of Mintzberg's managerial classifications?
A) Decisional
B) Informational
C) Interpersonal
D) Symbolic
E) Leading
```
A) Decisional
355
```
According to Mintzberg, managers in their informational role act as:
A) figureheads for the organization.
B) leaders.
C) nerve centers of the organization.
D) negotiators.
E) liaisons.
```
C) nerve centers of the organization.
356
```
Which of the following systems support a manager's role as leader of an organization?
A) DSS
B) Telepresence systems
C) E-mail
D) MIS
E) ESS
```
B) Telepresence systems
357
```
All of the following managerial roles can be supported by information systems except:
A) liaison.
B) resource allocator.
C) nerve center
D) disseminator.
E) negotiator.
```
E) negotiator.
358
```
When managers represent their company in the outside world and perform symbolic duties, they are acting in their:
A) decisional role.
B) managerial role.
C) informational role.
D) interpersonal role.
E) leadership role.
```
D) interpersonal role.
359
As discussed in the chapter text, the three main reasons that investments in information technology do not always produce positive results are:
A) management support, technical logistics, and user compliance.
B) organization, environment, culture.
C) information quality, information integrity, and information accuracy.
D) information quality, organizational culture, and management filters.
E) organization, culture, and technology.
D) information quality, organizational culture, and management filters.
360
```
The concept of management ________ describes situations in which managers act on preconceived notions that reject information that does not conform to their prior conceptions.
A) filters
B) backgrounds
C) biases
D) inefficiency
E) politics
```
A) filters
361
```
Which quality dimension of information is concerned that the data values of an information source fall within a defined range?
A) Timeliness
B) Consistency
C) Completeness
D) Accessibility
E) Validity
```
E) Validity
362
```
The dimension of ________ describes whether data elements are consistently defined.
A) completeness
B) accuracy
C) validity
D) consistency
E) integrity
```
D) consistency
363
```
High-velocity decision making systems are growing rapidly for decisions classed as:
A) semistructured.
B) financial.
C) ad hoc.
D) predefined.
E) highly structured.
```
E) highly structured.
364
Which of the following describes how the Simon framework of decision-making works in high-velocity decision environments?
A) Only the initial step is performed by the software; the final three steps are handled by humans.
B) The first two steps of Simon's framework are eliminated and the final two steps are handled by software algorithms.
C) The first three steps of the process are handled by software algorithms and the final step is handled by experienced managers.
D) All four steps are performed by humans with the support of high-speed, high-volume DSS and ESS.
E) All four steps of the process are handled by software algorithms; humans are eliminated from the decisions because they are too slow.
E) All four steps of the process are handled by software algorithms; humans are eliminated from the decisions because they are too slow.
365
A drawback to high-velocity, automated decision-making systems is that they are unable to:
A) handle high volumes of decisions.
B) handle structured decisions.
C) handle semi structured decisions.
D) control themselves and respond to new environments.
E) be applied to situations outside of the financial world.
D) control themselves and respond to new environments
366
Improving the quality of high-value decision making by an executive will save an organization far more money than improving the quality of lesser-value decisions made at a lower level.
False
367
A structured decision cannot be made by following a well-defined set of procedures. "Feel" or intuition is necessary.
False
368
Middle management face primarily semi-structured decisions.
True
369
Structured decision making is most prevalent at lower organizational levels.
True
370
The design phase of decision making consists of discovering, identifying, and understanding the problems occurring in the organization.
False
371
The choice phase of Simon's decision-making model includes choosing among solution alternatives.
True
372
The first stage in Simon's decision-making process model is the design stage.
False
373
The classical model of management does not address what exactly managers do when they plan, decide things, and control the work of others.
True
374
A structured decision is repetitive and routine, for which known procedures provide solutions.
True
375
The third stage in Simon's description of decision making is implementation.
False
376
```
Behavioral models of management see managers as being ________ than does the classical model.
A) more systematic
B) more informal
C) more reflective
D) more well organized
E) less reactive
```
B) more informal
377
```
Which of the following is not one of the five classical functions of managers?
A) Leading
B) Deciding
C) Planning
D) Organizing
E) Controlling
```
A) Leading
378
```
Which of the following BI tools or abilities has been driving the movement toward "smart cities?"
A) OLAP
B) Chi-square analysis
C) Predictive analytics
D) Data mining
E) Big data analytics
```
E) Big data analytics
379
```
The dimension of ________ in information quality describes whether the structure of data is consistent.
A) integrity
B) accuracy
C) timeliness
D) completeness
E) consistency
```
A) integrity
380
Which of the following statements best describes the term business intelligence?
A) Software developed exclusively for business management
B) The tools and techniques used to analyze and understand business data
C) The infrastructure for collecting and managing business data
D) Information systems involved in business decision making
E) Enterprise systems used to make business decisions
A) Software developed exclusively for business management
381
```
Decisions regarding managing and monitoring day-to-day business activities are referred to as ________ intelligence.
A) business
B) analytical
C) operational
D) transactional
E) production
```
C) operational
382
```
Which of the following companies is not identified in the text as one of the leading producers of business intelligence and analytics products?
A) Google
B) Microsoft
C) SAP
D) IBM
E) SAS
```
A) Google
383
```
Which of the following is not one of the six main elements in the business intelligence environment discussed in this chapter?
A) Managerial users and methods
B) Organizational environment
C) User interface
D) Data from the business environment
E) Platform
```
B) Organizational environment
384
```
Which of the following is not one of the six main analytic functionalities of BI systems for helping decision makers understand information and take action?
A) Production reports
B) Parameterized reports
C) Business case archives
D) Forecasts, scenarios, and models
E) Drill down
```
C) Business case archives
385
```
________ are visual tools for presenting performance data in a BI system.
A) Dashboards and scorecards
B) Parameterized reports
C) Reports and the drill-down feature
D) Scenarios and models
E) Ad hoc report creation
```
A) Dashboards and scorecards
386
```
Which of the following are most likely to rely primarily on the drill-down functionality of BI for their decision-making needs?
A) IT developers
B) Middle managers
C) Operational employees
D) Business analysts
E) Senior executives
```
B) Middle managers
387
```
A(n)________ report is produced when a user enters various values in a pivot table to filter data.
A) drill-down
B) SQL
C) ad hoc
D) production
E) parameterized
```
E) parameterized
388
```
A(n) ________ is a BI feature that presents performance data defined by users.
A) ad hoc query
B) parameterized report
C) interface
D) portal
E) dashboard
```
E) dashboard
389
```
BI that is designed to determine the most likely effects of changes in the business environment is called:
A) statistical modeling.
B) environmental analytics.
C) predictive analytics.
D) big data analytics.
E) parameterized reports.
```
C) predictive analytics.
390
```
Which of the following are most likely to rely primarily on production reports for their decision-making needs?
A) Operational supervisors
B) Senior managers
C) Analytic modelers
D) Business analysts
E) Executives
```
A) Operational supervisors
391
```
Which type of information system uses data visualization technology to analyze and display data for planning and decision making in the form of digitized maps?
A) GIS
B) DSS
C) Location analytics
D) Executive support systems
E) GDSS
```
A) GIS
392
Predictive analytics is used for all of the following except:
A) anticipating customer response to price changes.
B) identifying the most profitable customers.
C) determining the best routes for product delivery.
D) establishing consumer credit scores.
E) forecasting driver safety.
C) determining the best routes for product delivery.
393
```
Which of the following is not an example of a BI predefined production report?
A) Workforce demographics
B) Order cycle time
C) Revenue forecasts
D) Supplier performance
E) Direct and indirect spending
```
C) Revenue forecasts
394
You can use location analytics to determine how best to route your deliveries of products to retail outlets.
True
395
A GIS is a DSS designed specifically to work with spatial information.
True
396
Big data is too unwieldy to analyze for consumer preferences.
False
397
Data visualization technologies are used to help human users see patterns and relationships in large amounts of data.
True
398
MIS typically produce:
A) new ways of looking at data that emphasize change, flexibility, and rapid response.
B) fixed, regularly scheduled reports based on data extracted from the organization's TPS.
C) solutions to semi-structured problems appropriate for middle management decision making.
D) assumptions, responses to ad-hoc queries, and graphic representations of existing data.
E) scorecards of overall firm performance along predefined key indicators.
B) fixed, regularly scheduled reports based on data extracted from the organization's TPS.
399
```
An information system for a building company that tracks construction costs for various projects across the United States would be categorized as a type of:
A) BPM.
B) MIS.
C) KPI.
D) GSS.
E) GDSS.
```
B) MIS.
400
A pivot table is a(n):
A) spreadsheet tool that displays two or more dimensions of data in a convenient format.
B) type of relational database.
C) chart tool that can rotate columnar data quickly and visually.
D) tool for performing sensitivity analysis.
E) integral data visualization tool used in digital dashboards and scorecards.
A) spreadsheet tool that displays two or more dimensions of data in a convenient format.
401
```
An information system that combines data from internal TPS with information from financial systems and external sources to deliver reports such as profit-loss statements and impact analyses, is an example of:
A) DSS.
B) ESS.
C) CDSS.
D) MIS.
E) GIS.
```
B) ESS.
402
```
The leading methodology for understanding the really important information needed by a firm's executives is called the ________ method.
A) digital dashboard
B) balanced scorecard
C) KPI
D) data visualization
E) predictive analytics
```
B) balanced scorecard
403
```
Which of the following types of systems would be used to present senior marketing executives with in-depth information about customer retention, satisfaction, and quality performance?
A) CDSS
B) MIS
C) DSS
D) TPS
E) ESS
```
E) ESS
404
```
Measures defined by management and used to internally evaluate the success of a firm's financial, business process, customer, and learning and growth are called:
A) benchmarks.
B) KPIs.
C) the balanced scorecard method.
D) BPM.
E) parameters.
```
B) KPIs.
405
```
A(n) ________ facilitates the solution to unstructured problems by a set of decision makers working together as a group.
A) DSS
B) ESS
C) CDSS
D) GIS
E) GDSS
```
E) GDSS
406
```
The management methodology of using a firm's strategy to generate operational targets for the business and measuring progress towards them using the firm's enterprise systems is called:
A) benchmarks.
B) KPIs.
C) the balanced scorecard method.
D) BPM.
E) business intelligence.
```
D) BPM.
407
ESS:
A) support the structured decision making of senior executives.
B) have the ability to drill down into lower levels of detail.
C) easily integrate data from different systems.
D) are primarily driven by information derived from a company's transaction processing systems.
E) enable operational managers to create parameterized reports.
B) have the ability to drill down into lower levels of detail.
408
A well-designed ESS will allow management to:
A) create routine production reports as well as view overall business performance.
B) facilitate group decision making.
C) create pivot charts.
D) analyze big data.
E) track the activities of competitors.
E) track the activities of competitors.
409
GDSS:
A) are designed to allow meeting attendees to share their thoughts in real-time with their peers.
B) support decisions that require knowledge about the geographic distribution of resources.
C) are only used with geographically dispersed attendees.
D) facilitate the solution of unstructured problems.
E) provide tools that allow managers to visualize data.
D) facilitate the solution of unstructured problems.
410
GDSS capabilities have improved along with all of the following except:
A) Improved power of desktop PCs
B) Explosion of mobile computing
C) Growth of cellular networks
D) Increase in dedicated conference rooms
E) Expansion of Wi-Fi bandwidth
D) Increase in dedicated conference rooms
411
```
GDSS such as Cisco Collaboration Meeting Rooms Hybrid can handle up to:
A) 5 participants.
B) 50 participants.
C) 500 participants.
D) 1000 participants.
E) 5000 participants.
```
C) 500 participants.
412
DSS primarily address structured problems.
False
413
MIS typically produce fixed, regularly scheduled reports based on data extracted and summarized from the firm's underlying transaction processing systems.
True
414
DSS are a special category of location analytics.
False
415
What-if analysis works forward from known or assumed conditions.
True
416
Sensitivity analysis predicts outcomes from constant inputs.
False
417
GDSS facilitate the solution of unstructured problems by a set of decision makers working together as a group in either the same location or different locations.
True
418
GDSS requires a dedicated conference room with special hardware and software tools.
False
419
GDSS are designed to display data in the form of digitized maps.
False
420
KPI analysis is the leading methodology for understanding the most important information needed by a firm's executives.
False
421
Experts from a variety of fields have found that managers are poor at assessing risk.
True
422
GIS are useful for businesses, but not as much for state and local governments.
False
423
The four kinds of structural organizational change enabled by IT, in order from least to most risky, are:
A) rationalization, automation, reengineering, and redesigning.
B) rationalization, automation, reengineering, and paradigm shift.
C) automation, rationalization, redesigning, and paradigm shift.
D) automation, redesigning, restructuring, and paradigm shift.
E) paradigm shift, reengineering, rationalization, and automation.
C) automation, rationalization, redesigning, and paradigm shift.
424
In automation:
A) more manual steps are required.
B) business processes are reorganized to cut waste and eliminate repetitive, paper-intensive tasks.
C) the nature of the business is rethought.
D) employees are enabled to perform their tasks more efficiently.
E) business processes are added.
D) employees are enabled to perform their tasks more efficiently.
425
```
Which of the following is more powerful that rationalization of procedures?
A) Business process redesign
B) TQM
C) Automation
D) Six sigma
E) Systems analysis and design
```
A) Business process redesign
426
```
A bank has reworked its mortgage application process so that several steps are handled by computer software, and some steps are combined to reduce bottlenecks in processing. The goal is to gradually improve its efficiency over time. This is an example of:
A) automation.
B) rationalization of procedures.
C) paradigm shift.
D) TQM.
E) six sigma.
```
B) rationalization of procedures.
427
```
An upscale organic foods grocery chain is implementing an information system that will enable it to add same-day home delivery of groceries to its customers. This is an example of:
A) automation.
B) rationalization of procedures.
C) paradigm shift.
D) business process redesign.
E) organizational change.
```
C) paradigm shift.
428
```
The idea that the achievement of quality control is an end in itself describes a main concept of:
A) BPM.
B) BPR.
C) six sigma.
D) TQM.
E) systems analysis and design
```
D) TQM.
429
```
________ provide(s) a methodology and tools for dealing with the organization's ongoing need to revise and optimize its numerous business processes.
A) Business process redesign
B) Business process management
C) CASE tools
D) TQM
E) Systems analysis and design
```
B) Business process management
430
In order, what are the first three steps in BPM?
A) 1. identifying processes for change, 2. analyzing existing processes, 3. designing the new process.
B) 1. analyzing existing processes, 2. identifying processes for change, 3. designing the new process.
C) 1. identifying processes for change, 2. designing the new process, 3. implementing the new process.
D) 1. analyzing processes to change, 2. designing the new process, 3. measuring the optimized process.
E) 1. designing new processes, 2. analyzing existing processes, 3. identifying processes for change.
A) 1. identifying processes for change, 2. analyzing existing processes, 3. designing the new process.
431
What is the greatest barrier to successful business process change?
A) Ineffective project management
B) Usability of implemented solution
C) Selecting the correct process to change
D) Organizational change
E) Poor choice of technology
D) Organizational change
432
Possible functions of BPM tools include all of the following except:
A) integrating existing systems to support business processes' improvements.
B) automating business processes.
C) identifying and document business processes.
D) testing the security of business processes.
E) designing new processes.
D) testing the security of business processes.
433
BPM software provides tools that help business do all of the following except:
A) identify and document processes requiring improvement
B) create models of improved processes
C) capture and enforce business rules for performing processes
D) capture and identify information system requirements for a new system
E) integrate existing systems to support new or redesigned processes
D) capture and identify information system requirements for a new system
434
End user development:
A) allows end users to create highly complex information systems.
B) increases the time and steps required to produce a finished application when compared to professional development.
C) allows ends users to develop simple information systems.
D) requires more time to develop systems.
E) requires formal assistance from technical specialists.
C) allows ends users to develop simple information systems.
435
```
A(n) ________ is an organizational change that involves rethinking the nature of the business and the nature of the organization itself.
A) automation program
B) rationalization program
C) systems analysis
D) paradigm shift
E) business process redesign program
```
D) paradigm shift
436
The most common form of IT-enabled organizational change is automation.
True
437
Rationalization of procedures describes a radical rethinking of the business models
False
438
Organizations will adjust to new information systems without any special efforts if the system is a good system to begin with.
False
439
Six sigma describes the measurement of quality as 3.4 defects per million.
True
440
```
Which conversion process introduces the system first to a limited portion of the organization?
A) Pilot study strategy
B) Phased approach strategy
C) Limited cutover strategy
D) Parallel strategy
E) Parallel approach strategy
```
A) Pilot study strategy
441
```
Which process develops a detailed description of the functions that a new information system must perform?
A) Feasibility study
B) Requirements analysis
C) Systems design
D) Test plan development
E) Management plan
```
B) Requirements analysis
442
Systems design:
A) determines whether a solution is feasible from a financial and organizational standpoint.
B) shows how the new system will fulfill the information requirements.
C) identifies which users need what information, where, when and how.
D) is concerned with the logical view of the system solution.
E) .translates system specifications into software program code.
B) shows how the new system will fulfill the information requirements.
443
```
Transferring data from a legacy system to the new system would be defined by which category of system design specifications?
A) Input
B) Database
C) Manual procedures
D) Conversion
E) Implementation
```
D) Conversion
444
Unit testing:
A) includes all the preparations for the series of tests to be performed on the system.
B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole in order to determine if discrete modules will function together as planned.
C) involves testing the entire system with real-world data.
D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting.
E) tests each program separately.
E) tests each program separately.
445
System testing:
A) includes all the preparations for the series of tests to be performed on the system.
B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole in order to determine if discrete modules will function together as planned.
C) tests each program separately.
D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting.
E) tests the information requirements of a system.
B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole in order to determine if discrete modules will function together as planned.
446
Acceptance testing:
A) includes all the preparations for the series of tests to be performed on the system.
B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole.
C) tests each program separately in the system.
D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting.
E) tests the conversion of legacy data to the new system.
D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting.
447
In a parallel conversion strategy, the new system:
A) is tested by an outsourced company.
B) replaces the old one on an appointed day.
C) and the old are run in parallel.
D) is introduced only to a limited area first.
E) is slowly converted from the old system.
C) and the old are run in parallel.
448
In the direct cutover conversion strategy, the new system:
A) is tested by an outsourced company.
B) replaces the old one at on an appointed day.
C) and the old are run together.
D) is introduced in stages.
E) the old and new systems are run in parallel.
B) replaces the old one at on an appointed day.
449
```
Changes in hardware, software, documentation, or production to a production system to correct errors, meet new requirements, or improve processing efficiencies are termed:
A) acceptance.
B) production.
C) maintenance.
D) post-implementation
E) implementation.
```
C) maintenance.
450
```
In what stage of systems development are design specifications created?
A) Systems analysis
B) Systems design
C) Testing
D) Conversion
E) Implementation
```
B) Systems design
451
```
A systems analysis includes a(n) ________ that is used to determine whether the solution is achievable, from a financial, technical, and organizational standpoint.
A) feasibility study
B) data flow diagram
C) logical design
D) systems design document
E) request for proposal
```
A) feasibility study
452
```
________ provide(s) a detailed statement of the information needs that a new system must satisfy; identifies who needs what information, and when, where, and how the information is needed.
A) Systems analysis and design documents
B) Information requirements
C) A data flow diagram
D) A feasibility study
E) Requests for proposal
```
B) Information requirements
453
```
A(n) ________ is the model or blueprint for an information system solution and consists of all the specifications that will deliver the functions identified during systems analysis.
A) feasibility study
B) data flow diagram
C) systems design document
D) information requirements document
E) request for proposal
```
C) systems design document
454
```
During the ________ stage of system development, system specifications that were prepared during the design stage are translated into software code.
A) programming
B) systems analysis and design
C) implementation
D) conversion
E) acceptance testing
```
A) programming
455
```
________ is the process of changing from the old system to the new system.
A) Implementation
B) Conversion
C) Systems analysis and design
D) Programming
E) End user involvement
```
B) Conversion
456
Information systems can only have one possible design.
False
457
Documentation reveals how well a system works from both a technical standpoint, but not an end-user standpoint.
False
458
```
The entire system-building effort is driven by:
A) six sigma.
B) feasibility studies.
C) documentation
D) user information requirements.
E) available information technology.
```
D) user information requirements.
459
```
The primary tool for representing a system's component processes and the flow of data between them is the:
A) data dictionary.
B) process specifications diagram.
C) structure chart
D) data flow diagram.
E) object-oriented chart
```
D) data flow diagram.
460
```
An entire information system is broken down into its subsystems by using:
A) high-level data flow diagrams.
B) low-level data flow diagrams.
C) process specifications.
D) structured diagrams.
E) logical design diagrams.
```
A) high-level data flow diagrams.
461
```
To understand and define the contents of data flows and data stores, system builders use:
A) a data dictionary.
B) process specifications diagrams.
C) user documentation.
D) data flow diagrams.
E) systems analysis.
```
A) a data dictionary.
462
```
To show each level of a system's design, its relationship to other levels, and its place in the overall design structure, structured methodologies use:
A) structure charts.
B) Gantt and PERT charts.
C) process specifications.
D) data flow diagrams.
E) user documentation.
```
A) structure charts.
463
In object-oriented development:
A) the class is used as the basic unit of systems analysis and design.
B) an object is a collection of data that is acted on by external processes.
C) processing logic resides within objects.
D) a strict, step-by-step development process is essential.
E) data and processes are separated.
C) processing logic resides within objects.
464
```
In an object-oriented development framework for a university, how would the classes Degree, Mathematics, and Physics be related?
A) Degree would be a sister class to Mathematics and Physics.
B) Degree is a superclass to Mathematics and Physics.
C) Mathematics and Physics would be ancestors to Degree.
D) Degree would be a subclass to Mathematics and Physics.
E) Math, Physics and Degree are sister classes.
```
B) Degree is a superclass to Mathematics and Physics.
465
```
Object-oriented modeling is based on the concepts of:
A) class and inheritance.
B) classes and objects.
C) objects and relationships.
D) objects and inheritance.
E) classes and relationships.
```
A) class and inheritance.
466
Object-oriented development could potentially reduce the time and cost of writing software because:
A) object-oriented programming requires less training.
B) iterative prototyping is not required.
C) objects are reusable.
D) a single user interface object can be used for the entire application.
E) it's not necessary to use a formal methodology to design a system.
C) objects are reusable.
467
Which of the following statements about CASE is not true?
A) CASE provides hardware and software tools.
B) To be used effectively, CASE tools require organizational discipline.
C) CASE tools can improve communication between users and technical specialists.
D) CASE tools support iterative design.
E) CASE tools facilitate the creation of clear documentation.
A) CASE provides hardware and software tools.
468
A native mobile app is:
A) a mobile website.
B) a mobile web app.
C) a stand-alone application that does not use a browser.
D) a responsive mobile app.
E) one that can only operate on selected devices.
C) a stand-alone application that does not use a browser.
469
```
________ describe the transformation occurring within the lowest level of the data flow diagrams.
A) Design requirements
B) Information requirements
C) Technology design plans
D) object-oriented frameworks
E) Process specifications
```
E) Process specifications
470
```
Organizational software packages often include ________ features that allow the software to be modified to meet organizational requirements.
A) automation
B) object oriented
C) programming
D) design
E) customization
```
E) customization
471
A data flow diagram offers a logical and graphical model of information flow, partitioning a system into modules that show manageable levels of detail.
True
472
A structure chart is a top-down chart, showing each level of design, its relationship to other levels, and its place in the overall design structure.
True
473
Objects are grouped into hierarchies, and hierarchies into classes.
False
474
Traditional structured development is more incremental than object-oriented development.
False
475
CASE tools facilitate the creation of clear documentation and the coordination of team development efforts.
True
476
```
The oldest method for building information systems is:
A) component-based development.
B) prototyping.
C) object-oriented development.
D) the systems development lifecycle.
E)computer-aided software engineering
```
D) the systems development lifecycle.
477
In the traditional systems development lifecycle, end users:
A) are important and ongoing members of the team from the original analysis phase through maintenance.
B) are important only in the testing phases.
C) have no input.
D) are limited to providing information requirements and reviewing the technical staff's work.
E) control the development of the system.
D) are limited to providing information requirements and reviewing the technical staff's work.
478
```
In which type of systems building are the development stages organized so that tasks in one stage are completed before the tasks in the next stage begin?
A) Traditional
B) Prototyping
C) RAD
D) JAD
E) Object oriented development
```
A) Traditional
479
```
You are an IT project manager for an advertising firm. The firm wishes to create an online tool that will be used to survey focus group reactions to products in development. The most important consideration for the firm is being able to offer the tool as soon as possible as a new corporate service. However, you know that many of the senior managers that are business owners of this project have difficulty in understanding technical or software development issues, and are likely to change their requirements during the course of development. What development method would be most successful for this project?
A) RAD
B) JAD
C) End-user development
D) Prototyping
E) Traditional
```
D) Prototyping
480
```
A systems building approach in which the system is developed as successive versions, each version reflecting requirements more accurately, is described to be:
A) end-user oriented.
B) prototyped.
C) object-oriented.
D) agile.
E) iterative.
```
E) iterative.
481
Which of the following may occur when systems are created rapidly, without a formal development methodology?
A) End users can take over the work of IT specialists.
B) The organization quickly outgrows the new system.
C) Hardware, software, and quality standards are less important.
D) Testing and documentation may be inadequate.
E) IT specialists dominate the design of the system.
D) Testing and documentation may be inadequate.
482
What is the primary driving factor for firms in selecting domestic outsourcing firms to build system solutions?
A) To take advantage of technical skills the firm does not have
B) To save labor costs
C) To avoid change management issues
D) To reduce the cost of hardware
E) To avoid offshore outsourcing
A) To take advantage of technical skills the firm does not have
483
```
A software package evaluation process is often based on a series of questions sent to vendors, called a(n):
A) systems design document.
B) strategic planning document.
C) information systems management plan.
D) request for proposal.
E) logical design document.
```
D) request for proposal.
484
The systems life cycle maintains a formal division of labor between end users and information systems specialists.
True
485
Prototyping is more iterative than the conventional lifecycle.
True
486
A prototype is a working version of an information system that serves as a final model..
False
487
End-user-developed systems can be completed more rapidly than those developed through the conventional systems lifecycle.
True
488
A primary benefit of offshore outsourcing is that this can substantially reduce hidden costs.
False
489
What is the purpose of responsive web design?
A) It allows one website to serve different platforms, such as tablets, PCs, and mobile phones.
B) It allows websites to respond quickly to changing user needs.
C) It enables websites to customize design according to user preferences.
D) It enables websites to customize content based on user location and preferences.
E) It enables different people to responsively program the system.
A) It allows one website to serve different platforms, such as tablets, PCs, and mobile phones.
490
```
A "responsive design" for mobile applications is a design that responds to a user’s:
A) needs.
B) location.
C) voice commands.
D) digital device and screen size.
E) gestures.
```
D) digital device and screen size.
491
As a technical project manager, you have decided to propose implementing a prototyping methodology for a small web-based design project. What is the order of steps you will follow in this project?
A) Develop the prototype; use the prototype; revise and enhance the prototype.
B) Identify user requirements, develop the prototype, use the prototype, revise and enhance the prototype.
C) Define the requirements, develop solutions, select the best prototype, and implement the prototype.
D) Define the requirements, develop the prototype, revise and enhance the prototype.
E) Select the best prototype, define the requirements, and implement the prototype.
B) Identify user requirements, develop the prototype, use the prototype, revise and enhance the prototype.
492
Which of the following is not a top priority in mobile application development?
A) Designing for multitouch
B) Saving resources
C) Limiting the use of keyboards
D) Designing for keyboard data entry
E) Designing for a mobile device’s camera or other features
D) Designing for keyboard data entry
493
```
The process of creating workable information systems in a very short period of time is called:
A) RAD.
B) JAD.
C) prototyping.
D) systems analysis and design.
E) end user design.
```
A) RAD.
494
```
Which type of systems development is characterized by significantly speeding up the design phase and the generation of information requirements and involving users at an intense level?
A) RAD
B) JAD
C) Prototyping
D) End-user development
E) Traditional
```
B) JAD
495
```
Groups of objects are assembled into software components for common functions, which can be combined into large-scale business applications, in which type of software development?
A) Object-oriented development
B) Component-based development
C) Structured methodologies
D) RAD
E) Agile development
```
B) Component-based development
496
```
________ development focuses on rapid delivery of working software by breaking a large project into a series of small sub-projects that are completed in short periods of time using iteration and continuous feedback.
A) Agile
B) Rapid application
C) Joint application
D) Object-oriented
E) DevOps
```
A) Agile
497
Compared to the use of proprietary components, web services promise to be less expensive and less difficult to implement because of:
A) their ability to integrate seamlessly with legacy systems.
B) their ability to enable communication among different systems using universal standards.
C) the ubiquity of the Internet.
D) the ability to reuse web services components.
E) their use of custom programming.\
B) their ability to enable communication among different systems using universal standards.
498
Which of the following statements about mobile web apps is true?
A) Users access mobile web apps through their mobile device's web browser.
B) A mobile web app resides on the user’s device.
C) A mobile web app only works on certain mobile platforms.
D) A mobile web app requires the user to sign onto a web page.
E) A mobile web app requires the user to login to a web service.
A) Users access mobile web apps through their mobile device's web browser.
499
In component-based development, applications are developed one small portion at a time, with each portion able to function independently.
False
500
Responsive web design enables websites to change layouts according to the user's screen size.
True
501
Native apps are cheap to develop and only one version is required for different mobile operating systems.
False
502
Systems development activities always take place in sequential order.
False
503
Web services are less expensive to weave together than proprietary components.
True
504
DevOps stands for “development opportunities.”
False
505
DevOps emphasizes close collaboration between the software developers and IT operational staff.
True
506
Companies using DevOps, like Netflix, can update its production systems with new software in a matter of months.
False
507
A request for proposal (RFP) is a detailed list of questions submitted to software vendors.
True
508
```
On average, private sector IT projects underestimated budget and delivery time of systems by ________ percent.
A) 30
B) 40
C) 50
D) 60
E) 70
```
C) 50
509
As discussed in the chapter, which of the following is not one of the immediate consequences of inadequate software project management?
A) Cost overruns
B) Customer loyalty
C) Time slippage
D) Technical shortfalls
E) Failure to obtain anticipated benefits
B) Customer loyalty
510
```
Which of the following is not one of the five main variables affecting project success?
A) Risk
B) Vendors
C) Time
D) Quality
E) Cost
```
B) Vendors
511
```
You have been hired to implement an enterprise system that will automate much of the billing and accounting work for a statewide HVAC services company. Which of the following would you prepare to describe how the new system will affect a firm's structure and operations?
A) Information systems plan
B) Internal integration report
C) Sociotechnical design report
D) Organizational impact analysis
E) Strategic planning document
```
D) Organizational impact analysis
512
All of the following are indications of a failed information systems project except:
A) employees are refusing to switch to the new system.
B) employees have created a spreadsheet solution to manipulate the data generated by the system.
C) a redesigned website has fewer visits to the customer support pages.
D) employees require training to properly use the system.
E) the system is not being used by anyone.
D) employees require training to properly use the system.
513
```
Which of the following project management variables defines what work is or is not included in a project?
A) Goals
B) Risk
C) Quality
D) Scope
E) Cost
```
D) Scope
514
Which of the following statistics from studies on failed projects is not true?
A) Large software projects on average run 33 percent over schedule.
B) Large software projects on average run 66 percent over budget.
C) Between 30 and 40 percent of all software projects are "runaway" projects that far exceed the original schedule and budget projections and fail to perform as originally specified.
D) As many as 17 percent of projects turn out so badly that they can threaten the existence of the company.
E) The average cost overrun of IT projects is 20 percent.
E) The average cost overrun of IT projects is 20 percent.
515
The cost of a project is based on the time to complete a project multiplied by the cost of human resources required to complete the project.
True
516
An information system project's scope is directly related to its business requirements.
True
517
Project management refers to the application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to achieve specific targets within specified budget and time constraints.
True
518
```
Which of the following variables in project management is an indicator of how well the project satisfies management objectives?
A) Scope
B) Quality
C) Time
D) Cost
E) Risk
```
B) Quality
519
The data entry screen is an example of a user interface.
True
520
According to a 2015 report by 1E, over 50% of all software installed is not being used.
False
521
Which of the following is at the top of the management structure for information systems projects in a large company?
A) Project team
B) Project management group
C) Corporate strategic planning group and information systems steering committee
D) Information systems managers
E) End-user managers
C) Corporate strategic planning group and information systems steering committee
522
The ________ reviews and approves plans for systems in all divisions.
A) project management group
B) project team
C) information systems steering committee
D) corporate strategic planning committee
E) board of directors
C) information systems steering committee
523
The ________ consists of systems analysts, specialists from the relevant end-user business areas, application programmers, and perhaps database specialists.
A) project management group
B) project team
C) IS steering committee
D) corporate strategic planning committee
E) system planning committee
B) project team
524
The ________ is directly responsible for the individual systems project.
A) project management group
B) project team
C) IS steering committee
D) corporate strategic planning committee
E) systems planning committee
B) project team
525
```
A road map indicating the direction of systems development, the rationale, the current systems, new developments to consider, the management strategy, the implementation plan, and the budget is called a(n):
A) project plan.
B) portfolio analysis.
C) information systems plan.
D) enterprise analysis.
E) strategic planning document.
```
C) information systems plan.
526
Which of the following best describes the central method used in a portfolio analysis?
A) Performing an inventory all of the organization's information systems projects and assets
B) Performing a weighted comparison of the criteria used to evaluate a system
C) Surveying a large sample of managers on their objectives, decision-making process, and uses and needs for data and information
D) Interviewing a small number of top managers to identify their goals and criteria for achieving success
E) Scoring proposed systems on a number of dimensions, and select the one with the highest score.
A) Performing an inventory all of the organization's information systems projects and assets
527
A firm in the finance industry should do which of the following to ensure that it stays current with technology?
A) Select only low-cost, low risk projects
B) Limit work to those projects with great rewards.
C) Select only low-risk, high-reward projects.
D) Have a few high-risk, high benefit projects
E) Avoid projects that were very costly.
D) Have a few high-risk, high benefit projects
528
```
Which method would you use to develop risk profiles for a firm's information system projects and assets?
A) Information systems plan
B) Scoring model
C) Portfolio analysis
D) TCO
E) Real options model
```
C) Portfolio analysis
529
```
You have been hired by a firm in a non-information-intensive industry to evaluate its inventory of systems and IT projects. Which types of projects should the firm focus on?
A) High-risk projects
B) Low cost, low-benefit projects
C) High-benefit, low-risk projects
D) Any project that might be beneficial
E) Low cost, high benefit projects
```
C) High-benefit, low-risk projects
530
Which of the following best describes the central method used in a scoring model?
A) Performing an inventory all of the organization's information systems projects and assets
B) Performing a weighted comparison of the criteria used to evaluate a system
C) Surveying a large sample of managers on their objectives, decision-making process, and uses and needs for data and information
D) Interviewing a small number of top managers to identify their goals and criteria for achieving success
E) Calculating the return on investment for each system, and choose the system with the best return
B) Performing a weighted comparison of the criteria used to evaluate a system
531
```
Which method is used to assign weights to various features of a system?
A) Information systems plan
B) Scoring model
C) Portfolio analysis
D) TCO
E) Real options model
```
B) Scoring model
532
Which of the following statements about scoring models is not true?
A) There are many qualitative judgments involved in using a scoring model.
B) A scoring model is useful for selecting projects where many criteria must be considered.
C) The most important outcome of a scoring model is the score.
D) A scoring model requires experts who understand the issues and the technology.
E) It is appropriate to cycle through a scoring model several times.
C) The most important outcome of a scoring model is the score.
533
The information systems steering committee is composed of information systems managers and end-user managers responsible for overseeing several specific information systems projects.
False
534
An information systems plan contains a statement of corporate goals and specifies how information technology will support the attainment of those goals.
True
535
If an intended benefit of an IT project is improved decision making, managers should develop a set of metrics to quantify the value of an improved decision.
True
536
Scoring models are most commonly used to make the final decision when selecting different systems.
False
537
The criteria used in a scoring model are usually the result of lengthy discussions among the decision-making group.
True
538
You are using a capital budgeting method to assess the worth of your company's new information system. Which of the following costs would you include in measuring the cash outflow?
A) Increased sales of products
B) Hardware and software expenditures
C) Labor expenditures
D) Reduced costs in production and operation
E) Hardware, software, and labor expenditures
E) Hardware, software, and labor expenditures
539
The worth of systems from a financial perspective essentially revolves around the issue of:
A) total cost of ownership.
B) adherence to information requirements.
C) asset utilization.
D) return on invested capital.
E) the cost of computing equipment.
D) return on invested capital.
540
```
All of the following are intangible benefits of information systems except:
A) improved asset utilization.
B) increased organizational learning.
C) improved operations.
D) reduced workforce.
E) employee morale.
```
D) reduced workforce.
541
```
Which of the following is not a tangible benefit of information systems?
A) Reduced rate of growth in expenses
B) Lower computer expenses
C) Improved resource control
D) Increased productivity
E) End user satisfaction
```
C) Improved resource control
542
```
The principal capital budgeting models for evaluating information technology projects are the payback method, the accounting rate of return on investment (ROI), the net present value, and the:
A) future present value.
B) internal rate of return.
C) external rate of return.
D) ROPM (real options pricing model).
E) present value of future cash flows
```
B) internal rate of return.
543
Which of the following strategies represents the proper approach to a high risk, high reward project?
A) Identify and develop
B) Avoid
C) Treat as a routine project
D) Pursue after all other projects are complete
E) Cautiously examine
E) Cautiously examine
544
```
Enhanced employee goodwill falls under what category of costs and benefits of information systems?
A) Costs
B) Tangible benefits
C) Cost savings
D) Intangible costs
E) Intangible benefits
```
E) Intangible benefits
545
Counterimplementation is best defined as:
A) multiple implementations that are run in parallel.
B) deliberate attempts to thwart the implementation of a system.
C) critiquing the implementation of a system constructively.
D) all of the organizational challenges involved in implementing a system.
E) strategies used to overcome user resistance to change.
B) deliberate attempts to thwart the implementation of a system
546
Which of the following is a limitation of using a financial approach to evaluate information systems?
A) Inability to measure ROI
B) Inability to control vendor costs
C) Inability to assess risk
D) Inability to assess costs from organizational disruption
E) Inability to assess the cost of technology
D) Inability to assess costs from organizational disruption
547
Transaction and clerical systems that displace labor and save space typically produce more measurable, tangible benefits than management information systems.
True
548
Intangible benefits generally do not lead to quantifiable gains in the long run
True
549
A benefit of using TCO analysis to evaluate an information technology investment is that it is able to incorporate intangible and "soft" factors such as benefits and complexity costs.
False
550
More timely information is a intangible benefit of information systems.
True
551
The difference between cash outflows and cash inflows is used for calculating the financial worth of an investment.
True
552
```
________ methods rely on measures of cash flows into and out of the firm.
A) Scoring model
B) Portfolio analysis
C) Real options pricing
D) Capital budgeting
E) Cost effectiveness
```
D) Capital budgeting
553
```
In one strategic approach to determining information requirements, managers select a small number of ________ that reflect firm success and profitability.
A) efficiency measures
B) output measures
C) strategic indicators
D) key performance indicators
E) financial indicators
```
D) key performance indicators
554
All of the following are directly correlated with increased risk except:
A) a large amount of technical expertise from project team and information team staff
B) a large amount of dollars spent
C) a large amount of implementation staff
D) a large amount of time allocated for implementation
E) a large amount of organizational units affected
A) a large amount of technical expertise from project team and information team staff
555
Which of the following statements best describes the effect that project structure has on overall project risk?
A) Highly structured projects are more complex, and run a higher risk of programmers and users misunderstanding the ultimate goals.
B) Projects with relatively undefined goals are more likely to be subjected to users changing requirements and to run a higher risk of not satisfying project goals.
C) Highly structured projects tend to be larger, affecting more organizational units, and run both the risk of out-of-control costs and becoming too difficult to control.
D) Less structured projects are more able to be quickly developed, tested, and implemented using cutting-edge RAD and JAD development techniques, and pose less risk of running up unforeseen costs.
E) The less structured a project, the greater the freedom of users to define the system
B) Projects with relatively undefined goals are more likely to be subjected to users changing requirements and to run a higher risk of not satisfying project goals.
556
Which of the following statements about project risk is not true?
A) The more dollars spent on project, the greater the risk.
B) The higher the number of implementation staff on a project, the lower the risk.
C) The higher the number of organizational units affected by a project, the greater the risk.
D) Very large-scale systems project have a failure rate that is 50 to 75 percent higher than that for other projects.
E) The organizational complexity of a system contributes to the complexity of large-scale systems projects.
B) The higher the number of implementation staff on a project, the lower the risk.
557
```
Which of the following refers to all organizational activities working toward the adoption, management, and routinization of a new information system?
A) Production
B) Maintenance
C) Implementation
D) Acceptance
E) Final acceptance
```
C) Implementation
558
```
Which of the following would not be covered in the Strategic Business Plan Rationale section of an information systems plan?
A) Current situation
B) Current business organization
C) Firm’s strategic plan
D) Changing environments
E) Current infrastructure capabilities
```
E) Current infrastructure capabilities
559
```
Which of the following would not be covered in the Management Strategy section of an information systems plan?
A) Acquisition plans
B) Progress reports
C) Organizational realignment
D) Internal reorganization
E) Major training initiatives
```
A) Acquisition plans
560
Which of the following would not be covered in the Budget Requirements section of an information systems plan?
A) Requirements
B) Potential savings
C) Difficulties meeting business requirements
D) Financing
E) Acquisition cycle
C) Difficulties meeting business requirements
561
Which of the following is not one of the activities of the systems analyst?
A) Acting as a change agent
B) Communicating with users
C) Mediating between competing interest groups
D) Formulating of capital budgeting models
E) Deciding which systems to develop
D) Formulating of capital budgeting models
562
Which of the following types of projects is most likely to fail?
A) Integration of a third-party automated payment system
B) Replacement of middleware with web services for legacy application integration
C) Business process redesign project that restructures workflow and responsibilities
D) Redesigning a user interface to an online investment site
E) Building a web-based interface to an existing system
C) Business process redesign project that restructures workflow and responsibilities
563
Which of the following is not a responsibility of effective change management?
A) Integrating legacy systems
B) Dealing with fear and anxiety about new systems
C) Training users of the new system
D) Enforcing user participation at all stages of system development
E) Ensuring users are properly trained
A) Integrating legacy systems
564
Which of the following is not something you would use to control risk factors in an information systems project?
A) Internal integration tools
B) External integration tools
C) Formal planning tools and formal control tools
D) Real options pricing models
E) Gantt charts
D) Real options pricing models
565
Internal integration tools:
A) enable a project to have sufficient technical support for projects with challenging and complex technology.
B) enable a project manager to properly document and monitor project plans.
C) portray a project as a network diagram with numbered nodes representing project tasks.
D) consist of ways to link the work of the implementation team with users at all organization levels.
E) enable end users to communicate with system developers.
A) enable a project to have sufficient technical support for projects with challenging and complex technology.
566
Which of the following is an example of using an internal integration tool?
A) Creating a Gantt chart
B) Including user representatives as active members of the project team
C) Creating PERT chart
D) Holding frequent project team meetings
E) Developing a scoring model
D) Holding frequent project team meetings
567
Formal planning and control tools:
A) are used to select projects where many criteria must be considered.
B) enable a project manager to properly document and monitor project plans.
C) are used to evaluate alternative systems projects.
D) link the work of the implementation team with users at all organization levels.
E) serve as a road map indicating the direction of systems development.
B) enable a project manager to properly document and monitor project plans.
568
```
Which type of planning tool shows each task as a horizontal bar whose length is proportional to the time required to complete it?
A) PERT chart
B) Gantt chart
C) Both a PERT chart and a Gannt chart
D) Scoring model
E) Portfolio analysis
```
B) Gantt chart
569
```
To review a project's tasks and their interrelationships, you would use which of the following?
A) PERT chart
B) Gantt chart
C) PERT chart or a Gantt chart
D) Scoring model
E) Portfolio analysis
```
A) PERT chart
570
Which of the following helps project managers identify bottlenecks in project development?
A) Internal integration tools
B) External integration tools
C) Formal planning and control tools
D) Both internal and external integration tools
E) Portfolio analysis tools
C) Formal planning and control tools
571
External integration tools:
A) enable a project to have sufficient technical support for project management and development.
B) enable a project manager to properly document and monitor project plans.
C) portray a project as a network diagram with numbered nodes representing project tasks.
D) consist of ways to link the work of the implementation team with users at all organization levels.
E) enable project team members to keep track of external costs of a project.
D) consist of ways to link the work of the implementation team with users at all organization levels.
572
Which of the following is an example of using an external integration tool?
A) Creating a Gantt chart
B) Including user representatives as active members of the project team.
C) Creating a PERT chart.
D) Using portfolio analysis.
E) Developing a scoring model
B) Including user representatives as active members of the project team.
573
```
Which of the following is not an organizational factor in systems planning and implementation?
A) Standards and performance monitoring
B) Government regulatory compliance
C) Health and safety
D) User interface
E) Ergonomics
```
D) User interface
574
In sociotechnical design:
A) separate sets of technical and social design solutions are developed and compared.
B) ergonomic features of a system are considered to be the most important consideration.
C) systems analysts with proven backgrounds in sociological concerns rate and compare a system's social and technical aspects.
D) human needs are given more importance than technical needs.
E) technical needs are given more importance than organizational needs.
A) separate sets of technical and social design solutions are developed and compared.
575
```
Which of the following is the most widely used project management software today?
A) Vertabase
B) IBM Project Guide
C) Microsoft Project
D) Microsoft Excel
E) Zoho Projects
```
C) Microsoft Project
576
The larger the systems project, the greater the chance that the project will be completed on time, within budget, and according to project requirements
False
577
The systems analyst is the catalyst for the entire change process and is responsible for making sure that everyone involved accepts the changes created by a new system.
True
578
The relationship between users and information systems specialists has traditionally been a problem area for information systems implementation efforts.
True
579
User concerns and designer concerns are usually the same at the beginning of the project but may diverge later as the system is built.
False
580
A Gantt chart graphically depicts project tasks and their interrelationships.
False
581
Mandatory use of a system is one effective way of overcoming user resistance to an information system.
False
582
Counterimplementation refers to a deliberate strategy to thwart the implementation of an information system or an innovation in an organization.
True
583
The design of jobs, health issues, and the end-user interface of information systems are all considerations in the field of ergonomics.
True
584
The goal of sociotechnical design is to create systems where the organization and the technology change and adjust to one another.
True
585
```
Successful system building requires careful ________ management to minimize organizational resistance.
A) cost
B) technology
C) change
D) supply chain
E) system application
```
C) change
586
Which of the following statements about the user-designer communications gap is not true?
A) It occurs because users and information systems specialists tend to have different backgrounds, interests, and priorities.
B) It is one of the major reasons why user requirements are not properly incorporated into information systems.
C) It is one of the major reasons why users are driven out of the implementation process.
D) When it is pronounced, it creates a very high risk of failure for a systems development project.
E) Information systems specialists prefer systems that are oriented toward solving business problems or facilitating organizational tasks.
E) Information systems specialists prefer systems that are oriented toward solving business problems or facilitating organizational tasks.
587
Ergonomics is the interaction of people and machines in the work environment, including the design of jobs, health issues, and the end-user interface of information systems
True
588
Which of the following best describes the relationship between system implementation and user involvement and management support?
A) System implementation rarely benefits from user involvement.
B) System implementation benefits from user support, but does not require management support.
C) System implementation generally benefits from high levels of user involvement and management support.
D) System implementation benefits from management support, but does not require user support.
E) System implementation rarely benefits from management support.
C) System implementation generally benefits from high levels of user involvement and management support.
589
The differing backgrounds between users and information systems specialists is referred to as the:
A) user expertise gap.
B) information system specialist inefficiency.
C) user-designer paradigm.
D) user-designer expertise gap.
E) user-designer communications gap.
E) user-designer communications gap.
590
Information systems specialists often tend to seek solutions that:
A) are oriented towards solving business problems.
B) facilitate organizational tasks.
C) optimize hardware and software efficiency at the expense of ease of use.
D) are simplistic for end users to understand.
E) employ clear documentation.
C) optimize hardware and software efficiency at the expense of ease of use.
591
According to the Project Management Institute, what is the leading factor in project success?
A) Upper management that financially backs the project
B) Executive sponsors who are actively engaged
C) Carefully monitored changes in work habits and procedures
D) Communication between technicians and end users
E) End users who communicate their needs for the project
B) Executive sponsors who are actively engaged
592
While users are concerned about an information system delivering the information needed for work, designers might be concerned about:
A) accessing the data on iPhones and tablets
B) the procedures required to enter data into the system
C) how operation of the system will change their daily routines
D) what demands the system will place on the company servers
E) opening lines of communication with end users
D) what demands the system will place on the company servers
