Exam

Question 1

Which type of infrastructure service provides data, voice and video connectivity to employees, customers, and suppliers?
A) Networking
B) Telephone
C) VOIP
D) Telecommunications
E) Data management

Answer 1

D) Telecommunications

Question 2

Which of the following is not an IT infrastructure service component?
A) Operating system software
B) Computing platforms to provide a coherent digital environment
C) Physical facilities management to manage the facilities housing physical components
D) IT management services to plan and develop the infrastructure and provide project management
E) IT education services that provide training to employees

Answer 2

A) Operating system software

Question 3

Specifications that establish the compatibility of products and the ability to communicate in a network are called:
A) network standards.
B) telecommunications standards.
C) technology standards.
D) Internet standards.
E) compatibility standards.

Answer 3

C) technology standards.

Question 4

Which of the following is a leading networking hardware provider?
A) Dell
B) Intel
C) Seagate
D) IBM
E) Cisco

Answer 4

E) Cisco

Question 5

Software that manages the resources of the computer is called:
A) operating system software.
B) application software.
C) data management software.
D) network software.
E) web services software.

Answer 5

A) operating system software.

Question 6

A SAN is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ network.
A) server area
B) storage area
C) scalable architecture
D) service-oriented architecture
E) software arrangement

Answer 6

B) storage area

Question 7

Which of the following is an example of a legacy system?
A) Transaction processing system running on a mainframe.
B) Scalable grid computing system
C) Web services running on a cloud computing platform
D) MDM software
E) Quantum computing system

Answer 7

A) Transaction processing system running on a mainframe.

Question 8

Which of the following is not an example of a wearable computing device?
A) Smartwatch
B) Smart glasses
C) Smartphones
D) Activity trackers
E) Smart ID badges

Answer 8

C) Smartphones

Question 9

A(n)\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ server is used to communicate between a web server and an organization's back-end systems.
A) public server 
B) private server
C) legacy server 
D) application server
E) blade server

Answer 9

D) application server

Question 10

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are computers consisting of a circuit board with processors, memory, and network connections that are stored in racks. 
A) Mainframes
B) Rack servers
C) Cloud servers
D) Hybrid servers
E) Blade servers

Answer 10

E) Blade servers

Question 11

Client/server computing is a primary example of centralized processing.

Answer 11

False

Question 12

In N-tier computing, significant parts of website content, logic, and processing are performed by different servers.

Answer 12

True

Question 13

Application server software is responsible for locating and managing stored web pages.

Answer 13

False

Question 14

IT infrastructure consists of only those physical computing devices required to operate the enterprise.

Answer 14

False

Question 15

An application server may reside on the same computer as a web server or on its own dedicated computer.

Answer 15

True

Question 16

The operating system is used to manage the computer’s activities.

Answer 16

True

Question 17

SANs maintain a series of servers and provide fee-paying subscribers with space to maintain their websites.

Answer 17

False

Question 18

Place the following eras of IT infrastructure evolution in order, from earliest to most recent: 1. Cloud Computing Era; 2. Client/Server; 3. Enterprise Era; 4. Personal Computer; and 5. Mainframe and Minicomputer.
A) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1
B) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1 
C) 4, 5, 2, 3, 1 
D) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3 
E) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1

Answer 18

B) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1

Question 19

The introduction of the minicomputer:
A) allowed computers to be customized to the specific needs of departments or business units.
B) strengthened centralized computing.
C) offered new, powerful machines at higher prices than mainframes.
D) represented the rise of Microsoft.
E) was dominated by IBM.

Answer 19

A) allowed computers to be customized to the specific needs of departments or business units.

Question 20

A client computer networked to a server computer, with processing split between the two types of computers, is called a(n):
A) service-oriented architecture.
B) on-demand architecture.
C) multi-tiered client/server architecture.
D) two-tiered client/server architecture.
E) divided architecture.

Answer 20

D) two-tiered client/server architecture.

Question 21

In a multi-tiered network:
A) the work of the entire network is centralized.
B) the work of the entire network is balanced over several levels of servers.
C) processing is split between clients and servers.
D) processing is handled by multiple, geographically-remote clients.
E) processing is located in the cloud.

Answer 21

B) the work of the entire network is balanced over several levels of servers.

Question 22

Interpretations of Moore’s law assert that:
A) computing power will eventually level off.
B) transistors decrease in size 50% every two years.
C) data storage costs decrease by 50% every 18 months.
D) PCs decrease in market share by 9% every 5 years.
E) computing power doubles every 18 months.

Answer 22

E) computing power doubles every 18 months.

Question 23

Today's nanotechnology-produced computer transistors are roughly equivalent in size to:
A) the width of a fingernail.
B) a human hair.
C) a virus.
D) an atom.
E) a grain of sand.

Answer 23

C) a virus.

Question 24

ZipRealty, which combines Google Maps with real estate data, is an example of:
A) cloud computing.
B) SOA.
C) a widget.
D) a mashup.
E) a web service.

Answer 24

D) a mashup.

Question 25

Which of the following is a multitasking, multi-user, operating system developed by Bell Laboratories that operates on a wide variety of computing platforms? 
A) Unix
B) Linux
C) OS X
D) COBOL
E) DOS

Answer 25

A) Unix

Question 26

Which of the following is the network standard for connecting desktop computers into local area networks that enabled the widespread adoption of client/server computing and local area networks and further stimulated the adoption of personal computers? 
A) TCP/IP
B) COBOL
C) Ethernet
D) ASCII
E) Linux

Answer 26

C) Ethernet

Question 27

The development of TCP/IP occurred during the ________ era.
A) cloud and mobile computing
B) general-purpose mainframe and minicomputer
C) client/server era
D) personal computer
E) enterprise computing

Answer 27

E) enterprise computing

Question 28

Which of the following became the standard PC in the Personal Computer Era?
A) Wintel PC
B) DOS PC
C) MITS PC
D) Altair
E) Apple II

Answer 28

A) Wintel PC

Question 29

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ uses individual atoms and molecules to create computer chips and other devices.
A) Virtualization
B) Nanotechnology 
C) Quantum computing
D) A minicomputer
E) On-demand computing

Answer 29

B) Nanotechnology

Question 30

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ states that the value or power of a network grows exponentially as a function of the number of network members.
A) Metcalfe's Law 
B) Moore's Law
C) Law of scalability
D) Law of outsourcing
E) Law of networks

Answer 30

A) Metcalfe’s Law

Question 31

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ interfaces allow users to employ one or more fingers to manipulate objects on a screen without a mouse or keyboard.
A) Hypertouch 
B) Nanotech 
C) Multitouch
D) Linux 
E) Scalable

Answer 31

C) Multitouch

Question 32

Enterprise infrastructure requires software that can link disparate applications and enable data to flow freely among different parts of the business.

Answer 32

True

Question 33

Which of the following is not an example of the mobile digital platform?
A) Tablets
B) Kindle
C) Cell phones
D) CRM
E) Apps

Answer 33

D) CRM

Question 34

All of the following are current hardware platform trends except:
A) green computing.
B) virtualization.
C) cloud computing.
D) Unix.
E) quantum computing.

Answer 34

D) Unix.

Question 35

The ability to be in multiple states at once, dramatically increasing processing power, is a hallmark of:
A) co-location.
B) edge computing.
C) grid computing.
D) utility computing.
E) quantum computing.

Answer 35

E) quantum computing.

Question 36

Which of the following is a recent addition to the mobile digital platform?
A) Quantum computing devices
B) Wearable computing devices
C) Cloud computing devices
D) Grid computing devices
E) Green computing devices

Answer 36

B) Wearable computing devices

Question 37

At what percent of capacity do most servers operate?
A) 100%
B) 80-90% 
C) approximately 70 percent
D) 40-50%
E) 15-20%

Answer 37

E) 15-20%

Question 38

Which of the following enables a single physical resource (such as a server or a storage device) to appear to the user as multiple logical resources? 
A) Cloud computing
B) Autonomic computing
C) Virtualization
D) Multicore processing
E) Ubiquitous computing

Answer 38

C) Virtualization

Question 39

Which of the following types of computing involves purchasing computing power from a remote provider and paying only for the computing power used?
A) On-demand
B) Grid
C) Edge
D) Autonomic
E) Quantum

Answer 39

A) On-demand

Question 40

All of the following are cloud computing services except:
A) infrastructure as a service.
B) platform as a service.
C) software as a service.
D) on-demand computing.
E) virtualization as a service.

Answer 40

E) virtualization as a service.

Question 41

Firms that allow employees to use their own devices are embracing which of the following? 
A) Wearable computing
B) Mobile consolidation
C) Cloud computing
D) BYOD
E) Self computing

Answer 41

D) BYOD

Question 42

The marketplace for computer hardware:
A) has become increasingly concentrated in top firms.
B) has expanded to include a wide variety of start-up and mobile-computing firms.
C) has moved significantly to Asian firms.
D) has been decimated by mobile and cloud computing.
E) has begun moving away from blade servers.

Answer 42

A) has become increasingly concentrated in top firms.

Question 43

Which of the following is the most popular mobile operating system?
A) Linux
B) Android
C) Chrome OS
D) iOS
E) Unix

Answer 43

B) Android

Question 44

Which of the following is not one of the NIST defined characteristics of cloud computing?
A) Ubiquitous network access 
B) Location-independent resource pooling
C) On-demand self service
D) Measured service
E) Reduced elasticity

Answer 44

E) Reduced elasticity

Question 45

Which of the following is not an example of the consumerization of IT?
A) Google Apps
B) Dropbox 
C) Facebook
D) Gmail
E) Amazon Web Services

Answer 45

E) Amazon Web Services

Question 46

A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is an integrated circuit to which two or more processors have been attached for enhanced performance and reduced power consumption.
A) multicore processor 
B) legacy processor 
C) scalable processor
D) aggregate circuit
E) green circuit

Answer 46

A) multicore processor

Question 47

In green computing, reducing computer power consumption is a top priority.

Answer 47

True

Question 48

Quantum computing is implemented primarily with enterprise or ISP servers.

Answer 48

False

Question 49

Which type of software is created and updated by a worldwide community of programmers and available for free?
A) Software packages
B) Mashups
C Outsourced
D) Open source
E) Closed source

Answer 49

D) Open source

Question 50

Which of the following is not one of the current software platform trends?
A) Web services and service-oriented architecture
B) Open-source software
C) HTML5
D) Software outsourcing
E) Multicore processors

Answer 50

E) Multicore processors

Question 51

Linux is:
A) primarily concerned with the tasks of end users.
B) designed for specific machines and specific microprocessors.
C) an example of open-source software.
D) especially useful for processing numeric data.
E) poorly suited to power fast computers.

Answer 51

C) an example of open-source software.

Question 52

Which of the following statements about Linux is not true?
A) It plays a major role in the back office running local area networks.
B) It is available in free versions downloadable from the Internet.
C) It has garnered 20 percent of the server operating system market.
D) Linux applications are embedded in cell phones, smartphones, netbooks, and other handheld devices.
E) Linux works on all the major hardware platforms.

Answer 52

C) It has garnered 20 percent of the server operating system market.

Question 53

Running a Java program on a computer requires:
A) a Java Virtual Machine to be installed on that computer.
B) a Java Virtual Machine to be installed on the server hosting the Java applet.
C) a miniature program to be downloaded to the user’s computer.
D) no specialized software, as Java is platform-independent.
E) the Mozilla Firefox browser and no other browsers.

Answer 53

A) a Java Virtual Machine to be installed on that computer.

Question 54

A software program with a graphical user interface for displaying web pages and for accessing the web and other Internet resources is called a web:
A) service.
B) client.
C) browser.
D) app.
E) beacon.

Answer 54

C) browser.

Question 55

Sets of loosely coupled software components that exchange information with each other using standard web communication standards and languages are referred to as:
A) web services.
B) EAI software.
C) SOA.
D) SOAP.
E) SaaS.

Answer 55

A) web services.

Question 56

Which of the following is the foundation technology for web services?
A) XML
B) HTML
C) SOAP
D) UDDI
E) SCSI

Answer 56

A) XML

Question 57

Which of the following refers to a set of self-contained services that communicate with each other to create a working software application?
A) Web services
B) EAI software
C) SOA
D) SOAP
E) Prepackaged software

Answer 57

C) SOA

Question 58

Prewritten, commercially available sets of software programs that eliminate the need for a firm to write its own software programs for certain functions, are referred to as:
A) software packages.
B) mashups.
C) outsourced software.
D) open-source software.
E) service level agreements.

Answer 58

A) software packages.

Question 59

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are created by combining and customizing components from different online software applications.
A) Apps
B) Web browsers
C) SaaS
D) Web services
E) Mashups

Answer 59

E) Mashups

Question 60

The practice of contracting custom software development to an outside firm is commonly referred to as:
A) outsourcing.
B) scaling.
C) service-oriented architecture.
D) application integration.
E) utility computing.

Answer 60

A) outsourcing.

Question 61

A formal contract between customers and their service providers that outlines the specific responsibilities of the service provider and to the customer is called a(n): 
A) SOA.
B) SLA.
C) TCO.
D) RFQ.
E) SaaS.

Answer 61

B) SLA.

Question 62

SaaS refers to:
A) supplying online access over networks to storage devices and storage area network technology.
B) managing combinations of applications, networks, systems, storage, and security as well as providing Web site and systems performance monitoring to subscribers over the Internet.
C) self-contained services that communicate with each other to create a working software application.
D) easy-to-use software tools for displaying Web pages.
E) hosting and managing access to software applications delivered over the Internet to clients on a subscription basis.

Answer 62

E) hosting and managing access to software applications delivered over the Internet to clients on a subscription basis.

Question 63

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ provides a standard format for data exchange, enabling web services to pass data from one process to another.
A) HTML 
B) HTML5
C) Java
D) Chrome OS
E) XML

Answer 63

E) XML

Question 64

Which of the following involves practices and technologies to minimize the environmental effects of manufacturing and managing computing devices?
A) Capacity planning
B) Cloud computing
C) Green computing
D) Utility computing
E) On-demand computing

Answer 64

C) Green computing

Question 65

The decision to purchase your own IT assets or rent them from external providers is also referred to as the rent-versus-buy decision.

Answer 65

True

Question 66

It is much easier to eliminate a cloud service than to remove functionality from a company’s core internal systems.

Answer 66

True

Question 67

Java software is designed to run on any computing device, regardless of the specific microprocessor or operating system it uses.

Answer 67

True

Question 68

Web services can exchange information between two different systems only if the operating systems and programming languages upon which the systems are based are identical.

Answer 68

False

Question 69

Whereas HTML is limited to describing how data should be presented in the form of Web pages, XML can perform presentation, communication, and data storage tasks.

Answer 69

True

Question 70

Hypertext markup language specifies how text, graphics, video, and sound are placed on a web page.

Answer 70

True

Question 71

A service-oriented architecture is set of self-contained services that communicate with each other to create a working software application.

Answer 71

True

Question 72

Today, many business firms continue to operate legacy systems because they meet a business need and would be costly to replace.

Answer 72

True

Question 73

Which of the following factors does not help explain why computing resources today are even more available than in previous decades?
A) Network economics
B) Law of mass digital storage
C) Moore’s law
D) Declining communications costs and the Internet
E) Widespread rejection of technology standards

Answer 73

E) Widespread rejection of technology standards

Question 74

Which of the following refers to the ability of a computer, product, or system to expand to serve a larger number of users without breaking down?
A) Modality
B) Scalability
C) Expandability
D) Disintermediation
E) Customizability

Answer 74

B) Scalability

Question 75

Hardware and software acquisition costs account for about \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ percent of TCO. 
A) 20
B) 40
C) 50
D) 75
E) 90

Answer 75

A) 20

Question 76

Which model can be used to analyze the direct and indirect costs to help firms determine the actual cost of specific technology implementations?
A) Supply and demand
B) Return on investment
C) Breakeven point
D) Cost-benefit analysis
E) Total cost of ownership

Answer 76

E) Total cost of ownership

Question 77

How would you determine the market demand for your firm’s IT services?
A) Perform a TCO analysis.
B) Benchmark your services.
C) Hold focus groups to assess your services.
D) Analyze sales returns on key investments.
E) Perform a stress test.

Answer 77

C) Hold focus groups to assess your services.

Question 78

Which of the following is not one of the main six factors to consider when evaluating how much your firm should spend on IT infrastructure?
A) Your firm’s business strategy
B) The IT investments made by competitor firms
C) Market demand for your firm’s services
D) Your firm’s organizational culture
E) Information technology assessment

Answer 78

D) Your firm’s organizational culture

Question 79

Scalability refers to the ability of a computer, product, or system to expand to serve a large number of users without breaking down.

Answer 79

True

Question 80

TCO refers to the original cost of purchased technology: both hardware and software.

Answer 80

False

Question 81

In financial services firms, investments in IT infrastructure represent more than half of all capital invested.

Answer 81

True

Question 82

Microsoft is the market leader in client/server networking.

Answer 82

True

Question 83

Cloud computing is the fastest growing form of computing.

Answer 83

True

Question 84

Exponential growth in the number of transistors and the power of processors is expected to consider for the foreseeable future.

Answer 84

False

Question 85

Quantum computing is not yet available to the general public.

Answer 85

False

Question 86

Which of the following best illustrates the relationship between entities and attributes? A) The entity CUSTOMER with the attribute PRODUCT
B) The entity CUSTOMER with the attribute PURCHASE
C) The entity PRODUCT with the attribute PURCHASE
D) The entity PRODUCT with the attribute CUSTOMER
E) The entity PURCHASE with the attribute CUSTOMER

Answer 86

B) The entity CUSTOMER with the attribute PURCHASE

Question 87

All of the following are issues with the traditional file environment except:
A) data inconsistency.
B) inability to develop specialized applications for functional areas.
C) lack of flexibility in creating ad-hoc reports.
D) poor security.
E) data sharing.

Answer 87

B) inability to develop specialized applications for functional areas.

Question 88

A characteristic or quality that describes a particular database entity is called a(n):
A) field
B) tuple
C) key field
D) attribute
E) relationship

Answer 88

D) attribute

Question 89

A ________ is an example of pre-digital data storage that is comparable to a database.
A) library card catalog
B) cash register receipt
C) doctor’s office invoice
D) list of sales totals on a spreadsheet
E) schedule of due dates on a project outline

Answer 89

A) library card catalog

Question 90

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ creates confusion that hampers the creation of information systems that integrate data from different sources.
A) Batch processing
B) Data redundancy
C) Data independence
D) Online processing
E) Data quality

Answer 90

B) Data redundancy

Question 91

Data \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs when the same data is duplicated in multiple files of a database. 
A) redundancy
B) repetition
C) independence
D) partitions
E) discrepancy

Answer 91

A) redundancy

Question 92

Which of the following occurs when the same attribute in related data files has different values?
A) Data redundancy
B) Data duplication
C) Data dependence
D) Data discrepancy
E) Data inconsistency

Answer 92

E) Data inconsistency

Question 93

Which of the following is a grouping of characters into a word, a group of words, or a complete number?
A) File
B) Table
C) Entity
D) Field
E) Tuple

Answer 93

D) Field

Question 94

A record is a characteristic or quality used to describe a particular entity.

Answer 94

False

Question 95

Program-data dependence refers to the coupling of data stored in files and the specific programs required to update and maintain those files such that changes in programs require changes to the data.

Answer 95

True

Question 96

The fact that a traditional file system cannot respond to unanticipated information requirements in a timely fashion is an example of which of the following issues with traditional file systems
A) Program-data dependence
B) Lack of flexibility
C) Poor security
D) Lack of data sharing
E) Data redundancy

Answer 96

B) Lack of flexibility

Question 97

Which of the following enables a DBMS to reduce data redundancy and inconsistency?
A) Ability to enforce referential integrity
B) Ability to couple program and data
C) Use of a data dictionary
D) Ability to create two-dimensional tables
E) Ability to minimize isolated files with repeated data

Answer 97

E) Ability to minimize isolated files with repeated data

Question 98

A DBMS makes the:
A) physical database available for different logical views.
B) relational database available for different logical views.
C) physical database available for different analytic views.
D) relational database available for different analytic views.
E) logical database available for different analytic views.

Answer 98

A) physical database available for different logical views.

Question 99

The logical view of a database:
A) displays the organization and structure of data on the physical storage media.
B) includes a digital dashboard.
C) allows the creation of supplementary reports.
D) enables users to manipulate the logical structure of the database.
E) presents data as they would be perceived by end users.

Answer 99

E) presents data as they would be perceived by end users.

Question 100

Which of the following is a DBMS for desktop computers?
A) DB2
B) Oracle Database
C) Microsoft SQL Server
D) Microsoft Access
E) Microsoft Exchange

Answer 100

D) Microsoft Access

Question 101

A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ organizes data in two-dimensional tables.
A) non-relational DBMS
B) mobile DBMS
C) relational DBMS
D) hierarchical DBMS
E) object-oriented DBMS

Answer 101

C) relational DBMS

Question 102

Microsoft SQL Server is a(n):
A) DBMS for both desktops and mobile devices.
B) Internet DBMS.
C) desktop relational DBMS.
D) DBMS for midrange computers.
E) DBMS for mobile devices.

Answer 102

D) DBMS for midrange computers.

Question 103

In a table for customers, the information about a single customer resides in a single:
A) field.
B) row.
C) column.
D) table.
E) entity.

Answer 103

B) row.

Question 104

In a relational database, a record is referred to in technical terms as a(n):
A) tuple.
B) table.
C) entity.
D) field.
E) key.

Answer 104

A) tuple.

Question 105

A field identified in a table as holding the unique identifier of the table's records is called the:
A) primary key.
B) key field.
C) primary field.
D) unique ID.
E) primary entity.

Answer 105

A) primary key.

Question 106

A field identified in a record as holding the unique identifier for that record is called the:
A) primary key.
B) key field.
C) primary field.
D) unique ID.
E) key attribute.

Answer 106

B) key field.

Question 107

In a relational database, the three basic operations used to develop useful sets of data are:
A) select, project, and where.
B) select, join, and where.
C) select, project, and join.
D) where, from, and join.
E) where, find, and select.

Answer 107

C) select, project, and join.

Question 108

The select operation:
A) combines relational tables to provide the user with more information than is otherwise available.
B) creates a subset consisting of columns in a table.
C) identifies the table from which the columns will be selected.
D) creates a subset consisting of all records in the file that meet stated criteria.
E) creates a subset consisting of rows in a table.

Answer 108

D) creates a subset consisting of all records in the file that meet stated criteria.

Question 109

The join operation:
A) combines relational tables to provide the user with more information than is otherwise available.
B) identifies the table from which the columns will be selected.
C) creates a subset consisting of columns in a table.
D) organizes elements into segments.
E) creates a subset consisting of rows in a table.

Answer 109

A) combines relational tables to provide the user with more information than is otherwise available.

Question 110

A) combines relational tables to provide the user with more information than is otherwise available.
B) creates a subset consisting of columns in a table.
C) organizes elements into segments.
D) identifies the table from which the columns will be selected.
E) creates a subset consisting of rows in a table.

Answer 110

B) creates a subset consisting of columns in a table.

Question 111

Microsoft Access’s data dictionary displays all of the following information about a filed except the:
A) size of the field
B) format of the field.
C) description of the field.
D) type of the field.
E) the organization within the organization that is responsible for maintain the data.

Answer 111

E) the organization within the organization that is responsible for maintain the data.

Question 112

Which of the following is an automated or manual file that stores information about data elements and data characteristics such as usage, physical representation, ownership, authorization, and security?
A) Data dictionary
B) Data definition diagram
C) Entity-relationship diagram
D) Relationship dictionary
E) Data table.

Answer 112

A) Data dictionary

Question 113

Which of the following is a specialized language that programmers use to add and change data in the database? 
A) Data access language.
B) Data manipulation language.
C) Structured query language.
D) Data definition language.
E) DBMS.

Answer 113

B) Data manipulation language.

Question 114

Which of the following is the most prominent data manipulation language today?
A) Access
B) DB2
C) SQL
D) Crystal Reports
E) NoSQL

Answer 114

C) SQL

Question 115

DBMSs typically include report-generating tools in order to:
A) retrieve and display data.
B) display data in an easier-to-read format.
C) display data in graphs.
D) perform predictive analysis.
E) analyze the database’s performance.

Answer 115

B) display data in an easier-to-read format.

Question 116

The process of streamlining data to minimize redundancy and awkward many-to-many relationships is called:
A) normalization.
B) data scrubbing.
C) data cleansing.
D) data defining.
E) optimization.

Answer 116

A) normalization.

Question 117

A schematic of the entire database that describes the relationships in a database is called a(n):
A) data dictionary.
B) intersection relationship diagram.
C) entity-relationship diagram.
D) data definition diagram.
E) data analysis table.

Answer 117

C) entity-relationship diagram.

Question 118

A one-to-many relationship between two entities is symbolized in a diagram by a line that ends with:
A) one short mark.
B) two short marks.
C) three short marks.
D) a crow's foot.
E) a crow's foot topped by a short mark.

Answer 118

E) a crow’s foot topped by a short mark.

Question 119

You are creating a database to store temperature and wind data from various airports. Which of the following fields is the most likely candidate to use as the basis for a primary key in the Airport table?
A) Address
B) City
C) Airport code
D) State
E) Day

Answer 119

C) Airport code

Question 120

The logical and physical views of data are separated in a DBMS.

Answer 120

True

Question 121

Every record in a file should contain at least one key field.

Answer 121

True

Question 122

NoSQL technologies are used to manage sets of data that don’t require the flexibility of tables and relations.

Answer 122

True

Question 123

CGI is a DBMS programming language that end users and programmers use to manipulate data in the database.

Answer 123

False

Question 124

Complicated groupings of data in a relational database need to be adjusted to eliminate awkward many-to-many relationships.

Answer 124

True

Question 125

A physical view shows data as it is actually organized and structured on the data storage media.

Answer 125

True

Question 126

DBMS have a data definition capability to specify the structure of the content of the database.

Answer 126

True

Question 127

Relational DBMSs use key field rules to ensure that relationships between coupled tables remain consistent.

Answer 127

False

Question 128

The term big data refers to all of the following except:
A) datasets with fewer than a billion records.
B) datasets with unstructured data.
C) machine-generated data (i.e. from sensors).
D) data created by social media (i.e. tweets, Facebook Likes).
E) data from Web traffic.

Answer 128

A) datasets with fewer than a billion records.

Question 129

Which of the following technologies would you use to analyze the social media data collected by a major online retailer?
A) OLAP
B) Data warehouse
C) Data mart
D) Hadoop
E) DBMS

Answer 129

D) Hadoop

Question 130

Which of the following is not one of the techniques used in web mining?
A) Content mining
B) Structure mining
C) Server mining
D) Usage mining
E) Data mining

Answer 130

C) Server mining

Question 131

You work for a retail clothing chain whose primary outlets are in shopping malls and are conducting an analysis of your customers and their preferences. You wish to find out if there are any particular activities that your customers engage in, or the types of purchases made in the month before or after purchasing select items from your store. To do this, you will the data mining software you are using to do which of the following?
A) Identify associations
B) Identify clusters
C) Identify sequences
D) Classify data
E) Create a forecast

Answer 131

C) Identify sequences

Question 132

You work for a car rental agency and want to determine what characteristics are shared among your most loyal customers. To do this, you will the data mining software you are using to do which of the following?
A) Identify associations
B) Identify clusters
C) Identify sequences
D) Classify data
E) Create a forecast

Answer 132

D) Classify data

Question 133

A data warehouse is composed of:
A) historical data from legacy systems.
B) current data.
C) internal and external data sources.
D) historic and current internal data.
E) historic external data.

Answer 133

D) historic and current internal data.

Question 134

All of the following are technologies used to analyze and manage big data except:
A) cloud computing.
B) noSQL.
C) in-memory computing.
D) analytic platforms.
E) Hadoop.

Answer 134

A) cloud computing.

Question 135

A household appliances manufacturer has hired you to help analyze its social media datasets to determine which of its refrigerators are seen as the most reliable. Which of the following tools would you use to analyze this data?
A) Text mining tools
B) Sentiment analysis software
C) Web mining technologies
D) Data mining software 
E) Data governance software

Answer 135

B) Sentiment analysis software

Question 136

Which of the following tools enables users to view the same data in different ways using multiple dimensions?
A) Predictive analysis
B) SQL
C) OLAP
D) Data mining
E) Hadoop

Answer 136

C) OLAP

Question 137

OLAP enables:
A) users to obtain online answers to ad-hoc questions in a rapid amount of time.
B) users to view both logical and physical views of data.
C) programmers to quickly diagram data relationships.
D) programmers to normalize data.
E) users to quickly generate summary reports.

Answer 137

A) users to obtain online answers to ad-hoc questions in a rapid amount of time.

Question 138

Data mining allows users to:
A) quickly compare transaction data gathered over many years.
B) find hidden relationships in data.
C) obtain online answers to ad-hoc questions in a rapid amount of time.
D) summarize massive amounts of data into much smaller, traditional reports.
E) access the vast amounts of data in a data warehouse.

Answer 138

B) find hidden relationships in data.

Question 139

In the context of data relationships, the term associations refers to:
A) events linked over time.
B) patterns that describe a group to which an item belongs.
C) occurrences linked to a single event.
D) undiscovered groupings.
E) relationships between different customers.

Answer 139

C) occurrences linked to a single event.

Question 140

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tools are used to analyze large unstructured data sets, such as e-mail, memos, and survey responses to discover patterns and relationships.
A) OLAP
B) Text mining
C) In-memory
D) Clustering
E) Classification

Answer 140

B) Text mining

Question 141

Which of the following enables you to create a script that allows a web server to communicate with a back-end database? 
A) CGI
B) HTML
C) Java
D) SQL
E) NoSQL

Answer 141

A) CGI

Question 142

HTML has become the preferred method of communicating with back-end databases because it is a cross-platform language.

Answer 142

False

Question 143

Legacy systems are used to populate and update data warehouses.

Answer 143

True

Question 144

Multiple data marts are combined and streamlined to create a data warehouse.

Answer 144

False

Question 145

You can use OLAP to perform multidimensional data analysis.

Answer 145

True

Question 146

OLAP is unable to manage and handle queries with very large sets of data.

Answer 146

False

Question 147

In-memory computing relies primarily on a computer (RAM) for data storage.

Answer 147

True

Question 148

Middleware is an application that transfers information from an organization’s internal database to a web server for delivery to a user as part of a web page.

Answer 148

True

Question 149

Implementing a web interface for an organization’s internal database usually requires substantial changes to be made to the database.

Answer 149

False

Question 150

You can manipulate data on a web server by using a CGI script.

Answer 150

True

Question 151

You can use text mining tools to analyze unstructured data, such as memos and legal cases.

Answer 151

True

Question 152

In a client/server environment, a DBMS is located on a dedicated computer called a web server.

Answer 152

False

Question 153

Associations are occurrences linked to multiple events.

Answer 153

False

Question 154

High-speed analytic platforms use both relational and non-relational tools to analyze large datasets.

Answer 154

True

Question 155

Which of the following is software that handles all application operations between browser-based computers and a company's back-end business applications or databases?
A) Database server software
B) Application server software
C) Web browser software
D) Data mining software
E) Web server software

Answer 155

B) Application server software

Question 156

In data mining, which of the following involves using a series of existing values to determine what other future values will be?
A) Associations
B) Sequences
C) Classifications
D) Clustering
E) Forecasting

Answer 156

E) Forecasting

Question 157

An organization's rules for sharing, disseminating, acquiring, standardizing, classifying, and inventorying information is called a(n):
A) information policy.
B) data definition file.
C) data quality audit.
D) data governance policy.
E) data policy.

Answer 157

A) information policy.

Question 158

In a large organization, which of the following functions would be responsible for physical database design and maintenance?
A) Data administration
B) Database administration.
C) Information policy administration
D) Data auditing
E) Database management

Answer 158

B) Database administration.

Question 159

Which common database challenge is illustrated by a person receiving multiple copies of an L.L. Bean catalog, each addressed to a slightly different variation of his or her full name?
A) Data normalization
B) Data accuracy
C) Data redundancy
D) Data inconsistency
E) Data duplication

Answer 159

D) Data inconsistency

Question 160

Detecting and correcting data in a database or file that are incorrect, incomplete, improperly formatted, or redundant is called:
A) data auditing.
B) defragmentation.
C) data scrubbing.
D) data optimization.
E) data normalization.

Answer 160

C) data scrubbing.

Question 161

Data cleansing not only corrects errors but also:
A) establishes logical relationships between data.
B) structures data.
C) normalizes data.
D) removes duplicate data.
E) enforces consistency among different sets of data.

Answer 161

E) enforces consistency among different sets of data.

Question 162

Which of the following is not a method for performing a data quality audit?
A) Surveying entire data files
B) Surveying samples from data files
C) Surveying data definition and query files
D) Surveying end users about their perceptions of data quality
E) Surveying managers about their perceptions of data quality

Answer 162

C) Surveying data definition and query files

Question 163

The term data governance refers to the policies and processes for managing the integrity and security of data in a firm.

Answer 163

True

Question 164

In a large organization, which of the following functions would be responsible for policies and procedures for managing internal data resources?
A) Data administration
B) Database administration.
C) Information policy administration
D) Data auditing
E) Database management

Answer 164

A) Data administration

Question 165

Data scrubbing is a more intensive corrective process than data cleansing.

Answer 165

False

Question 166

In data mining, which of the following involves recognizing patterns that describe the group to which an item belongs by examining existing items and inferring a set of rules?
A) Associations
B) Sequences
C) Classifications
D) Clustering
E) Forecasting

Answer 166

C) Classifications

Question 167

In data mining, which of the following involves events linked over time? 
A) Associations
B) Sequences
C) Classifications
D) Clustering
E) Forecasting

Answer 167

B) Sequences

Question 168

MongoDB and SimpleDB are both examples of:
A) open source databases.
B) SQL databases.
C) NoSQL databases.
D) cloud databases.
E) .big data databases.

Answer 168

C) NoSQL databases.

Question 169

A one-to-one relationship between two entities is symbolized in a diagram by a line that ends:
A) in two short marks.
B) in one short mark.
C) with a crow’s foot.
D) with a crow’s foot topped by a short mark.
E) with a crow’s foot topped by two short marks.

Answer 169

A) in two short marks.

Question 170

Which of the following would you use to find patterns in user interaction data recorded by a web server?
A) Web usage mining
B) Web server mining
C) Web structure mining
D) Web content mining
E) Web protocol mining

Answer 170

A) Web usage mining

Question 171

Which of the following is a device that acts as a connection point between computers and can filter and forward data to a specified destination? 
A) Hub
B) Switch
C) Router
D) NIC
E) Modem

Answer 171

B) Switch

Question 172

The Internet is based on which three key technologies?
A) TCP/IP, HTML, and HTTP
B) TCP/IP, HTTP, and packet switching
C) Client/server computing, packet switching, and the development of communications standards for linking networks and computers
D) Client/server computing, packet switching, and HTTP
E) E-mail, instant messaging, and newsgroups

Answer 172

C) Client/server computing, packet switching, and the development of communications standards for linking networks and computers

Question 173

Which of the following involves slicing digital messages into parcels, transmitting them along different communication paths, and reassembling them at their destinations? 
A) Multiplexing
B) Packet shifting
C) Packet routing
D) ATM.
E) Packet switching

Answer 173

E) Packet switching

Question 174

The telephone system is an example of a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ network.
A) peer-to-peer
B) wireless
C) packet-switched
D) circuit-switched
E) client/server

Answer 174

D) circuit-switched

Question 175

Which of the following is not a characteristic of packet switching?
A) Packets travel independently of each other.
B) Packets are routed through many different paths.
C) Packet switching requires point-to-point circuits.
D) Packets include data for checking transmission errors.
E) Packets are reassembled into the original message when they reach their destinations.

Answer 175

C) Packet switching requires point-to-point circuits.

Question 176

In TCP/IP, IP is responsible for which of the following?
A) Disassembling and reassembling packets during transmission
B) Establishing an Internet connection between two computers
C) Moving packets over the network
D) Sequencing the transfer of packets
E) Breaking messages down into packets

Answer 176

A) Disassembling and reassembling packets during transmission

Question 177

Which of the following is the best description of a protocol in a telecommunications network architecture?
A) A device that handles the switching of voice and data in a local area network
B) A standard set of rules and procedures for control of communications in a network
C) A communications service for microcomputer users
D) The main computer in a telecommunications network
E) A pathway through which packets are routed

Answer 177

B) A standard set of rules and procedures for control of communications in a network

Question 178

What are the four layers of the TCP/IP reference model?
A) Physical, application, transport, and network interface
B) Physical, application, Internet, and network interface
C) Application, transport, Internet, and network interface
D) Application, hardware, Internet, and network interface
E) Software, hardware, network interface, Internet

Answer 178

C) Application, transport, Internet, and network interface

Question 179

On which of the following protocols is the Internet based? 
A) TCP/IP
B) FTP
C) IMAP
D) HTTP
E) DNS

Answer 179

A) TCP/IP

Question 180

A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a device that forwards packets of data through different networks, ensuring that the data gets to the right address.
A) modem
B) router
C) packet
D) telnet
E) hub

Answer 180

B) router

Question 181

Computer networks are fundamentally different from telephone networks.

Answer 181

True

Question 182

An NOS must reside on a dedicated server computer in order to manage a network.

Answer 182

False

Question 183

A hub is a networking device that is used to filter and forward data to specified destinations on the network.

Answer 183

False

Question 184

In a client/server network, a network server provides every connected client with an address so it can be found by others on the network.

Answer 184

True

Question 185

A computer network consists of at least three computers.

Answer 185

False

Question 186

Central large mainframe computing has largely replaced client/server computing.

Answer 186

False

Question 187

Circuit switching makes much more efficient use of the communications capacity of a network than does packet switching.

Answer 187

False

Question 188

Two computers using TCP/IP can communicate even if they are based on different hardware and software platforms.

Answer 188

True

Question 189

More than 200 million Americans access the Internet via mobile devices.

Answer 189

True

Question 190

In a large company today, you will often find an infrastructure that includes hundreds of small LANs linked to each other as well as to corporate-wide networks.

Answer 190

True

Question 191

TCP/IP was developed in the developed during the early 1970s to support Uefforts to help scientists transmit data among different types of computers over long distances.

Answer 191

True

Question 192

Which signal types are represented by a continuous waveform?
A) Laser
B) Optical
C) Digital
D) RFID
E) Analog

Answer 192

E) Analog

Question 193

To use the analog telephone system for sending digital data, you must also use:
A) a modem.
B) a router.
C) DSL.
D) twisted wire.
E) TCP/IP.

Answer 193

A) a modem.

Question 194

Which type of network is used to connect digital devices within a half-mile or 500-meter radius? 
A) Wi-Fi
B) LAN
C) WAN
D) MAN
E) SAN

Answer 194

B) LAN

Question 195

Which type of network treats all processors equally and allows peripheral devices to be shared without going to a separate server?
A) MAN
B) Wireless
C) LAN
D) Windows domain network
E) Peer-to-peer

Answer 195

E) Peer-to-peer

Question 196

Which type of network would be most appropriate for a business comprised of three employees and a manager located in the same office space, whose primary need is to share documents?
A) MAN
B) Domain-based LAN
C) Peer-to-peer network
D) WAN
E) SAN

Answer 196

C) Peer-to-peer network

Question 197

A network that spans a city, and sometimes its major suburbs, as well, is called a:
A) CAN.
B) MAN.
C) LAN.
D) WAN.
E) WSN.

Answer 197

B) MAN.

Question 198

A network that covers entire geographical regions is most commonly referred to as a(n):
A) local area network.
B) intranet.
C) peer-to-peer network.
D) wide area network.
E) MAN.

Answer 198

D) wide area network.

Question 199

Bandwidth is the:
A) number of frequencies that can be broadcast through a medium.
B) number of cycles per second that can be sent through a medium.
C) difference between the highest and lowest frequencies that can be accommodated on a single channel.
D) total number of bytes that can be sent through a medium per second.
E) geographical distance spanned by a network.

Answer 199

C) difference between the highest and lowest frequencies that can be accommodated on a single channel.

Question 200

The total amount of digital information that can be transmitted through any telecommunications medium is measured in:
A) bps.
B) Hertz.
C) baud.
D) gigaflops.
E) RPMs.

Answer 200

A) bps.

Question 201

A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ signal is a discrete, binary waveform that transmits data coded into two discrete states such as 1-bits and 0-bits.
A) modulated
B) broadband
C) T1
D) analog
E) digital

Answer 201

E) digital

Question 202

Coaxial cable is similar to that used for cable television and consists of thickly insulated copper wire.

Answer 202

True

Question 203

Fiber-optic cable is more expensive and harder to install than wire media.

Answer 203

True

Question 204

The number of cycles per second that can be sent through any telecommunications medium is measured in kilobytes.

Answer 204

False

Question 205

Which of the following is not one of the top five search engines?
A) Facebook
B) Yahoo
C) Microsoft Bing
D) Ask
E) Google

Answer 205

A) Facebook

Question 206

Digital subscriber lines:
A) operate over existing telephone lines to carry voice, data, and video.
B) operate over coaxial cable lines to deliver Internet access.
C) are very-high-speed data lines typically leased from long-distance telephone companies.
D) have up to twenty-four 64-Kbps channels.
E) are assigned to every computer on the Internet.

Answer 206

A) operate over existing telephone lines to carry voice, data, and video.

Question 207

T1 lines:
A) operate over existing telephone lines to carry voice, data, and video.
B) operate over coaxial lines to deliver Internet access.
C) do not provide guaranteed service levels, but simply “best effort.”
D) have up to twenty-four 64-Kbps channels.
E) are high-speed, leased data lines providing guaranteed service levels.

Answer 207

E) are high-speed, leased data lines providing guaranteed service levels.

Question 208

What service converts IP addresses into more recognizable alphanumeric names? 
A) HTML
B) FTP
C) IP
D) HTTP
E) DNS

Answer 208

E) DNS

Question 209

The child domain of the root is called the:
A) top-level domain.
B) second-level domain.
C) host name.
D) domain extension.
E) mid-tier domain.

Answer 209

A) top-level domain.

Question 210

In the domain name “http://books.azimuth-interactive.com”, which element is the second-level domain?
A) books
B) azimuth-interactive
C) com
D) none; there is no second-level domain in this name
E) books.azimuth-interactive

Answer 210

B) azimuth-interactive

Question 211

Which organization helps define the overall structure of the Internet?
A) none (no one "owns" the Internet)
B) W3C
C) ICANN
D) The Department of Commerce (U.S.)
E) IAB

Answer 211

E) IAB

Question 212

IPv6 has been developed in order to:
A) update the packet transmission protocols for higher bandwidth.
B) create more IP addresses.
C) allow for different levels of service.
D) support Internet2.
E) reduce excess IP addresses.

Answer 212

B) create more IP addresses.

Question 213

Predictive search in Google’s search engine:
A) maintains a history of your searches and then predicts what you will search on next.
B) uses a tracking service and cookies on your browser to predict search results.
C) uses a knowledge graph of what similar people searched on to predict your search interests.
D) uses a semantic approach to predict what you are looking for.
E) predicts what you are looking for as you enter words into the query box.

Answer 213

E) predicts what you are looking for as you enter words into the query box.

Question 214

Instant messaging is a type of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ service.
A) chat
B) cellular
C) e-mail
D) wireless
E) network

Answer 214

A) chat

Question 215

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ integrate disparate channels for voice communications, data communications, instant messaging, e-mail, and electronic conferencing into a single experience.
A) Wireless networks
B) Intranets
C) Virtual private networks
D) Modems
E) Unified communications

Answer 215

E) Unified communications

Question 216

A VPN:
A) is an encrypted private network configured within a public network.
B) is more expensive than a dedicated network.
C) provides secure, encrypted communications using Telnet.
D) is an Internet-based service for delivering voice communications.
E) is a proprietary networking service technology developed by individual corporations.

Answer 216

A) is an encrypted private network configured within a public network.

Question 217

Web browser software requests web pages from the Internet using which of the following protocols? 
A) URL
B) HTTP
C) DNS
D) HTML
E) FTP

Answer 217

B) HTTP

Question 218

Together, a protocol prefix, a domain name, a directory path, and a document name, are called a(n):
A) uniform resource locator.
B) IP address.
C) third-level domain.
D) root domain.
E) child domain.

Answer 218

A) uniform resource locator.

Question 219

The most common web server today is:
A) Microsoft IIS.
B) WebSTAR.
C) IBM HTTP Server.
D) Netscape Server.
E) Apache HTTP Server.

Answer 219

E) Apache HTTP Server.

Question 220

Which of the following pulls content from websites and feeds it automatically to a user’s computers? 
A) FTP
B) RSS
C) HTTP
D) Bluetooth
E) IPv6

Answer 220

B) RSS

Question 221

Which of the following can be used to help a website achieve a higher ranking with the major search engines? 
A) VPN.
B) IAB.
C) SEM.
D) SEO.
E) RSS.

Answer 221

D) SEO.

Question 222

Which of the following statements is not true about search engines?
A) They are arguably the Internet’s “killer app.”
B) They have solved the problem of how users instantly find information on the Internet.
C) They are monetized almost exclusively by search engine marketing.
D) There are hundreds of search engines vying for user attention, with no clear leader having yet emerged.
E) Users are increasingly using search engines on mobile devices.

Answer 222

D) There are hundreds of search engines vying for user attention, with no clear leader having yet emerged.

Question 223

Which process is used to protect transmitted data in a VPN?
A) Tunneling
B) PPP
C) VOIP
D) Packet-switching
E) Chaining

Answer 223

A) Tunneling

Question 224

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ monetizes the value of the data stored by search engines.
A) TCP/IP
B) RSS
C) WiMax
D) IoT
E) SEM

Answer 224

E) SEM

Question 225

Shopping bots use \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ software for searching the Internet.
A) Web 2.0
B) Web 3.0
C) intelligent agent
D) comparison
E) SEO

Answer 225

C) intelligent agent

Question 226

Which of the following is not a defining feature of Web 2.0?
A) Interactivity
B) Real-time user control
C) Semantic search
D) Social participation (sharing)
E) User-generated content

Answer 226

C) Semantic search

Question 227

A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a commercial organization with a permanent connection to the Internet that sells temporary connections to retail subscribers.
A) RSS
B) WAN
C) NFP
D) ISP
E) FTP

Answer 227

D) ISP

Question 228

The backbone networks of the Internet are typically owned by long-distance telephone companies called:
A) regional network providers.
B) enhanced service providers.
C) internet bulk providers.
D) backbone providers.
E) network service providers.

Answer 228

E) network service providers.

Question 229

A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is software for locating and managing stored web pages.
A) web server
B) net server
C) router
D) modem
E) hub

Answer 229

web pages.

A) web server

Question 230

Wikis allow visitors to change or add to the original posted material.

Answer 230

True

Question 231

The Domain Name System (DNS) converts domain names to IP addresses.

Answer 231

True

Question 232

VoIP technology delivers voice information in digital form using packet switching.

Answer 232

True

Question 233

Web 3.0 is an effort to add a layer of meaning to the existing web in order to reduce the amount of human involvement in searching for and processing web information.

Answer 233

True

Question 234

Mobile search makes up at more than 50% of all Internet searches.

Answer 234

True

Question 235

All of the following are physical components of an RFID system except:
A) bar codes.
B) antennas.
C) radio transmitters.
D) tags.
E) a stationary or handheld device.

Answer 235

A) bar codes.

Question 236

Which digital cellular standard is used widely throughout the world except the United States?
A) GSM
B) CDMA
C) WLAN
D) LTD
E) 4G

Answer 236

A) GSM

Question 237

The concept of a future web in which it is commonplace for everyday objects to be connected, controlled or monitored over the Internet is called:
A) the Internet of Things.
B) the Semantic Web.
C) Internet2.
D) a 3-D Web.
E) Web 2.0.

Answer 237

A) the Internet of Things.

Question 238

Which of the following statements about RFID is not true?
A) RFIDs transmit only over a short range.
B) RFIDs use an antenna to transmit data.
C) Microchips embedded in RFIDs are used to store data.
D) RFIDs require line-of-sight contact to be read.
E) RFID tags and antennas come in a variety of shapes and sizes.

Answer 238

D) RFIDs require line-of-sight contact to be read.

Question 239

Which of the following is the first generation of cellular systems suitable for watching videos?
A) 2G
B) 2.5G
C) 3G
D) 3.5G
E) 4G

Answer 239

E) 4G

Question 240

4G networks use which of the following standards?
A) GSM and LTD
B) CDMA and PAN
C) LTE and LTD
D) T-Mobile and AT&T
E) LTE and WiMax

Answer 240

E) LTE and WiMax

Question 241

The most appropriate wireless networking standard for creating PANs is:
A) I-mode.
B) IEEE 802.11b.
C) Wi-Fi.
D) Bluetooth.
E) RFID.

Answer 241

D) Bluetooth.

Question 242

Bluetooth can be used to link up to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ devices within a 10-meter area using low-power, radio-based communication. 
A) two
B) five
C) eight
D) fifteen
E) twenty

Answer 242

C) eight

Question 243

One or more access points positioned on a ceiling, wall, or other strategic spot in a public place to provide maximum wireless coverage for a specific area are referred to as:
A) touch points.
B) netcenters.
C) hot points.
D) wireless hubs.
E) hotspots.

Answer 243

E) hotspots.

Question 244

The 802.11 set of standards is known as:
A) WLAN.
B) WSN.
C) Wi-Fi.
D) WiMax.
E) WAN.

Answer 244

C) Wi-Fi.

Question 245

The WiMax standard can transmit up to a distance of approximately:
A) 30 meters.
B) 500 meters.
C) 30 miles.
D) 5 miles.
E) 70 miles.

Answer 245

C) 30 miles.

Question 246

Based on your reading of the examples in the chapter, which of the following would be the best use of RFID for a business?
A) Logging transactions
B) Managing the supply chain
C) Lowering network costs
D) Enabling client communication
E) Improving employee engagement

Answer 246

B) Managing the supply chain

Question 247

Macy’s Pick to the Last Unit system, described in the chapter-opening case, is an example of which of the following?
A) IoT application
B) IoP application
C) BLE application
D) GPS application
E) Web 3.0 application

Answer 247

A) IoT application

Question 248

A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a box consisting of a radio receiver/transmitter and antennas that links to a wired network, router, or hub.
A) RFID receiver
B) WiMax receiver
C) access point
D) hub
E) hotspot

Answer 248

C) access point

Question 249

RFID technology is being gradually replaced by less costly technologies such as WSNs.

Answer 249

False

Question 250

e “Internet of Things” refers to a vision of a pervasive Web, in which common objects are connected to and controlled over the Internet.

Answer 250

True

Question 251

Apple Pay uses an RFID-related technology called near field communication.

Answer 251

True

Question 252

NFC tags are always passive.

Answer 252

False

Question 253

Digital rights activists believe “zero-rating” practices violate net neutrality principles.

Answer 253

True

Question 254

In addition to being an online retailer, Amazon is also a powerful search engine.

Answer 254

True

Question 255

The emerging Internet of People is based on sensors attached to clothing and personal effects that monitor physical states and locations of individuals.

Answer 255

True

Question 256

Which of the following refers to policies, procedures, and technical measures used to prevent unauthorized access, alteration, theft, or physical damage to information systems? 
A) Security
B) Controls
C) Benchmarking
D) Algorithms
E) Identity management

Answer 256

A) Security

Question 257

Which of the following refers to all of the methods, policies, and organizational procedures that ensure the safety of the organization's assets, the accuracy and reliability of its accounting records, and operational adherence to management standards?
A) Legacy systems
B) SSID standards
C) Vulnerabilities
D) Security policy
E) Controls

Answer 257

E) Controls

Question 258

Most computer viruses deliver a: 
A) worm.
B) Trojan horse.
C) driveby download.
D) keylogger.
E) payload.

Answer 258

E) payload.

Question 259

Which of the following statements about wireless security is not true?
A) SSIDs are broadcast multiple times and can be picked up fairly easily by sniffer programs.
B) Radio frequency bands are easy to scan.
C) An intruder who has associated with an access point by using the correct SSID is capable of accessing other resources on the network,
D) Intruders can force a user’s NIC to associate with a rogue access point.
E) Bluetooth is the only wireless technology that is not susceptible to hacking by eavesdroppers.

Answer 259

E) Bluetooth is the only wireless technology that is not susceptible to hacking by eavesdroppers.

Question 260

All of the following are specific security challenges that threaten the communications lines in a client/server environment except: 
A) errors.
B) tapping.
C) theft and fraud.
D) radiation.
E) sniffing.

Answer 260

A) errors.

Question 261

All of the following are specific security challenges that threaten corporate servers in a client/server environment except:
A) hacking.
B) malware.
C) denial-of-service attacks.
D) sniffing.
E) vandalism.

Answer 261

D) sniffing.

Question 262

All of the following are specific security challenges that threaten corporate systems in a client/server environment except:
A) theft of data.
B) copying of data.
C) alteration of data.
D) radiation.
E) hardware failure.

Answer 262

D) radiation.

Question 263

CryptoLocker is an example of which of the following?
A) Worm
B) SQL injection attack
C) Sniffer
D) Evil twin
E) Ransomware

Answer 263

E) Ransomware

Question 264

Which of the following statements about the Internet security is not true?
A) The use of P2P networks can expose a corporate computer to outsiders.
B) A corporate network without access to the Internet is more secure than one that provides access.
C) VoIP is more secure than the switched voice network.
D) Instant messaging can provide hackers access to an otherwise secure network.
E) Smartphones have the same security weaknesses as other Internet devices.

Answer 264

C) VoIP is more secure than the switched voice network

Question 265

A Trojan horse:
A) is software that appears to be benign but does something other than expected.
B) is a virus that replicates quickly.
C) is malware named for a breed of fast-moving Near-Eastern horses.
D) installs spyware on users’ computers.
E) is a type of sniffer used to infiltrate corporate networks.

Answer 265

A) is software that appears to be benign but does something other than expected.

Question 266

A salesperson clicks repeatedly on the online ads of a competitor's in order to drive the competitor's advertising costs up. This is an example of:
A) phishing.
B) pharming.
C) spoofing.
D) evil twins.
E) click fraud.

Answer 266

E) click fraud.

Question 267

Which of the following is a virus that uses flaws in Windows software to take over a computer remotely?
A) Sasser
B) Zeus 
C) Cryptolocker
D) ILOVEYOU
E) Conficker

Answer 267

E) Conficker

Question 268

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is malware that hijacks a user's computer and demands payment in return for giving back access.
A) A Trojan horse
B) Ransomware
C) Spyware
D) A virus
E) An evil twin

Answer 268

B) Ransomware

Question 269

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is malware that logs and transmits everything a user types.
A) Spyware
B) A Trojan horse
C) A keylogger
D) A worm
E) A sniffer

Answer 269

C) A keylogger

Question 270

Which of the following statements about botnets is not true?
A) Eighty percent of the world’s malware is delivered by botnets..
B) Botnets are often used to perpetrate DDoS attacks.
C) Ninety percent of the world’s spam is delivered by botnets.
D) Botnets are often used for click fraud.
E) It is not possible to make a smartphone part of a botnet.

Answer 270

E) It is not possible to make a smartphone part of a botnet.

Question 271

Using numerous computers to inundate and overwhelm the network from numerous launch points is called a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ attack.
A) DDoS
B) DoS
C) SQL injection
D) phishing
E) botnet

Answer 271

A) DDoS

Question 272

Which of the following is not an example of a computer used as a target of crime?
A) Knowingly accessing a protected computer to commit fraud
B) Accessing a computer system without authority
C) Illegally accessing stored electronic communication
D) Threatening to cause damage to a protected computer
E) Breaching the confidentiality of protected computerized data

Answer 272

C) Illegally accessing stored electronic communication

Question 273

Which of the following is not an example of a computer used as an instrument of crime?
A) Theft of trade secrets
B) Intentionally attempting to intercept electronic communication
C) Unauthorized copying of software
D) Breaching the confidentiality of protected computerized data
E) Schemes to defraud

Answer 273

D) Breaching the confidentiality of protected computerized data

Question 274

Which of the following specifically makes malware distribution and hacker attacks to disable websites a federal crime?
A) Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
B) Economic Espionage Act
C) Electronic Communications Privacy Act
D) Data Security and Breach Notification Act
E) National Information Infrastructure Protection Act

Answer 274

E) National Information Infrastructure Protection Act

Question 275

The intentional defacement or destruction of a website is called:
A) spoofing.
B) cybervandalism. 
C) cyberwarfare.
D) phishing.
E) pharming.

Answer 275

B) cybervandalism.

Question 276

Evil twins are:
A) Trojan horses that appears to the user to be a legitimate commercial software application.
B) e-mail messages that mimic the e-mail messages of a legitimate business.
C) fraudulent websites that mimic a legitimate business’s website.
D) computers that fraudulently access a website or network using the IP address and identification of an authorized computer.
E) bogus wireless network access points that look legitimate to users.

Answer 276

E) bogus wireless network access points that look legitimate to users.

Question 277

Pharming involves:
A) redirecting users to a fraudulent website even when the user has typed in the correct address in the web browser.
B) pretending to be a legitimate business’s representative in order to garner information about a security system.
C) setting up fake website to ask users for confidential information.
D) using e-mails for threats or harassment.
E) setting up fake Wi-Fi access points that look as if they are legitimate public networks

Answer 277

A) redirecting users to a fraudulent website even when the user has typed in the correct address in the web browser.

Question 278

hich of the following is the single greatest cause of network security breaches?
A) Viruses
B) User lack of knowledge
C) Trojan horses
D) Cyberwarfare
E) Bugs

Answer 278

B) User lack of knowledge

Question 279

Tricking employees into revealing their passwords by pretending to be a legitimate member of a company is called:
A) sniffing.
B) social engineering.
C) phishing.
D) pharming.
E) snooping

Answer 279

B) social engineering.

Question 280

According to Ponemon Institute’s 2015 Annual Cost of Cyber Crime Study, the average annualized cost of cybercrime for companies in the United States was approximately: 
A) $1.5 million.
B) $15 million.
C) $150 million.
D) $1.5 billion.
E) $15 billion.

Answer 280

B) $15 million.

Question 281

Which of the following refers to eavesdroppers driving by buildings or parking outside and trying to intercept wireless network traffic? 
A) War driving
B) Sniffing
C) Cybervandalism
D) Drive-by tapping
E) Snooping

Answer 281

A) War driving

Question 282

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a crime in which an imposter obtains key pieces of personal information to impersonate someone else. 
A) Identity theft
B) Spoofing
C) Social engineering
D) Evil twins
E) Pharming

Answer 282

A) Identity theft

Question 283

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ identify the access points in a Wi-Fi network.
A) NICs
B) Mac addresses
C) URLs
D) UTMs
E) SSIDs

Answer 283

E) SSIDs

Question 284

A foreign country attempting to access government networks in order to disable a national power grid is an example of:
A) phishing.
B) denial-of-service attacks.
C) cyberwarfare.
D) cyberterrorism.
E) evil twins.

Answer 284

C) cyberwarfare

Question 285

Smartphones have the same security flaws as other Internet-connected devices.

Answer 285

True

Question 286

The Apple iOS platform is mobile platform most frequently targeted by hackers

Answer 286

False

Question 287

Viruses can be spread through e-mail.

Answer 287

True

Question 288

The term cracker is used to identify a hacker whose specialty is breaking open security systems.

Answer 288

False

Question 289

Wireless networks are more difficult for hackers to gain access too because radio frequency bands are difficult to scan.

Answer 289

False

Question 290

A computer virus replicates more quickly than a computer worm

Answer 290

False

Question 291

One form of spoofing involves forging the return address on an e-mail so that the e-mail message appears to come from someone other than the sender.

Answer 291

True

Question 292

Sniffers enable hackers to steal proprietary information from anywhere on a network, including e-mail messages, company files, and confidential reports.

Answer 292

True

Question 293

DoS attacks are used to destroy information and access restricted areas of a company’s information system.

Answer 293

False

Question 294

Zero defects cannot be achieved in larger software programs because fully testing programs that contain thousands of choices and millions of paths would require thousands of years.

Answer 294

True

Question 295

Most IoT devices support sophisticated security approaches

Answer 295

False

Question 296

Malicious software programs referred to as spyware include a variety of threats such as computer viruses, worms, and Trojan horses.

Answer 296

False

Question 297

The HIPAA Act of 1996:
A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.
B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control.
C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.
D) outlines medical security and privacy rules.
E) identifies computer abuse as a crime and defines abusive activities.

Answer 297

D) outlines medical security and privacy rules.

Question 298

The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act:
A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.
B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control.
C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.
D) outlines medical security and privacy rules.
E) identifies computer abuse as a crime and defines abusive activities.

Answer 298

A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.

Question 299

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act:
A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.
B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control.
C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.
D) outlines medical security and privacy rules.
E) identifies computer abuse as a crime and defines abusive activities.

Answer 299

C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.

Question 300

Which of the following is the most common type of electronic evidence?
A) Voice-mail
B) Spreadsheets
C) Instant messages
D) E-mail
E) VOIP data

Answer 300

D) E-mail

Question 301

Which of the following is a type of ambient data?
A) Computer log containing recent system errors
B) A file deleted from a hard disk
C) A file that contains an application’s user settings
D) A set of raw data from an environmental sensor
E) Data that has been recorded over

Answer 301

B) A file deleted from a hard disk

Question 302

Computer forensics tasks include all of the following except:
A) presenting collected evidence in a court of law.
B) securely storing recovered electronic data.
C) collecting physical evidence on the computer.
D) finding significant information in a large volume of electronic data.

Answer 302

C) collecting physical evidence on the computer.

Question 303

Your company, an online discount pet supply store, has calculated that a loss of Internet connectivity for 3 hours results in a potential loss of $2,000 to $3,000 and that there is a 50% chance of this occurring each year. What is the annual expected loss from this exposure? 
A) $500
B) $1,000
C) $1,250
D) $1,500
E) $2,500

Answer 303

C) $1,250

Question 304

Application controls:
A) can be classified as input controls, processing controls, and output controls.
B) govern the design, security, and use of computer programs and the security of data files in general throughout the organization.
C) apply to all computerized applications and consist of a combination of hardware, software, and manual procedures that create an overall control environment.
D) include software controls, computer operations controls, and implementation controls.
E) monitor the use of system software and prevent unauthorized access to software and programs.

Answer 304

A) can be classified as input controls, processing controls, and output controls.

Question 305

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ controls ensure that valuable business data files on either disk or tape are not subject to unauthorized access, change, or destruction while they are in use or in storage.
A) Software 
B) Administrative 
C) Data security 
D) Implementation 
E) Input

Answer 305

C) Data security

Question 306

An analysis of an information system that rates the likelihood of a security incident occurring and its cost would be included in which of the following?
A) Security policy
B) AUP
C) Risk assessment
D) Business impact analysis
E) Business continuity plan

Answer 306

C) Risk assessment

Question 307

A statements ranking information risks and identifying security goals would be included in which of the following?
A) Security policy
B) AUP
C) Risk assessment
D) Business impact analysis
E) Business continuity plan

Answer 307

A) Security policy

Question 308

An acceptable use policy defines the acceptable level of access to information assets for different users.

Answer 308

False

Question 309

Which of the following specifications replaced WEP with a stronger security standard that features changing encryption keys?
A) TLS
B) AUP
C) VPN
D) WPA2
E) UTM

Answer 309

D) WPA2

Question 310

Which of the following statements about passwords is not true?
A) Authentication cannot be established by the use of a password
B) Password systems that are too rigorous may hinder employee productivity.
C) Passwords can be stolen through social engineering.
D) Passwords are often disregarded by employees.
E) Passwords can be sniffed when being transmitted over a network.

Answer 310

A) Authentication cannot be established by the use of a password

Question 311

An authentication token is a(n):
A) device the size of a credit card that contains access permission data.
B) type of smart card.
C) gadget that displays passcodes.
D) electronic marker attached to a digital authorization file.

Answer 311

C) gadget that displays passcodes.

Question 312

All of the following are currently being used as traits that can be profiled by biometric authentication except:
A) fingerprints.
B) facial characteristics.
C) body odor.
D) retinal images.
E) voice.

Answer 312

C) body odor.

Question 313

A firewall allows the organization to:
A) enforce a security policy on data exchanged between its network and the Internet.
B) check the accuracy of all transactions between its network and the Internet.
C) create an enterprise system on the Internet.
D) check the content of all incoming and outgoing e-mail messages.
E) create access rules for a network.

Answer 313

A) enforce a security policy on data exchanged between its network and the Internet.

Question 314

________ use scanning software to look for known problems such as bad passwords, the removal of important files, security attacks in progress, and system administration errors.
A) Stateful inspections
B) Intrusion detection systems
C) Application proxy filtering technologies
D) Packet filtering technologies
E) Firewalls

Answer 314

B) Intrusion detection systems

Question 315

Currently, the protocols used for secure information transfer over the Internet are:
A) TCP/IP and SSL.
B) S-HTTP and CA.
C) HTTP and TCP/IP.
D) S-HTTP and SHTML.
E) SSL, TLS, and S-HTTP.

Answer 315

E) SSL, TLS, and S-HTTP.

Question 316

According to the 2016 Identity Fraud Study by Javelin Strategy & Research, how much did consumers lose to identity fraud in 2015?
A) $1.5 million
B) $15 million
C) $150 million
D) $1.5 billion
E) $15 billion

Answer 316

E) $15 billion

Question 317

In which method of encryption is a single encryption key sent to the receiver so both sender and receiver share the same key?
A) SSL/TLS
B) Symmetric key encryption
C) Public key encryption
D) Private key encryption
E) Distributed encryption

Answer 317

B) Symmetric key encryption

Question 318

A digital certificate system:
A) uses third-party CAs to validate a user’s identity.
B) uses digital signatures to validate a user’s identity.
C) uses tokens to validate a user’s identity.
D) is used primarily by individuals for personal correspondence.
E) protects a user’s identity by substituting a certificate in place of identifiable traits.

Answer 318

A) uses third-party CAs to validate a user’s identity.

Question 319

All of the following are types of information systems general controls except:
A) application controls.
B) computer operations controls.
C) physical hardware controls.
D) software controls.
E) administrative controls

Answer 319

A) application controls.

Question 320

For 100-percent availability, online transaction processing requires:
A) high-capacity storage.
B) a multi-tier server network.
C) fault-tolerant computer systems.
D) dedicated phone lines.
E) a digital certificate system.

Answer 320

C) fault-tolerant computer systems.

Question 321

In controlling network traffic to minimize slow-downs, a technology called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is used to examine data files and sort low-priority data from high-priority data.
A) high availability computing
B) deep-packet inspection
C) application proxy filtering
D) stateful inspection
E) unified threat management

Answer 321

B) deep-packet inspection

Question 322

An authentication system in which a user must provide two types of identification, such as a bank card and PIN, is called:
A) smart card authentication.
B) biometric authentication.
C) two-factor authentication.
D) symmetric key authorization.
E) token authentication.

Answer 322

C) two-factor authentication.

Question 323

Which of the following provides additional security by determining whether packets are part of an ongoing dialogue between a sender and receiver?
A) NAT
B) Packet filtering
C) Deep packet inspection
D) Stateful inspection
E) Application proxy filtering

Answer 323

D) Stateful inspection

Question 324

Comprehensive security management products, with tools for firewalls, VPNs, intrusion detection systems, and more, are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ systems. 
A) DPI
B) MSSP
C) NSP
D) PKI
E) UTM

Answer 324

E) UTM

Question 325

Organizations can use existing network security software to secure mobile devices

Answer 325

False

Question 326

The dispersed nature of cloud computing makes it difficult to track unauthorized access.

Answer 326

True

Question 327

Biometric authentication is the use of personal, biographic details such as the high school you attended and the first street you lived on to provide identification.

Answer 327

False

Question 328

Packet filtering catches most types of network attacks.

Answer 328

False

Question 329

NAT conceals the IP addresses of the organization’s internal host computers to deter sniffer programs

Answer 329

True

Question 330

SSL is a protocol used to establish a secure connection between two computers.

Answer 330

True

Question 331

Public key encryption uses two keys.

Answer 331

True

Question 332

Smartphones typically feature state-of-the-art encryption and security features, making them highly secure tools for businesses.

Answer 332

False

Question 333

Authentication refers to verifying that a person is who he or she claims to be.

Answer 333

True

Question 334

You can test software before it is even written by conducting a walkthrough.

Answer 334

True

Question 335

When errors are discovered in software programs, the sources of the errors are found and eliminated through a process called debugging.

Answer 335

True

Question 336

All of the following have contributed to an increase in software flaws except:
A) the growing complexity of software programs.
B) the growing size of software programs.
C) demands for timely delivery to markets,
D) the inability to fully test programs.
E) the increase in malicious intruders seeking system access.

Answer 336

E) the increase in malicious intruders seeking system access.

Question 337

Which of the following defines acceptable uses of a firm’s information resources and computing equipment? 
A) An information systems audit policy
B) A CA policy
C) A MSSP
D) A UTM system
E) An AUP

Answer 337

E) An AUP

Question 338

Which of the following focuses primarily on the technical issues of keeping systems up and running?
A) Business continuity planning
B) Security policies
C) Disaster recovery planning
D) An AUP
E) An information systems audit

Answer 338

C) Disaster recovery planning

Question 339

Which of the following is an example of a keylogger?
A) Zeus
B) Conficker
C) Sasser
D) ILOVEYOU
E) Cryptolocker

Answer 339

A) Zeus

Question 340

Target has had to pay out over $100 million to U.S. banks, credit card companies and consumers as a result of a data breach in 2013.

Answer 340

True

Question 341

Which of the following statements best describes the business value of improved decision making?
A) Improved decision making creates better products.
B) Improved decision making results in a large monetary value for the firm as numerous small daily decisions affecting efficiency, production, costs, and more add up to large annual values.
C) Improved decision making enables senior executives to more accurately foresee future financial trends.
D) Improved decision making strengthens customer and supplier intimacy, which reduces costs.
E) Improved decision making creates a better organizational culture.

Answer 341

B) Improved decision making results in a large monetary value for the firm as numerous small daily decisions affecting efficiency, production, costs, and more add up to large annual values.

Question 342

When there is no well-understood or agreed-on procedure for making a decision, it is said to be:
A) undocumented.
B) unstructured.
C) documented.
D) semi-structured.
E) ad-hoc.

Answer 342

B) unstructured.

Question 343

If you can follow a definite procedure to make a business decision, you are making a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ decision.
A) ad-hoc
B) procedural
C) unstructured
D) semistructured
E) structured

Answer 343

E) structured

Question 344

Which type of decision is calculating gross pay for hourly workers?
A) Semi-structured
B) Procedural
C) Structured
D) Unstructured
E) Ad hoc

Answer 344

C) Structured

Question 345

Which type of decision is deciding whether to introduce a new product line?
A) Structured
B) Unstructured
C) Recurring
D) Nonrecurring
E) Procedural

Answer 345

B) Unstructured

Question 346

The decision to approve a capital budget is an example of a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ decision.
A) structured
B) ad hoc
C) semi-structured
D) undocumented
E) unstructured

Answer 346

E) unstructured

Question 347

The decisions involved in creating and producing a corporate intranet can be classified as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ decisions.
A) semistructured
B) procedural
C) ad hoc
D) structured
E) unstructured

Answer 347

A) semistructured

Question 348

Checking store inventory is an example of a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ decision.
A) procedural
B) structured
C) ad hoc
D) unstructured
E) semi-structured

Answer 348

B) structured

Question 349

The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ phase of decision making finds or recognizes a problem, need, or opportunity.
A) choice
B) design
C) implementation
D) analysis
E) intelligence

Answer 349

E) intelligence

Question 350

Which of the following is not one of the Simon's four stages of decision making?
A) Implementation
B) Intelligence
C) Analysis
D) Choice
E) Design

Answer 350

C) Analysis

Question 351

Which of the following is not one of the five observed ways in which managerial behavior differs from the classical description of managers?
A) Managers perform a great deal of work at an unrelenting pace.
B) Managers perform a low number of activities for a high percentage of time.
C) Managers prefer current, specific, ad-hoc information.
D) Managers prefer oral forms of communication.
E) Managers give high priority to maintaining a diverse web of contacts.

Answer 351

B) Managers perform a low number of activities for a high percentage of time.

Question 352

The role of liaison falls into which of Mintzberg's managerial classifications?
A) Decisional
B) Informational
C) Interpersonal
D) Symbolic
E) Leading

Answer 352

C) Interpersonal

Question 353

Mintzberg outlined three categories of managerial roles:
A) interpersonal, informational, and decisional.
B) control, leadership, oversight.
C) operational, management, and executive.
D) cultural, organizational, and technical.
E) middle management, senior management, executive

Answer 353

A) interpersonal, informational, and decisional.

Question 354

The role of entrepreneur falls into which of Mintzberg's managerial classifications?
A) Decisional
B) Informational
C) Interpersonal
D) Symbolic
E) Leading

Answer 354

A) Decisional

Question 355

According to Mintzberg, managers in their informational role act as:
A) figureheads for the organization.
B) leaders.
C) nerve centers of the organization.
D) negotiators.
E) liaisons.

Answer 355

C) nerve centers of the organization.

Question 356

Which of the following systems support a manager's role as leader of an organization?
A) DSS
B) Telepresence systems
C) E-mail
D) MIS
E) ESS

Answer 356

B) Telepresence systems

Question 357

All of the following managerial roles can be supported by information systems except: 
A) liaison.
B) resource allocator.
C) nerve center
D) disseminator.
E) negotiator.

Answer 357

E) negotiator.

Question 358

When managers represent their company in the outside world and perform symbolic duties, they are acting in their: 
A) decisional role.
B) managerial role.
C) informational role.
D) interpersonal role.
E) leadership role.

Answer 358

D) interpersonal role.

Question 359

As discussed in the chapter text, the three main reasons that investments in information technology do not always produce positive results are:
A) management support, technical logistics, and user compliance.
B) organization, environment, culture.
C) information quality, information integrity, and information accuracy.
D) information quality, organizational culture, and management filters.
E) organization, culture, and technology.

Answer 359

D) information quality, organizational culture, and management filters.

Question 360

The concept of management \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ describes situations in which managers act on preconceived notions that reject information that does not conform to their prior conceptions.
A) filters
B) backgrounds
C) biases
D) inefficiency
E) politics

Answer 360

A) filters

Question 361

Which quality dimension of information is concerned that the data values of an information source fall within a defined range? 
A) Timeliness
B) Consistency
C) Completeness
D) Accessibility
E) Validity

Answer 361

E) Validity

Question 362

The dimension of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ describes whether data elements are consistently defined.
A) completeness
B) accuracy
C) validity
D) consistency
E) integrity

Answer 362

D) consistency

Question 363

High-velocity decision making systems are growing rapidly for decisions classed as:
A) semistructured.
B) financial.
C) ad hoc.
D) predefined.
E) highly structured.

Answer 363

E) highly structured.

Question 364

Which of the following describes how the Simon framework of decision-making works in high-velocity decision environments?
A) Only the initial step is performed by the software; the final three steps are handled by humans.
B) The first two steps of Simon’s framework are eliminated and the final two steps are handled by software algorithms.
C) The first three steps of the process are handled by software algorithms and the final step is handled by experienced managers.
D) All four steps are performed by humans with the support of high-speed, high-volume DSS and ESS.
E) All four steps of the process are handled by software algorithms; humans are eliminated from the decisions because they are too slow.

Answer 364

E) All four steps of the process are handled by software algorithms; humans are eliminated from the decisions because they are too slow.

Question 365

A drawback to high-velocity, automated decision-making systems is that they are unable to:
A) handle high volumes of decisions.
B) handle structured decisions.
C) handle semi structured decisions.
D) control themselves and respond to new environments.
E) be applied to situations outside of the financial world.

Answer 365

D) control themselves and respond to new environments

Question 366

Improving the quality of high-value decision making by an executive will save an organization far more money than improving the quality of lesser-value decisions made at a lower level.

Answer 366

False

Question 367

A structured decision cannot be made by following a well-defined set of procedures. “Feel” or intuition is necessary.

Answer 367

False

Question 368

Middle management face primarily semi-structured decisions.

Answer 368

True

Question 369

Structured decision making is most prevalent at lower organizational levels.

Answer 369

True

Question 370

The design phase of decision making consists of discovering, identifying, and understanding the problems occurring in the organization.

Answer 370

False

Question 371

The choice phase of Simon’s decision-making model includes choosing among solution alternatives.

Answer 371

True

Question 372

The first stage in Simon’s decision-making process model is the design stage.

Answer 372

False

Question 373

The classical model of management does not address what exactly managers do when they plan, decide things, and control the work of others.

Answer 373

True

Question 374

A structured decision is repetitive and routine, for which known procedures provide solutions.

Answer 374

True

Question 375

The third stage in Simon’s description of decision making is implementation.

Answer 375

False

Question 376

Behavioral models of management see managers as being \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ than does the classical model.
A) more systematic
B) more informal
C) more reflective
D) more well organized
E) less reactive

Answer 376

B) more informal

Question 377

Which of the following is not one of the five classical functions of managers?
A) Leading
B) Deciding
C) Planning
D) Organizing
E) Controlling

Answer 377

A) Leading

Question 378

Which of the following BI tools or abilities has been driving the movement toward "smart cities?"
A) OLAP 
B) Chi-square analysis 
C) Predictive analytics
D) Data mining 
E) Big data analytics

Answer 378

E) Big data analytics

Question 379

The dimension of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in information quality describes whether the structure of data is consistent.
A) integrity
B) accuracy
C) timeliness
D) completeness
E) consistency

Answer 379

A) integrity

Question 380

Which of the following statements best describes the term business intelligence?
A) Software developed exclusively for business management
B) The tools and techniques used to analyze and understand business data
C) The infrastructure for collecting and managing business data
D) Information systems involved in business decision making
E) Enterprise systems used to make business decisions

Answer 380

A) Software developed exclusively for business management

Question 381

Decisions regarding managing and monitoring day-to-day business activities are referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ intelligence.
A) business
B) analytical
C) operational
D) transactional
E) production

Answer 381

C) operational

Question 382

Which of the following companies is not identified in the text as one of the leading producers of business intelligence and analytics products?
A) Google
B) Microsoft
C) SAP
D) IBM
E) SAS

Answer 382

A) Google

Question 383

Which of the following is not one of the six main elements in the business intelligence environment discussed in this chapter?
A) Managerial users and methods
B) Organizational environment
C) User interface
D) Data from the business environment
E) Platform

Answer 383

B) Organizational environment

Question 384

Which of the following is not one of the six main analytic functionalities of BI systems for helping decision makers understand information and take action?
A) Production reports
B) Parameterized reports
C) Business case archives
D) Forecasts, scenarios, and models
E) Drill down

Answer 384

C) Business case archives

Question 385

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are visual tools for presenting performance data in a BI system.
A) Dashboards and scorecards
B) Parameterized reports
C) Reports and the drill-down feature
D) Scenarios and models
E) Ad hoc report creation

Answer 385

A) Dashboards and scorecards

Question 386

Which of the following are most likely to rely primarily on the drill-down functionality of BI for their decision-making needs?
A) IT developers
B) Middle managers
C) Operational employees
D) Business analysts
E) Senior executives

Answer 386

B) Middle managers

Question 387

A(n)\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ report is produced when a user enters various values in a pivot table to filter data.
A) drill-down
B) SQL
C) ad hoc
D) production
E) parameterized

Answer 387

E) parameterized

Question 388

A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a BI feature that presents performance data defined by users.
A) ad hoc query
B) parameterized report
C) interface
D) portal
E) dashboard

Answer 388

E) dashboard

Question 389

BI that is designed to determine the most likely effects of changes in the business environment is called:
A) statistical modeling.
B) environmental analytics.
C) predictive analytics.
D) big data analytics.
E) parameterized reports.

Answer 389

C) predictive analytics.

Question 390

Which of the following are most likely to rely primarily on production reports for their decision-making needs?
A) Operational supervisors
B) Senior managers
C) Analytic modelers
D) Business analysts
E) Executives

Answer 390

A) Operational supervisors

Question 391

Which type of information system uses data visualization technology to analyze and display data for planning and decision making in the form of digitized maps?
A) GIS
B) DSS
C) Location analytics
D) Executive support systems
E) GDSS

Answer 391

A) GIS

Question 392

Predictive analytics is used for all of the following except:
A) anticipating customer response to price changes.
B) identifying the most profitable customers.
C) determining the best routes for product delivery.
D) establishing consumer credit scores.
E) forecasting driver safety.

Answer 392

C) determining the best routes for product delivery.

Question 393

Which of the following is not an example of a BI predefined production report?
A) Workforce demographics
B) Order cycle time
C) Revenue forecasts
D) Supplier performance
E) Direct and indirect spending

Answer 393

C) Revenue forecasts

Question 394

You can use location analytics to determine how best to route your deliveries of products to retail outlets.

Answer 394

True

Question 395

A GIS is a DSS designed specifically to work with spatial information.

Answer 395

True

Question 396

Big data is too unwieldy to analyze for consumer preferences.

Answer 396

False

Question 397

Data visualization technologies are used to help human users see patterns and relationships in large amounts of data.

Answer 397

True

Question 398

MIS typically produce:
A) new ways of looking at data that emphasize change, flexibility, and rapid response.
B) fixed, regularly scheduled reports based on data extracted from the organization’s TPS.
C) solutions to semi-structured problems appropriate for middle management decision making.
D) assumptions, responses to ad-hoc queries, and graphic representations of existing data.
E) scorecards of overall firm performance along predefined key indicators.

Answer 398

B) fixed, regularly scheduled reports based on data extracted from the organization’s TPS.

Question 399

An information system for a building company that tracks construction costs for various projects across the United States would be categorized as a type of:
A) BPM.
B) MIS.
C) KPI.
D) GSS.
E) GDSS.

Answer 399

B) MIS.

Question 400

A pivot table is a(n):
A) spreadsheet tool that displays two or more dimensions of data in a convenient format.
B) type of relational database.
C) chart tool that can rotate columnar data quickly and visually.
D) tool for performing sensitivity analysis.
E) integral data visualization tool used in digital dashboards and scorecards.

Answer 400

A) spreadsheet tool that displays two or more dimensions of data in a convenient format.

Question 401

An information system that combines data from internal TPS with information from financial systems and external sources to deliver reports such as profit-loss statements and impact analyses, is an example of:
A) DSS.
B) ESS.
C) CDSS.
D) MIS.
E) GIS.

Answer 401

B) ESS.

Question 402

The leading methodology for understanding the really important information needed by a firm's executives is called the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ method.
A) digital dashboard
B) balanced scorecard
C) KPI
D) data visualization
E) predictive analytics

Answer 402

B) balanced scorecard

Question 403

Which of the following types of systems would be used to present senior marketing executives with in-depth information about customer retention, satisfaction, and quality performance?
A) CDSS
B) MIS
C) DSS
D) TPS
E) ESS

Answer 403

E) ESS

Question 404

Measures defined by management and used to internally evaluate the success of a firm's financial, business process, customer, and learning and growth are called:
A) benchmarks.
B) KPIs.
C) the balanced scorecard method.
D) BPM.
E) parameters.

Answer 404

B) KPIs.

Question 405

A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ facilitates the solution to unstructured problems by a set of decision makers working together as a group.
A) DSS
B) ESS
C) CDSS
D) GIS
E) GDSS

Answer 405

E) GDSS

Question 406

The management methodology of using a firm's strategy to generate operational targets for the business and measuring progress towards them using the firm's enterprise systems is called:
A) benchmarks.
B) KPIs.
C) the balanced scorecard method.
D) BPM.
E) business intelligence.

Answer 406

D) BPM.

Question 407

ESS:
A) support the structured decision making of senior executives.
B) have the ability to drill down into lower levels of detail.
C) easily integrate data from different systems.
D) are primarily driven by information derived from a company’s transaction processing systems.
E) enable operational managers to create parameterized reports.

Answer 407

B) have the ability to drill down into lower levels of detail.

Question 408

A well-designed ESS will allow management to:
A) create routine production reports as well as view overall business performance.
B) facilitate group decision making.
C) create pivot charts.
D) analyze big data.
E) track the activities of competitors.

Answer 408

E) track the activities of competitors.

Question 409

GDSS:
A) are designed to allow meeting attendees to share their thoughts in real-time with their peers.
B) support decisions that require knowledge about the geographic distribution of resources.
C) are only used with geographically dispersed attendees.
D) facilitate the solution of unstructured problems.
E) provide tools that allow managers to visualize data.

Answer 409

D) facilitate the solution of unstructured problems.

Question 410

GDSS capabilities have improved along with all of the following except:
A) Improved power of desktop PCs
B) Explosion of mobile computing
C) Growth of cellular networks
D) Increase in dedicated conference rooms
E) Expansion of Wi-Fi bandwidth

Answer 410

D) Increase in dedicated conference rooms

Question 411

GDSS such as Cisco Collaboration Meeting Rooms Hybrid can handle up to:
A) 5 participants. 
B) 50 participants.
C) 500 participants. 
D) 1000 participants.
E) 5000 participants.

Answer 411

C) 500 participants.

Question 412

DSS primarily address structured problems.

Answer 412

False

Question 413

MIS typically produce fixed, regularly scheduled reports based on data extracted and summarized from the firm’s underlying transaction processing systems.

Answer 413

True

Question 414

DSS are a special category of location analytics.

Answer 414

False

Question 415

What-if analysis works forward from known or assumed conditions.

Answer 415

True

Question 416

Sensitivity analysis predicts outcomes from constant inputs.

Answer 416

False

Question 417

GDSS facilitate the solution of unstructured problems by a set of decision makers working together as a group in either the same location or different locations.

Answer 417

True

Question 418

GDSS requires a dedicated conference room with special hardware and software tools.

Answer 418

False

Question 419

GDSS are designed to display data in the form of digitized maps.

Answer 419

False

Question 420

KPI analysis is the leading methodology for understanding the most important information needed by a firm’s executives.

Answer 420

False

Question 421

Experts from a variety of fields have found that managers are poor at assessing risk.

Answer 421

True

Question 422

GIS are useful for businesses, but not as much for state and local governments.

Answer 422

False

Question 423

The four kinds of structural organizational change enabled by IT, in order from least to most risky, are:
A) rationalization, automation, reengineering, and redesigning.
B) rationalization, automation, reengineering, and paradigm shift.
C) automation, rationalization, redesigning, and paradigm shift.
D) automation, redesigning, restructuring, and paradigm shift.
E) paradigm shift, reengineering, rationalization, and automation.

Answer 423

C) automation, rationalization, redesigning, and paradigm shift.

Question 424

In automation:
A) more manual steps are required.
B) business processes are reorganized to cut waste and eliminate repetitive, paper-intensive tasks.
C) the nature of the business is rethought.
D) employees are enabled to perform their tasks more efficiently.
E) business processes are added.

Answer 424

D) employees are enabled to perform their tasks more efficiently.

Question 425

Which of the following is more powerful that rationalization of procedures?
A) Business process redesign
B) TQM
C) Automation
D) Six sigma
E) Systems analysis and design

Answer 425

A) Business process redesign

Question 426

A bank has reworked its mortgage application process so that several steps are handled by computer software, and some steps are combined to reduce bottlenecks in processing. The goal is to gradually improve its efficiency over time. This is an example of:
A) automation.
B) rationalization of procedures.
C) paradigm shift.
D) TQM.
E) six sigma.

Answer 426

B) rationalization of procedures.

Question 427

An upscale organic foods grocery chain is implementing an information system that will enable it to add same-day home delivery of groceries to its customers. This is an example of:
A) automation.
B) rationalization of procedures.
C) paradigm shift.
D) business process redesign.
E) organizational change.

Answer 427

C) paradigm shift.

Question 428

The idea that the achievement of quality control is an end in itself describes a main concept of:
A) BPM.
B) BPR.
C) six sigma.
D) TQM.
E) systems analysis and design

Answer 428

D) TQM.

Question 429

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ provide(s) a methodology and tools for dealing with the organization's ongoing need to revise and optimize its numerous business processes. 
A) Business process redesign
B) Business process management
C) CASE tools
D) TQM
E) Systems analysis and design

Answer 429

B) Business process management

Question 430

In order, what are the first three steps in BPM?
A) 1. identifying processes for change, 2. analyzing existing processes, 3. designing the new process.
B) 1. analyzing existing processes, 2. identifying processes for change, 3. designing the new process.
C) 1. identifying processes for change, 2. designing the new process, 3. implementing the new process.
D) 1. analyzing processes to change, 2. designing the new process, 3. measuring the optimized process.
E) 1. designing new processes, 2. analyzing existing processes, 3. identifying processes for change.

Answer 430

A) 1. identifying processes for change, 2. analyzing existing processes, 3. designing the new process.

Question 431

What is the greatest barrier to successful business process change?
A) Ineffective project management
B) Usability of implemented solution
C) Selecting the correct process to change
D) Organizational change
E) Poor choice of technology

Answer 431

D) Organizational change

Question 432

Possible functions of BPM tools include all of the following except:
A) integrating existing systems to support business processes’ improvements.
B) automating business processes.
C) identifying and document business processes.
D) testing the security of business processes.
E) designing new processes.

Answer 432

D) testing the security of business processes.

Question 433

BPM software provides tools that help business do all of the following except:
A) identify and document processes requiring improvement
B) create models of improved processes
C) capture and enforce business rules for performing processes
D) capture and identify information system requirements for a new system
E) integrate existing systems to support new or redesigned processes

Answer 433

D) capture and identify information system requirements for a new system

Question 434

End user development:
A) allows end users to create highly complex information systems.
B) increases the time and steps required to produce a finished application when compared to professional development.
C) allows ends users to develop simple information systems.
D) requires more time to develop systems.
E) requires formal assistance from technical specialists.

Answer 434

C) allows ends users to develop simple information systems.

Question 435

A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is an organizational change that involves rethinking the nature of the business and the nature of the organization itself.
A) automation program 
B) rationalization program 
C) systems analysis 
D) paradigm shift
E) business process redesign program

Answer 435

D) paradigm shift

Question 436

The most common form of IT-enabled organizational change is automation.

Answer 436

True

Question 437

Rationalization of procedures describes a radical rethinking of the business models

Answer 437

False

Question 438

Organizations will adjust to new information systems without any special efforts if the system is a good system to begin with.

Answer 438

False

Question 439

Six sigma describes the measurement of quality as 3.4 defects per million.

Answer 439

True

Question 440

Which conversion process introduces the system first to a limited portion of the organization?
A) Pilot study strategy
B) Phased approach strategy
C) Limited cutover strategy
D) Parallel strategy
E) Parallel approach strategy

Answer 440

A) Pilot study strategy

Question 441

Which process develops a detailed description of the functions that a new information system must perform?
A) Feasibility study
B) Requirements analysis
C) Systems design
D) Test plan development
E) Management plan

Answer 441

B) Requirements analysis

Question 442

Systems design:
A) determines whether a solution is feasible from a financial and organizational standpoint.
B) shows how the new system will fulfill the information requirements.
C) identifies which users need what information, where, when and how.
D) is concerned with the logical view of the system solution.
E) .translates system specifications into software program code.

Answer 442

B) shows how the new system will fulfill the information requirements.

Question 443

Transferring data from a legacy system to the new system would be defined by which category of system design specifications?
A) Input
B) Database
C) Manual procedures
D) Conversion
E) Implementation

Answer 443

D) Conversion

Question 444

Unit testing:
A) includes all the preparations for the series of tests to be performed on the system.
B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole in order to determine if discrete modules will function together as planned.
C) involves testing the entire system with real-world data.
D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting.
E) tests each program separately.

Answer 444

E) tests each program separately.

Question 445

System testing:
A) includes all the preparations for the series of tests to be performed on the system.
B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole in order to determine if discrete modules will function together as planned.
C) tests each program separately.
D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting.
E) tests the information requirements of a system.

Answer 445

B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole in order to determine if discrete modules will function together as planned.

Question 446

Acceptance testing:
A) includes all the preparations for the series of tests to be performed on the system.
B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole.
C) tests each program separately in the system.
D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting.
E) tests the conversion of legacy data to the new system.

Answer 446

D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting.

Question 447

In a parallel conversion strategy, the new system:
A) is tested by an outsourced company.
B) replaces the old one on an appointed day.
C) and the old are run in parallel.
D) is introduced only to a limited area first.
E) is slowly converted from the old system.

Answer 447

C) and the old are run in parallel.

Question 448

In the direct cutover conversion strategy, the new system:
A) is tested by an outsourced company.
B) replaces the old one at on an appointed day.
C) and the old are run together.
D) is introduced in stages.
E) the old and new systems are run in parallel.

Answer 448

B) replaces the old one at on an appointed day.

Question 449

Changes in hardware, software, documentation, or production to a production system to correct errors, meet new requirements, or improve processing efficiencies are termed:
A) acceptance.
B) production.
C) maintenance.
D) post-implementation
E) implementation.

Answer 449

C) maintenance.

Question 450

In what stage of systems development are design specifications created?
A) Systems analysis
B) Systems design
C) Testing
D) Conversion
E) Implementation

Answer 450

B) Systems design

Question 451

A systems analysis includes a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ that is used to determine whether the solution is achievable, from a financial, technical, and organizational standpoint.
A) feasibility study
B) data flow diagram
C) logical design
D) systems design document
E) request for proposal

Answer 451

A) feasibility study

Question 452

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ provide(s) a detailed statement of the information needs that a new system must satisfy; identifies who needs what information, and when, where, and how the information is needed.
A) Systems analysis and design documents
B) Information requirements
C) A data flow diagram 
D) A feasibility study
E) Requests for proposal

Answer 452

B) Information requirements

Question 453

A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the model or blueprint for an information system solution and consists of all the specifications that will deliver the functions identified during systems analysis.
A) feasibility study
B) data flow diagram
C) systems design document
D) information requirements document 
E) request for proposal

Answer 453

C) systems design document

Question 454

During the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ stage of system development, system specifications that were prepared during the design stage are translated into software code.
A) programming
B) systems analysis and design
C) implementation
D) conversion
E) acceptance testing

Answer 454

A) programming

Question 455

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the process of changing from the old system to the new system.
A) Implementation
B) Conversion
C) Systems analysis and design
D) Programming
E) End user involvement

Answer 455

B) Conversion

Question 456

Information systems can only have one possible design.

Answer 456

False

Question 457

Documentation reveals how well a system works from both a technical standpoint, but not an end-user standpoint.

Answer 457

False

Question 458

The entire system-building effort is driven by:
A) six sigma.
B) feasibility studies.
C) documentation
D) user information requirements.
E) available information technology.

Answer 458

D) user information requirements.

Question 459

The primary tool for representing a system's component processes and the flow of data between them is the:
A) data dictionary.
B) process specifications diagram.
C) structure chart
D) data flow diagram.
E) object-oriented chart

Answer 459

D) data flow diagram.

Question 460

An entire information system is broken down into its subsystems by using:
A) high-level data flow diagrams.
B) low-level data flow diagrams.
C) process specifications.
D) structured diagrams.
E) logical design diagrams.

Answer 460

A) high-level data flow diagrams.

Question 461

To understand and define the contents of data flows and data stores, system builders use:
A) a data dictionary.
B) process specifications diagrams.
C) user documentation.
D) data flow diagrams.
E) systems analysis.

Answer 461

A) a data dictionary.

Question 462

To show each level of a system's design, its relationship to other levels, and its place in the overall design structure, structured methodologies use:
A) structure charts.
B) Gantt and PERT charts.
C) process specifications.
D) data flow diagrams.
E) user documentation.

Answer 462

A) structure charts.

Question 463

In object-oriented development:
A) the class is used as the basic unit of systems analysis and design.
B) an object is a collection of data that is acted on by external processes.
C) processing logic resides within objects.
D) a strict, step-by-step development process is essential.
E) data and processes are separated.

Answer 463

C) processing logic resides within objects.

Question 464

In an object-oriented development framework for a university, how would the classes Degree, Mathematics, and Physics be related?
A) Degree would be a sister class to Mathematics and Physics.
B) Degree is a superclass to Mathematics and Physics.
C) Mathematics and Physics would be ancestors to Degree.
D) Degree would be a subclass to Mathematics and Physics.
E) Math, Physics and Degree are sister classes.

Answer 464

B) Degree is a superclass to Mathematics and Physics.

Question 465

Object-oriented modeling is based on the concepts of:
A) class and inheritance.
B) classes and objects.
C) objects and relationships.
D) objects and inheritance.
E) classes and relationships.

Answer 465

A) class and inheritance.

Question 466

Object-oriented development could potentially reduce the time and cost of writing software because:
A) object-oriented programming requires less training.
B) iterative prototyping is not required.
C) objects are reusable.
D) a single user interface object can be used for the entire application.
E) it’s not necessary to use a formal methodology to design a system.

Answer 466

C) objects are reusable.

Question 467

Which of the following statements about CASE is not true?
A) CASE provides hardware and software tools.
B) To be used effectively, CASE tools require organizational discipline.
C) CASE tools can improve communication between users and technical specialists.
D) CASE tools support iterative design.
E) CASE tools facilitate the creation of clear documentation.

Answer 467

A) CASE provides hardware and software tools.

Question 468

A native mobile app is:
A) a mobile website.
B) a mobile web app.
C) a stand-alone application that does not use a browser.
D) a responsive mobile app.
E) one that can only operate on selected devices.

Answer 468

C) a stand-alone application that does not use a browser.

Question 469

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ describe the transformation occurring within the lowest level of the data flow diagrams.
A) Design requirements
B) Information requirements
C) Technology design plans
D)  object-oriented frameworks
E) Process specifications

Answer 469

E) Process specifications

Question 470

Organizational software packages often include \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ features that allow the software to be modified to meet organizational requirements.
A) automation 
B) object oriented 
C) programming 
D) design
E) customization

Answer 470

E) customization

Question 471

A data flow diagram offers a logical and graphical model of information flow, partitioning a system into modules that show manageable levels of detail.

Answer 471

True

Question 472

A structure chart is a top-down chart, showing each level of design, its relationship to other levels, and its place in the overall design structure.

Answer 472

True

Question 473

Objects are grouped into hierarchies, and hierarchies into classes.

Answer 473

False

Question 474

Traditional structured development is more incremental than object-oriented development.

Answer 474

False

Question 475

CASE tools facilitate the creation of clear documentation and the coordination of team development efforts.

Answer 475

True

Question 476

The oldest method for building information systems is:
A) component-based development.
B) prototyping.
C) object-oriented development.
D) the systems development lifecycle.
E)computer-aided software engineering

Answer 476

D) the systems development lifecycle.

Question 477

In the traditional systems development lifecycle, end users:
A) are important and ongoing members of the team from the original analysis phase through maintenance.
B) are important only in the testing phases.
C) have no input.
D) are limited to providing information requirements and reviewing the technical staff’s work.
E) control the development of the system.

Answer 477

D) are limited to providing information requirements and reviewing the technical staff’s work.

Question 478

In which type of systems building are the development stages organized so that tasks in one stage are completed before the tasks in the next stage begin?
A) Traditional
B) Prototyping
C) RAD
D) JAD
E) Object oriented development

Answer 478

A) Traditional

Question 479

You are an IT project manager for an advertising firm. The firm wishes to create an online tool that will be used to survey focus group reactions to products in development. The most important consideration for the firm is being able to offer the tool as soon as possible as a new corporate service. However, you know that many of the senior managers that are business owners of this project have difficulty in understanding technical or software development issues, and are likely to change their requirements during the course of development. What development method would be most successful for this project?
A) RAD
B) JAD
C) End-user development
D) Prototyping
E) Traditional

Answer 479

D) Prototyping

Question 480

A systems building approach in which the system is developed as successive versions, each version reflecting requirements more accurately, is described to be:
A) end-user oriented.
B) prototyped.
C) object-oriented.
D) agile.
E) iterative.

Answer 480

E) iterative.

Question 481

Which of the following may occur when systems are created rapidly, without a formal development methodology?
A) End users can take over the work of IT specialists.
B) The organization quickly outgrows the new system.
C) Hardware, software, and quality standards are less important.
D) Testing and documentation may be inadequate.
E) IT specialists dominate the design of the system.

Answer 481

D) Testing and documentation may be inadequate.

Question 482

What is the primary driving factor for firms in selecting domestic outsourcing firms to build system solutions?
A) To take advantage of technical skills the firm does not have
B) To save labor costs
C) To avoid change management issues
D) To reduce the cost of hardware
E) To avoid offshore outsourcing

Answer 482

A) To take advantage of technical skills the firm does not have

Question 483

A software package evaluation process is often based on a series of questions sent to vendors, called a(n):
A) systems design document.
B) strategic planning document.
C) information systems management plan.
D) request for proposal.
E) logical design document.

Answer 483

D) request for proposal.

Question 484

The systems life cycle maintains a formal division of labor between end users and information systems specialists.

Answer 484

True

Question 485

Prototyping is more iterative than the conventional lifecycle.

Answer 485

True

Question 486

A prototype is a working version of an information system that serves as a final model..

Answer 486

False

Question 487

End-user-developed systems can be completed more rapidly than those developed through the conventional systems lifecycle.

Answer 487

True

Question 488

A primary benefit of offshore outsourcing is that this can substantially reduce hidden costs.

Answer 488

False

Question 489

What is the purpose of responsive web design?
A) It allows one website to serve different platforms, such as tablets, PCs, and mobile phones.
B) It allows websites to respond quickly to changing user needs.
C) It enables websites to customize design according to user preferences.
D) It enables websites to customize content based on user location and preferences.
E) It enables different people to responsively program the system.

Answer 489

A) It allows one website to serve different platforms, such as tablets, PCs, and mobile phones.

Question 490

A "responsive design" for mobile applications is a design that responds to a user’s: 
A)  needs.
B) location. 
C) voice commands.
D) digital device and screen size. 
E) gestures.

Answer 490

D) digital device and screen size.

Question 491

As a technical project manager, you have decided to propose implementing a prototyping methodology for a small web-based design project. What is the order of steps you will follow in this project?
A) Develop the prototype; use the prototype; revise and enhance the prototype.
B) Identify user requirements, develop the prototype, use the prototype, revise and enhance the prototype.
C) Define the requirements, develop solutions, select the best prototype, and implement the prototype.
D) Define the requirements, develop the prototype, revise and enhance the prototype.
E) Select the best prototype, define the requirements, and implement the prototype.

Answer 491

B) Identify user requirements, develop the prototype, use the prototype, revise and enhance the prototype.

Question 492

Which of the following is not a top priority in mobile application development?
A) Designing for multitouch
B) Saving resources
C) Limiting the use of keyboards
D) Designing for keyboard data entry
E) Designing for a mobile device’s camera or other features

Answer 492

D) Designing for keyboard data entry

Question 493

The process of creating workable information systems in a very short period of time is called:
A) RAD.
B) JAD.
C) prototyping.
D) systems analysis and design.
E) end user design.

Answer 493

A) RAD.

Question 494

Which type of systems development is characterized by significantly speeding up the design phase and the generation of information requirements and involving users at an intense level?
A) RAD
B) JAD
C) Prototyping
D) End-user development
E) Traditional

Answer 494

B) JAD

Question 495

Groups of objects are assembled into software components for common functions, which can be combined into large-scale business applications, in which type of software development?
A) Object-oriented development
B) Component-based development
C) Structured methodologies
D) RAD
E) Agile development

Answer 495

B) Component-based development

Question 496

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ development focuses on rapid delivery of working software by breaking a large project into a series of small sub-projects that are completed in short periods of time using iteration and continuous feedback. 
A) Agile
B) Rapid application
C) Joint application
D) Object-oriented
E) DevOps

Answer 496

A) Agile

Question 497

Compared to the use of proprietary components, web services promise to be less expensive and less difficult to implement because of:
A) their ability to integrate seamlessly with legacy systems.
B) their ability to enable communication among different systems using universal standards.
C) the ubiquity of the Internet.
D) the ability to reuse web services components.
E) their use of custom programming.\

Answer 497

B) their ability to enable communication among different systems using universal standards.

Question 498

Which of the following statements about mobile web apps is true?
A) Users access mobile web apps through their mobile device’s web browser.
B) A mobile web app resides on the user’s device.
C) A mobile web app only works on certain mobile platforms.
D) A mobile web app requires the user to sign onto a web page.
E) A mobile web app requires the user to login to a web service.

Answer 498

A) Users access mobile web apps through their mobile device’s web browser.

Question 499

In component-based development, applications are developed one small portion at a time, with each portion able to function independently.

Answer 499

False

Question 500

Responsive web design enables websites to change layouts according to the user’s screen size.

Answer 500

True

Question 501

Native apps are cheap to develop and only one version is required for different mobile operating systems.

Answer 501

False

Question 502

Systems development activities always take place in sequential order.

Answer 502

False

Question 503

Web services are less expensive to weave together than proprietary components.

Answer 503

True

Question 504

DevOps stands for “development opportunities.”

Answer 504

False

Question 505

DevOps emphasizes close collaboration between the software developers and IT operational staff.

Answer 505

True

Question 506

Companies using DevOps, like Netflix, can update its production systems with new software in a matter of months.

Answer 506

False

Question 507

A request for proposal (RFP) is a detailed list of questions submitted to software vendors.

Answer 507

True

Question 508

On average, private sector IT projects underestimated budget and delivery time of systems by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ percent.
A) 30
B) 40
C) 50
D) 60
E) 70

Answer 508

C) 50

Question 509

As discussed in the chapter, which of the following is not one of the immediate consequences of inadequate software project management?
A) Cost overruns
B) Customer loyalty
C) Time slippage
D) Technical shortfalls
E) Failure to obtain anticipated benefits

Answer 509

B) Customer loyalty

Question 510

Which of the following is not one of the five main variables affecting project success?
A) Risk
B) Vendors
C) Time
D) Quality
E) Cost

Answer 510

B) Vendors

Question 511

You have been hired to implement an enterprise system that will automate much of the billing and accounting work for a statewide HVAC services company. Which of the following would you prepare to describe how the new system will affect a firm's structure and operations?
A) Information systems plan
B) Internal integration report
C) Sociotechnical design report
D) Organizational impact analysis
E) Strategic planning document

Answer 511

D) Organizational impact analysis

Question 512

All of the following are indications of a failed information systems project except:
A) employees are refusing to switch to the new system.
B) employees have created a spreadsheet solution to manipulate the data generated by the system.
C) a redesigned website has fewer visits to the customer support pages.
D) employees require training to properly use the system.
E) the system is not being used by anyone.

Answer 512

D) employees require training to properly use the system.

Question 513

Which of the following project management variables defines what work is or is not included in a project?
A) Goals
B) Risk
C) Quality
D) Scope
E) Cost

Answer 513

D) Scope

Question 514

Which of the following statistics from studies on failed projects is not true?
A) Large software projects on average run 33 percent over schedule.
B) Large software projects on average run 66 percent over budget.
C) Between 30 and 40 percent of all software projects are “runaway” projects that far exceed the original schedule and budget projections and fail to perform as originally specified.
D) As many as 17 percent of projects turn out so badly that they can threaten the existence of the company.
E) The average cost overrun of IT projects is 20 percent.

Answer 514

E) The average cost overrun of IT projects is 20 percent.

Question 515

The cost of a project is based on the time to complete a project multiplied by the cost of human resources required to complete the project.

Answer 515

True

Question 516

An information system project’s scope is directly related to its business requirements.

Answer 516

True

Question 517

Project management refers to the application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to achieve specific targets within specified budget and time constraints.

Answer 517

True

Question 518

Which of the following variables in project management is an indicator of how well the project satisfies management objectives?
A) Scope
B) Quality
C) Time
D) Cost
E) Risk

Answer 518

B) Quality

Question 519

The data entry screen is an example of a user interface.

Answer 519

True

Question 520

According to a 2015 report by 1E, over 50% of all software installed is not being used.

Answer 520

False

Question 521

Which of the following is at the top of the management structure for information systems projects in a large company?
A) Project team
B) Project management group
C) Corporate strategic planning group and information systems steering committee
D) Information systems managers
E) End-user managers

Answer 521

C) Corporate strategic planning group and information systems steering committee

Question 522

The ________ reviews and approves plans for systems in all divisions.
A) project management group
B) project team
C) information systems steering committee
D) corporate strategic planning committee
E) board of directors

Answer 522

C) information systems steering committee

Question 523

The ________ consists of systems analysts, specialists from the relevant end-user business areas, application programmers, and perhaps database specialists.
A) project management group
B) project team
C) IS steering committee
D) corporate strategic planning committee
E) system planning committee

Answer 523

B) project team

Question 524

The ________ is directly responsible for the individual systems project.
A) project management group
B) project team
C) IS steering committee
D) corporate strategic planning committee
E) systems planning committee

Answer 524

B) project team

Question 525

A road map indicating the direction of systems development, the rationale, the current systems, new developments to consider, the management strategy, the implementation plan, and the budget is called a(n):
A) project plan.
B) portfolio analysis.
C) information systems plan.
D) enterprise analysis.
E) strategic planning document.

Answer 525

C) information systems plan.

Question 526

Which of the following best describes the central method used in a portfolio analysis?
A) Performing an inventory all of the organization’s information systems projects and assets
B) Performing a weighted comparison of the criteria used to evaluate a system
C) Surveying a large sample of managers on their objectives, decision-making process, and uses and needs for data and information
D) Interviewing a small number of top managers to identify their goals and criteria for achieving success
E) Scoring proposed systems on a number of dimensions, and select the one with the highest score.

Answer 526

A) Performing an inventory all of the organization’s information systems projects and assets

Question 527

A firm in the finance industry should do which of the following to ensure that it stays current with technology?
A) Select only low-cost, low risk projects
B) Limit work to those projects with great rewards.
C) Select only low-risk, high-reward projects.
D) Have a few high-risk, high benefit projects
E) Avoid projects that were very costly.

Answer 527

D) Have a few high-risk, high benefit projects

Question 528

Which method would you use to develop risk profiles for a firm's information system projects and assets?
A) Information systems plan
B) Scoring model
C) Portfolio analysis
D) TCO
E) Real options model

Answer 528

C) Portfolio analysis

Question 529

You have been hired by a firm in a non-information-intensive industry to evaluate its inventory of systems and IT projects. Which types of projects should the firm focus on?
A) High-risk projects
B) Low cost, low-benefit projects
C) High-benefit, low-risk projects
D) Any project that might be beneficial
E) Low cost, high benefit projects

Answer 529

C) High-benefit, low-risk projects

Question 530

Which of the following best describes the central method used in a scoring model?
A) Performing an inventory all of the organization’s information systems projects and assets
B) Performing a weighted comparison of the criteria used to evaluate a system
C) Surveying a large sample of managers on their objectives, decision-making process, and uses and needs for data and information
D) Interviewing a small number of top managers to identify their goals and criteria for achieving success
E) Calculating the return on investment for each system, and choose the system with the best return

Answer 530

B) Performing a weighted comparison of the criteria used to evaluate a system

Question 531

Which method is used to assign weights to various features of a system?
A) Information systems plan
B) Scoring model
C) Portfolio analysis
D) TCO
E) Real options model

Answer 531

B) Scoring model

Question 532

Which of the following statements about scoring models is not true?
A) There are many qualitative judgments involved in using a scoring model.
B) A scoring model is useful for selecting projects where many criteria must be considered.
C) The most important outcome of a scoring model is the score.
D) A scoring model requires experts who understand the issues and the technology.
E) It is appropriate to cycle through a scoring model several times.

Answer 532

C) The most important outcome of a scoring model is the score.

Question 533

The information systems steering committee is composed of information systems managers and end-user managers responsible for overseeing several specific information systems projects.

Answer 533

False

Question 534

An information systems plan contains a statement of corporate goals and specifies how information technology will support the attainment of those goals.

Answer 534

True

Question 535

If an intended benefit of an IT project is improved decision making, managers should develop a set of metrics to quantify the value of an improved decision.

Answer 535

True

Question 536

Scoring models are most commonly used to make the final decision when selecting different systems.

Answer 536

False

Question 537

The criteria used in a scoring model are usually the result of lengthy discussions among the decision-making group.

Answer 537

True

Question 538

You are using a capital budgeting method to assess the worth of your company’s new information system. Which of the following costs would you include in measuring the cash outflow?
A) Increased sales of products
B) Hardware and software expenditures
C) Labor expenditures
D) Reduced costs in production and operation
E) Hardware, software, and labor expenditures

Answer 538

E) Hardware, software, and labor expenditures

Question 539

The worth of systems from a financial perspective essentially revolves around the issue of:
A) total cost of ownership.
B) adherence to information requirements.
C) asset utilization.
D) return on invested capital.
E) the cost of computing equipment.

Answer 539

D) return on invested capital.

Question 540

All of the following are intangible benefits of information systems except:
A) improved asset utilization.
B) increased organizational learning.
C) improved operations.
D) reduced workforce.
E) employee morale.

Answer 540

D) reduced workforce.

Question 541

Which of the following is not a tangible benefit of information systems?
A) Reduced rate of growth in expenses
B) Lower computer expenses
C) Improved resource control
D) Increased productivity
E) End user satisfaction

Answer 541

C) Improved resource control

Question 542

The principal capital budgeting models for evaluating information technology projects are the payback method, the accounting rate of return on investment (ROI), the net present value, and the:
A) future present value.
B) internal rate of return.
C) external rate of return.
D) ROPM (real options pricing model).
E) present value of future cash flows

Answer 542

B) internal rate of return.

Question 543

Which of the following strategies represents the proper approach to a high risk, high reward project?
A) Identify and develop
B) Avoid
C) Treat as a routine project
D) Pursue after all other projects are complete
E) Cautiously examine

Answer 543

E) Cautiously examine

Question 544

Enhanced employee goodwill falls under what category of costs and benefits of information systems?
A) Costs
B) Tangible benefits
C) Cost savings
D) Intangible costs
E) Intangible benefits

Answer 544

E) Intangible benefits

Question 545

Counterimplementation is best defined as:
A) multiple implementations that are run in parallel.
B) deliberate attempts to thwart the implementation of a system.
C) critiquing the implementation of a system constructively.
D) all of the organizational challenges involved in implementing a system.
E) strategies used to overcome user resistance to change.

Answer 545

B) deliberate attempts to thwart the implementation of a system

Question 546

Which of the following is a limitation of using a financial approach to evaluate information systems?
A) Inability to measure ROI
B) Inability to control vendor costs
C) Inability to assess risk
D) Inability to assess costs from organizational disruption
E) Inability to assess the cost of technology

Answer 546

D) Inability to assess costs from organizational disruption

Question 547

Transaction and clerical systems that displace labor and save space typically produce more measurable, tangible benefits than management information systems.

Answer 547

True

Question 548

Intangible benefits generally do not lead to quantifiable gains in the long run

Answer 548

True

Question 549

A benefit of using TCO analysis to evaluate an information technology investment is that it is able to incorporate intangible and “soft” factors such as benefits and complexity costs.

Answer 549

False

Question 550

More timely information is a intangible benefit of information systems.

Answer 550

True

Question 551

The difference between cash outflows and cash inflows is used for calculating the financial worth of an investment.

Answer 551

True

Question 552

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ methods rely on measures of cash flows into and out of the firm.
A) Scoring model
B) Portfolio analysis
C) Real options pricing
D) Capital budgeting
E) Cost effectiveness

Answer 552

D) Capital budgeting

Question 553

In one strategic approach to determining information requirements, managers select a small number of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ that reflect firm success and profitability.
A) efficiency measures
B) output measures
C) strategic indicators
D) key performance indicators
E) financial indicators

Answer 553

D) key performance indicators

Question 554

All of the following are directly correlated with increased risk except:
A) a large amount of technical expertise from project team and information team staff
B) a large amount of dollars spent
C) a large amount of implementation staff
D) a large amount of time allocated for implementation
E) a large amount of organizational units affected

Answer 554

A) a large amount of technical expertise from project team and information team staff

Question 555

Which of the following statements best describes the effect that project structure has on overall project risk?
A) Highly structured projects are more complex, and run a higher risk of programmers and users misunderstanding the ultimate goals.
B) Projects with relatively undefined goals are more likely to be subjected to users changing requirements and to run a higher risk of not satisfying project goals.
C) Highly structured projects tend to be larger, affecting more organizational units, and run both the risk of out-of-control costs and becoming too difficult to control.
D) Less structured projects are more able to be quickly developed, tested, and implemented using cutting-edge RAD and JAD development techniques, and pose less risk of running up unforeseen costs.
E) The less structured a project, the greater the freedom of users to define the system

Answer 555

B) Projects with relatively undefined goals are more likely to be subjected to users changing requirements and to run a higher risk of not satisfying project goals.

Question 556

Which of the following statements about project risk is not true?
A) The more dollars spent on project, the greater the risk.
B) The higher the number of implementation staff on a project, the lower the risk.
C) The higher the number of organizational units affected by a project, the greater the risk.
D) Very large-scale systems project have a failure rate that is 50 to 75 percent higher than that for other projects.
E) The organizational complexity of a system contributes to the complexity of large-scale systems projects.

Answer 556

B) The higher the number of implementation staff on a project, the lower the risk.

Question 557

Which of the following refers to all organizational activities working toward the adoption, management, and routinization of a new information system?
A) Production
B) Maintenance
C) Implementation
D) Acceptance
E) Final acceptance

Answer 557

C) Implementation

Question 558

Which of the following would not be covered in the Strategic Business Plan Rationale section of an information systems plan?
A) Current situation
B) Current business organization
C) Firm’s strategic plan
D) Changing environments
E) Current infrastructure capabilities

Answer 558

E) Current infrastructure capabilities

Question 559

Which of the following would not be covered in the Management Strategy section of an information systems plan?
A) Acquisition plans
B) Progress reports
C) Organizational realignment
D) Internal reorganization
E) Major training initiatives

Answer 559

A) Acquisition plans

Question 560

Which of the following would not be covered in the Budget Requirements section of an information systems plan?
A) Requirements
B) Potential savings
C) Difficulties meeting business requirements
D) Financing
E) Acquisition cycle

Answer 560

C) Difficulties meeting business requirements

Question 561

Which of the following is not one of the activities of the systems analyst?
A) Acting as a change agent
B) Communicating with users
C) Mediating between competing interest groups
D) Formulating of capital budgeting models
E) Deciding which systems to develop

Answer 561

D) Formulating of capital budgeting models

Question 562

Which of the following types of projects is most likely to fail?
A) Integration of a third-party automated payment system
B) Replacement of middleware with web services for legacy application integration
C) Business process redesign project that restructures workflow and responsibilities
D) Redesigning a user interface to an online investment site
E) Building a web-based interface to an existing system

Answer 562

C) Business process redesign project that restructures workflow and responsibilities

Question 563

Which of the following is not a responsibility of effective change management?
A) Integrating legacy systems
B) Dealing with fear and anxiety about new systems
C) Training users of the new system
D) Enforcing user participation at all stages of system development
E) Ensuring users are properly trained

Answer 563

A) Integrating legacy systems

Question 564

Which of the following is not something you would use to control risk factors in an information systems project?
A) Internal integration tools
B) External integration tools
C) Formal planning tools and formal control tools
D) Real options pricing models
E) Gantt charts

Answer 564

D) Real options pricing models

Question 565

Internal integration tools:
A) enable a project to have sufficient technical support for projects with challenging and complex technology.
B) enable a project manager to properly document and monitor project plans.
C) portray a project as a network diagram with numbered nodes representing project tasks.
D) consist of ways to link the work of the implementation team with users at all organization levels.
E) enable end users to communicate with system developers.

Answer 565

A) enable a project to have sufficient technical support for projects with challenging and complex technology.

Question 566

Which of the following is an example of using an internal integration tool?
A) Creating a Gantt chart
B) Including user representatives as active members of the project team
C) Creating PERT chart
D) Holding frequent project team meetings
E) Developing a scoring model

Answer 566

D) Holding frequent project team meetings

Question 567

Formal planning and control tools:
A) are used to select projects where many criteria must be considered.
B) enable a project manager to properly document and monitor project plans.
C) are used to evaluate alternative systems projects.
D) link the work of the implementation team with users at all organization levels.
E) serve as a road map indicating the direction of systems development.

Answer 567

B) enable a project manager to properly document and monitor project plans.

Question 568

Which type of planning tool shows each task as a horizontal bar whose length is proportional to the time required to complete it?
A) PERT chart
B) Gantt chart
C) Both a PERT chart and a Gannt chart
D) Scoring model
E) Portfolio analysis

Answer 568

B) Gantt chart

Question 569

To review a project's tasks and their interrelationships, you would use which of the following?
A) PERT chart
B) Gantt chart
C) PERT chart or a Gantt chart
D) Scoring model
E) Portfolio analysis

Answer 569

A) PERT chart

Question 570

Which of the following helps project managers identify bottlenecks in project development?
A) Internal integration tools
B) External integration tools
C) Formal planning and control tools
D) Both internal and external integration tools
E) Portfolio analysis tools

Answer 570

C) Formal planning and control tools

Question 571

External integration tools:
A) enable a project to have sufficient technical support for project management and development.
B) enable a project manager to properly document and monitor project plans.
C) portray a project as a network diagram with numbered nodes representing project tasks.
D) consist of ways to link the work of the implementation team with users at all organization levels.
E) enable project team members to keep track of external costs of a project.

Answer 571

D) consist of ways to link the work of the implementation team with users at all organization levels.

Question 572

Which of the following is an example of using an external integration tool?
A) Creating a Gantt chart
B) Including user representatives as active members of the project team.
C) Creating a PERT chart.
D) Using portfolio analysis.
E) Developing a scoring model

Answer 572

B) Including user representatives as active members of the project team.

Question 573

Which of the following is not an organizational factor in systems planning and implementation?
A) Standards and performance monitoring
B) Government regulatory compliance
C) Health and safety
D) User interface
E) Ergonomics

Answer 573

D) User interface

Question 574

In sociotechnical design:
A) separate sets of technical and social design solutions are developed and compared.
B) ergonomic features of a system are considered to be the most important consideration.
C) systems analysts with proven backgrounds in sociological concerns rate and compare a system’s social and technical aspects.
D) human needs are given more importance than technical needs.
E) technical needs are given more importance than organizational needs.

Answer 574

A) separate sets of technical and social design solutions are developed and compared.

Question 575

Which of the following is the most widely used project management software today?
A) Vertabase
B) IBM Project Guide
C) Microsoft Project
D) Microsoft Excel
E) Zoho Projects

Answer 575

C) Microsoft Project

Question 576

The larger the systems project, the greater the chance that the project will be completed on time, within budget, and according to project requirements

Answer 576

False

Question 577

The systems analyst is the catalyst for the entire change process and is responsible for making sure that everyone involved accepts the changes created by a new system.

Answer 577

True

Question 578

The relationship between users and information systems specialists has traditionally been a problem area for information systems implementation efforts.

Answer 578

True

Question 579

User concerns and designer concerns are usually the same at the beginning of the project but may diverge later as the system is built.

Answer 579

False

Question 580

A Gantt chart graphically depicts project tasks and their interrelationships.

Answer 580

False

Question 581

Mandatory use of a system is one effective way of overcoming user resistance to an information system.

Answer 581

False

Question 582

Counterimplementation refers to a deliberate strategy to thwart the implementation of an information system or an innovation in an organization.

Answer 582

True

Question 583

The design of jobs, health issues, and the end-user interface of information systems are all considerations in the field of ergonomics.

Answer 583

True

Question 584

The goal of sociotechnical design is to create systems where the organization and the technology change and adjust to one another.

Answer 584

True

Question 585

Successful system building requires careful \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ management to minimize organizational resistance.
A) cost
B) technology
C) change
D) supply chain
E) system application

Answer 585

C) change

Question 586

Which of the following statements about the user-designer communications gap is not true?
A) It occurs because users and information systems specialists tend to have different backgrounds, interests, and priorities.
B) It is one of the major reasons why user requirements are not properly incorporated into information systems.
C) It is one of the major reasons why users are driven out of the implementation process.
D) When it is pronounced, it creates a very high risk of failure for a systems development project.
E) Information systems specialists prefer systems that are oriented toward solving business problems or facilitating organizational tasks.

Answer 586

E) Information systems specialists prefer systems that are oriented toward solving business problems or facilitating organizational tasks.

Question 587

Ergonomics is the interaction of people and machines in the work environment, including the design of jobs, health issues, and the end-user interface of information systems

Answer 587

True

Question 588

Which of the following best describes the relationship between system implementation and user involvement and management support?
A) System implementation rarely benefits from user involvement.
B) System implementation benefits from user support, but does not require management support.
C) System implementation generally benefits from high levels of user involvement and management support.
D) System implementation benefits from management support, but does not require user support.
E) System implementation rarely benefits from management support.

Answer 588

C) System implementation generally benefits from high levels of user involvement and management support.

Question 589

The differing backgrounds between users and information systems specialists is referred to as the:
A) user expertise gap.
B) information system specialist inefficiency.
C) user-designer paradigm.
D) user-designer expertise gap.
E) user-designer communications gap.

Answer 589

E) user-designer communications gap.

Question 590

Information systems specialists often tend to seek solutions that:
A) are oriented towards solving business problems.
B) facilitate organizational tasks.
C) optimize hardware and software efficiency at the expense of ease of use.
D) are simplistic for end users to understand.
E) employ clear documentation.

Answer 590

C) optimize hardware and software efficiency at the expense of ease of use.

Question 591

According to the Project Management Institute, what is the leading factor in project success?
A) Upper management that financially backs the project
B) Executive sponsors who are actively engaged
C) Carefully monitored changes in work habits and procedures
D) Communication between technicians and end users
E) End users who communicate their needs for the project

Answer 591

B) Executive sponsors who are actively engaged

Question 592

While users are concerned about an information system delivering the information needed for work, designers might be concerned about:
A) accessing the data on iPhones and tablets
B) the procedures required to enter data into the system
C) how operation of the system will change their daily routines
D) what demands the system will place on the company servers
E) opening lines of communication with end users

Answer 592

D) what demands the system will place on the company servers