Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Radiography > exam > Flashcards

exam Flashcards

1
Q

true or false: the maximum wattage a safelight can be is 10

A

false: max wattage is 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what colour safelight does BLUE sensitive film require?

A

brown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what kind of film requires a RED safelight?

A

green and blue light sensitive film

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how do you perform a safelight test?

A

take a piece of film, expose it to the light in 1/4 increments for 1 min each; keep unexposed portion covered during the intervals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the purpose of developer?

A

converts a latent image to a visible image by converting the exposed silver halide crystals to black metallic silver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

true or false: in manual processing, the unexposed silver halide crystals are still sensitive to light after the developer (in rinse bath)

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how many purposes does fixer have in the processing of a radiograph? what are they?

A

2 purposes;

clear away unexposed/undeveloped silver halide crystals and to harden the emulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how might you end up with reticulation?

A

if processing chemicals are at different temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are some advantages to automatic processing?

A

standardized quality of radiographs
fast
quick dry
saves manual labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what steps would you follow to start our automatic processor at seneca?

A
  1. close wash drain valve - developer and fixer valves should also be closed
  2. open water supply tap
  3. close processor cover and feed tray from teepee position
  4. turn on power breaker
  5. press the RUN button
  6. wait for the READY lamp to light up (~20min)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how would you turn off the automatic processor at seneca?

A
  1. turn off power breaker
  2. close water supply
  3. open wash drain valve
  4. open feed tray cover and processor cover, place in teepee position
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the main differences between manual and automatic processing?

A 
automatic does the same job at: 
higher temp 
with special chemicals 
no rinse between developer and fixer (squeegee) 
motor driven
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what should be on an x-ray label?

A 
name 
date
address of hospital
practice/vet name
paitient ID (owner, sex, age, breed) 
log number
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is ionizing radiation?

A

radiation that has enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms (making them into ions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how many types of ionizing radiation are there? what are they?

A

4; alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays and neutron particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the most dangerous form of ionizing radiation?

A

gamma rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the danger associated with ionizing radiation?

A

when ionized, cell function is disrupted - can cause somatic or genetic damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what kind of crystal is contained in thermoluminescent dosimeters?

A

lithium crystal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how does a dosimeter work?

A

crystal is heated, stored energy gets released as light and is measured by device - shows accumulated radiation exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what PPE is required when restraining for radiographs?

A

gloves
apron
thyroid shield
protective glasses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the required thickness of lead in protective gear?

A

0.5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is another name for secondary radiation?

A

scatter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is an x-ray?

A

form of electromagnetic radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

true or false: x-rays have greater energy and longer wavelength than visible light

A

false: x-rays have greater energy and SHORTER wavelength than visible light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

as wavelength ____ energy ______

A

decreases, increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

true or false: a shorter wavelength contains more penetrating power than a long wavelength

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how are x-rays produced?

A

electrons are emitted from the cathode, accelerate toward the anode where they collide with atoms- if the electron gets close to a nucleus it loses energy and emits a photon (x-ray)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what determines the quality of a radiograph? (how well you can see the image)

A

kVp - penetrating power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what determines the quantity of x-rays available for the radiograph?

A

mAs - the number of electrons that will be available to be converted to x-rays are produced at the cathode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what factors other than electrons affect the quantity of x-rays produced?

A

exposure time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

mA x time

A

mAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

as mAs increases, the quantity of x-ray beams should also ____

A

increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what does kVp stand for?

A

kilovoltage potential or kilovoltage peak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

as kVp is increased, electrons in the tube head move _______

A

faster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

would higher kVp settings mean x-rays with longer or shorter wavelength?

A

shorter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is sante’s rule used for ?

A

estimating kVp setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how do you calculate kVp using sante’s rule?

A 
thickness in cm x 2
add 40 (SID in inches)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is SID?

A

source image distance: distance between focal spot and film

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how does SID affect images?

A

affects the intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

as SID ____ image intensity ____

A

decreases, increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

explain inverse square law as it pertains to SID

A

as SID increases, intensity decreases … if SID is two times further, the image will have 1/4 the intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

aside from intensity, name one other factor affected by a change in SID

A

detail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

how will you know a film is underexposed?

A

film will seem too light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

overexposed film looks like what?

A

too dark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

as exposure is increased, the film will become _____

A

more black

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

how can you identify a penetration problem in your radiograph? how would you alter settings to fix?

A

if you only see indistinct/imperceptible silhouettes of organs; increase kVp 10-15% to fix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

how can you identify a density problem? how would you alter settings to fix?

A

organs are visible, but you can’t see them well - film was penetrated enough, it’s just too light; double mAs to fix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

if bones are gray what happened to the radiograph? how would you alter settings to fix?

A

image is over penetrated; decrease kVp 10-15% to fix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

if bones look white, but soft tissue looks too dark, what is the problem? how would you alter settings to fix?

A

too many x-ray beams hit the film, causing image to be darker (density problem); decrease mAs by half to fix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

true or false: we want high contrast for soft tissue

A

false; soft tissue should always have low contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what does low contrast look like?

A

many shades of gray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what kind of contrast is best for bone?

A

high contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

true or false: a radiograph with high contrast will make a bone look distinct from its surroundings

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

if the background is quite light, what setting might be incorrect?

A

mAs; if background is light it is too low, should double

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what are the four basic criteria for patient positioning?

A
  1. welfare of patient
  2. restraint/immboilization of patient
  3. minimal trauma to the area of interest
  4. last exposure to assistants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

abdomen: take on inspiration or expiration

A

expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

thorax: take on inspiration or expiration

A

inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

where do you measure for a thoracic radiograph?

A

caudal border of scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

true or false: when radiographing the heart we should take VD view

A

false: heart should be taken with DV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

true or false: lungs should be radiographed in VD view

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

where do you center the beam for a lateral thoracic radiograph?

A

5-6th rib, caudal border of scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

where do you center the beam for DV/VD thoracic radiograph?

A

over caudal border of scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what are the peripheral borders for thoracic radiographs?

A

scapulohumeral articulation to L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

should thoracic radiographs be taken on inspiration or expiration?

A

inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what are some concerns we might have when taking a DV radiograph?

A

motion
hip dysplasia (cannot be square)
deep chested animals
trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what does it mean to take a lateral decubitus view radiograph?

A

lateral decubitus takes a VD radiograph while the animal is in lateral recumbency; the beam hits the patient horizontally instead of vertically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

how do you identify if a thoracic radiograph was taken on inspiration or expiration?

A

lateral: size of heart, sternal contact, distance from apex to diaphragm
VD/DV: size of heart, distance from apex to diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

how would you differentiate a DV from V thoracic?

A

DV: diaphragm is v shaped, vertebrae appear more magnified, heart looks like lopsided egg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what is the difference in the appearance of the diaphragm on a VD thoracic vs. DV?

A

VD: diaphragm looks like a dome
DV: diaphragm looks more pointed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

how would you differentiate between a right lateral thoracic and a left lateral thoracic with no marker?

A

right: heart looks rounded
left: heart looks more boxy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

where would you measure for an abdominal radiograph?

A

thoracolumbar junction/caudal aspect of 13th rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

where would you center the beam for a VD abdominal radiograph?

A

over caudal aspect of 13th rib (2-3 fingerbreadths caudal for feline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what should you include in a VD abdominal view?

A

T9 to femoral head (may not fit in one view for larger patients)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

should a VD abdominal radiograph be taken on max inspiration or expiration?

A

expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what might be some concerns with performing a VD abdominal x-ray?

A

trauma
bloat
emaciation
obesity

76
Q

where would you center the beam for a lateral abdominal radiograph?

A

over caudal aspect of 13th rib

77
Q

what are the peripheral borders for a lateral abdomen?

A

caudal aspect of T7 to femoral head

78
Q

how might your exposure time be altered for an obese cat vs. an emaciated cat?

A

obese: requires increased exposure
emaciated: should have decreased exposure

79
Q

how would you define density and contrast in common terms?

A

density: the degree of blackness
contrast: difference between the adjacent densities

80
Q

what factors will make the film more black when increased?

A

mAs
kVp
developing time
developing temperature

81
Q

will a thinner body part (i.e. radius/ulna) be more or less dense in comparison to a thicker one?

A

more dense; will show up darker

82
Q

as you ____ subject density you will have ____ film density

A

increase, decreased

83
Q

define subject contrast

A

difference in density and mass between 2 adjacent anatomic structures

84
Q

define radiographic contrast

A

density difference between 2 adjacent areas on a radiograph

85
Q

high contrast is associated with ____ kVp

A

low

86
Q

explain low contrast

A

many different grays with small differences in density; it takes a long time to get from black to white

87
Q

true or false: if you set the machine to a fairly high kVp setting, chances are your radiograph is going to turn out with high contrast

A

false; as kVp settings increase, the image will have lower contrast

88
Q

when taking and developing diagnostic radiographs, is it good to have extreme differences in contrast?

A

no; should have a good range of blacks, whites and grays for a good quality image

89
Q

what is the principle control of contrast in radiography?

A

kVp

90
Q

if you develop an image and are not satisfied with the contrast, what setting will you need to alter?

A

kVp

91
Q

true or false: as it pertains to contrast, higher penetration will result in lower contrast

A

true

92
Q

does kVp only affect the contrast of an image?

A

no, kVp affects both contrast and density of an image

93
Q

what other results could you see from increasing the kVp setting?

A

increased scatter and/or grayness - this is also a reason for lower contrast with higher kVp

94
Q

what are three reasons scatter may occur?

A

thick patient
high kVp
increased field size

95
Q

what is the purpose of using a grid? when would we use it?

A

grid absorbs scatter radiation so the primary beam can reach the film better; used when patient measures thicker than 10cm

96
Q

what are the peripheral borders for radiographing long bones?

A

include joints distal and proximal

97
Q

what are the peripheral borders for radiographing joints?

A

include 1/3 of limbs distal and proximal

98
Q

what views should be taken for a scapula?

A

lateral

CdCr

99
Q

what views should be taken for a shoulder?

A

lateral

CdCr

100
Q

what views should be taken for a humerus?

A

lateral
CdCr
(CrCd)

101
Q

what views should be taken for an elbow?

A

lateral (flexed and extended)

CrCd

102
Q

what views should be taken fora radius/ulna?

A

lateral

CrCd

103
Q

what views should be taken for a carpus?

A

lateral
dorsopalmar
obliques (?)

104
Q

what views should be taken for metacarpals/phalanges?

A

lateral
dorsopalmar
obliques (?)

105
Q

what views should be taken for a pelvis?

A

lateral
VD
frog leg (trauma)

106
Q

what views should be taken for femur?

A

lateral

CrCd

107
Q

what views should be taken for a stifle?

A

lateral (flexed and extended)
CrCd
CdCr

108
Q

what views should be taken for a tarsus?

A

lateral
PD
DP (?)

109
Q

what views should be taken for a metatarsus/phalanges?

A

lateral

PD/DP

110
Q

where would you measure for a limb radiograph?

A

thickest area

111
Q

where would you center the beam for a long bone?

A

mid-diaphysis

112
Q

where would you center the beam or a joint?

A

at the articulation

113
Q

why is it important to extend the neck dorsally when taking a lateral shoulder radiograph?

A

to keep the trachea and possible ET tube dorsal to the scapulohumeral articulation (otherwise will be superimposed)

114
Q

where would you measure for a pelvis radiograph?

A

level of greater trochanter (over acetabulum)

115
Q

where would you center the beam for a lateral pelvis?

A

over greater femoral trochanter

116
Q

why might you need to take a lateral oblique view for pelvis?

A

if each femur needs to be seen, or hip luxation

117
Q

when would we use a VD frog leg position?

A

pelvic stress/trauma

118
Q

true or false: on a true lateral pelvis the affected and contralateral limbs are not superimposed

A

false; for true lateral both hind limbs should be superimposed

119
Q

what should be included in view for a lateral oblique pelvis?

A

entire pelvis, plus femur and patellae

120
Q

what should be included in field of view for VD frog leg pelvis?

A

entire pelvis, at least 1/2 of femurs

121
Q

what must be included for VD extended view (hip dysplasia)?

A

entire pelvis, femurs and stifles

122
Q

when submitting radiographs for hip dysplasia to OFA or Penn Hip, is it okay for there to be rotation of anatomy?

A

no, the image must be symmetrical

123
Q

what does normal femoral anatomy look like?

A 
130 degree angle of femoral neck 
cranial 1/3 joint space of equal width 
at least 1/2 femoral head in acetabulum 
rounded/smooth femoral heads 
smooth femoral neck
124
Q

what 3 views are required for Penn HIP?

A

standard extended view
compression view
distraction view

125
Q

what would you include for a lateral view of the femur?

A

hip joint, femur and stifle joint

126
Q

in general, what position will the animal be lying in for distal hind limb radiographs?

A

ventral recumbency (on their stomach)

127
Q

what are some examples of dark artifacts?

A 
static
inverted grid 
light leak 
scratches 
trapped air (towel)
128
Q

what are some examples of white artifacts?

A 
wet matted hair 
sandbags 
spilt fixer 
flea collar
lead marker 
damaged intensifying screens
129
Q

true or false: penumbra is caused by movement of the animal

A

true

130
Q

what is penumbra?

A

a lack of detail, or geometric unsharpness

131
Q

foreshortening and elongation are forms of what? what causes them?

A

geometric distortion/magnification

foreshortening: subject not parallel
elongation: tube head not parallel

132
Q

what is the purpose of a grid?

A

to prevent scatter radiation from reaching the film; absorbs them to produce a better quality image

133
Q

as scatter increases, contrast ____

A

decreases

134
Q

what is a grid composed of?

A

lead strips

135
Q

how do grids absorb scatter radiation? are they 100% effective?

A

the direction of the beams from scatter radiation do not align with the spaces between absorbing strips - the primary beam does align, so it can get through to the film

no grid will be 100% effective at preventing scatter from hitting the film

136
Q

define grid focus

A

distance from the focal spot to the grid

137
Q

define grid cut off

A

a progressive decrease in transmitted x-ray intensity caused by absorption of primary x-rays by the grid lines

138
Q

when does grid cut off happen?

A

when the grid is not used properly - grid lines will absorb more x-rays than they should

139
Q

three example causes of grid cut off

A
  1. improper centering under tube
  2. tilting the grid
  3. tilting the tube
140
Q

define grid efficiency

A

how well a grid can absorb non-image forming radiation in the production of a quality radiograph

141
Q

what factors contribute to grid efficiency?

A

grid ratio height

lines/cm thickness (of lead)

142
Q

define grid ratio

A

relation of the height of the lead strips to the distance between them (i.e. 10:1)

143
Q

true or false: the higher the grid ratio, the lower the efficiency of the grid

A

false; the higher the grid ratio, the higher the efficiency

144
Q

what are some possible setbacks to using a higher grid ratio?

A

requires higher quantity of x-rays/higher exposure factors

grid cutoff will be more noticeable

145
Q

how do the number of lines per cm in the grid affect its efficiency?

A

grid with more lines per cm area have better efficiency to absorb scatter radiation; there is less space between them therefore less will get through to the film

146
Q

what is a grid pattern?

A

the orientation of lead strips in longitudinal axis

147
Q

how many types of linear grid are there?

A

three

148
Q

what type of grid do we use at seneca?

A

focused grid

149
Q

how is a focused grid oriented?

A

lead strips are angled
focused on central point of grid
strips radiate from the centre and have a greater incline to the edge

150
Q

what is the purpose of intensifying screens?

A

to intensify the effect of x-rays during exposure to film

151
Q

what is an intensifying screen composed of? how does it work?

A

a sheet of crystals called phosphors; when exposed to x-ray radiation they are excited and emit fluorescent light

152
Q

true or false: most of the latent image is created from direct exposure of x-rays to film

A

false: only about 5% of the latent image is created by direct contact from the beam - 95% is from the glowing crystals

153
Q

there are multiple layers within the intensifying screen - what are they?

A

phosphor layer

reflective layer

154
Q

what happens in the phosphor layer of the intensifying screen?

A

x-ray radiation hits the phosphor crystals and they fluoresce

155
Q

what happens in the reflective layer of the intensifying screen?

A

as light is emitted from the crystals, it bounces off this layer and reflects onto the film

156
Q

what is the primary purpose of intensifying screens?

A

to reduce the amount of radiation exposure required to produce a diagnostic radiograph

157
Q

as phosphor efficiency _____ absorption _____

A

increases, increases

158
Q

an efficient crystal can take one x-ray beam and turn it into _____ of beams of visible light

A

hundreds

159
Q

true or false: light photons are more readily absorbed by film than x-rays

A

true

160
Q

in terms of intensifying screens, what do we mean by “conversion”?

A

the conversion of x-rays to visible light (in the cassette)

161
Q

what is afterglow?

A

crystals still emitting light after radiation exposure has stopped

162
Q

a good quality intensity screen should have what factors for absorption, conversion and afterglow

A

high absorption
high conversion
low afterglow

163
Q

true or false: lanthanide rare earth crystals are less efficient than calcium tungstate

A

false: lanthanide crystals are more efficient, and considered newer technology

164
Q

do calcium tungstate crystals require higher or lower exposure factors?

A

higher

165
Q

what spectrum do calcium tungstate emit in?

A

blue region

166
Q

what spectrum do lanthanide crystals emit in?

A

green spectrum

167
Q

true or false: lanthanide crystals are 4x faster than calcium tungstate

A

true

168
Q

what is the major benefit to using rare earth crystals?

A

they require lower mAs

169
Q

crystal size governs what in the intensifying screen?

A

screen speed

170
Q

true or false: as speed increases, grain will also increase

A

true

171
Q

what is the most common size crystal used in practice? why?

A

medium: good resolution, medium grain, midrange exposure factors

172
Q

other than crystal size, what affects the speed of the intensifying screens?

A

phosphor layer thickness

reflective layer efficiency

173
Q

true or false: seeing small “horse heads” between vertebrae is a good thing

A

true

174
Q

what are the two normal views for spine

A

VD

lateral

175
Q

what two views would you perform if there were spinal trauma?

A

lateral

lateral decubitis

176
Q

how many vertebrae should you include in one view?

A

usually a maximum of 5

177
Q

where would you measure for a spinal radiograph?

A

thickest part

178
Q

where would you center the beam for a spinal radiograph?

A

mid vertebral region (remember to only include 5-6)

179
Q

how should you decipher peripheral borders for spinal radiographs?

A

always include 1 vertebrae cranial and 1 caudal other than main part

180
Q

what view is performed for cervical spine?

A

VD

181
Q

what are 3 lateral views that can be performed for spinal radiographs?

A

extended
flexed
hyperextended

182
Q

what views can be performed for thoracic spinal radiographs?

A

VD

lateral

183
Q

what views can be performed for lumbar spine?

A

VD

lateral

184
Q

what views can be performed for sacrum?

A

VD

lateral

185
Q

what views can be performed for caudal (tail) vertebrae?

A

VD

lateral

Radiography (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions