Exam 6 Flashcards

1
Q

How can you define hypertension and how do you distinguish primary from secondary HTN? How do you calculate blood pressure?

A

HTN: Needs to me measured 2 separate times, need to eliminate white coat HTN
- systolic over 130mmHg
- diastolic over 80mmHg
- resting pulse pressure (SBP-DBP) over 65mmHg

Primary - No identifiable cause
Secondary - Can determine the cause (ABCDE)
- Aldosteronsim, Bad kidneys, Cushing’s/Coarctation, Drugs, Endocrine disorders

BP = Cardiac Output x Peripheral Vascular Resistance

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2
Q

What are the risk factors for HTN and what diseases are linked with HTN?

A

Risk factors - Lifestyle factors like being overweight, smoking, drinking, excess sodium/too little potassium, lack of exercise. Also hyperlipidemia, depression, age, sex, genetic factors, and race.

Isolated systolic HTN - Risk factor is agin due to vasculature being less flexible

Diseases - Diabetic nephropathy

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3
Q

What is the baroreceptor reflex? How does the baroreceptor reflex alter CO, vascular resistance, and BP when someone stands up really fast?

A

The baroreceptor reflex is a system for the body to measure and maintain blood pressure.

Pressure = CO x VR (vascular resistance)
- vascular resistance is primarily controlled by the SANS

Cardiac Output = SV x HR
- stroke volume and heart rate is controlled by the PANS and SANS

For example, if someone stands up ready fast, SANS will increase the heart rate, stroke volume, and vasoconstrict vessels, so more blood will then get to the brain.

If BP is high, the baroreceptor reflex will stimulate PANS, which will slow down SA node to decrease heart rate. It will also decrease the force of contraction of the heart and dilate arteriolar smooth muscle. These all result in decreased peripheral resistance and decreased cardiac output, leading to a decrease in BP.

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4
Q

What organs are the sites of action for antihypertensive agents and which organs are at risk for damage due to hypertension?

A

Targets - Heart (reduce cardiac output), resistance of arterioles, resistance of veins, kidney (reduce fluids and blood volume).

HTN damages the heart (HF, CAD, angina, MI), kidney (kidney disease/failure), brain (stroke), and eyes (vision loss)

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5
Q

Where do these sympathetic nervous system receptors work and what is their MOA for controlling BP? NE, EPI, a1, a2, b1, b2 receptors

A

NE stimulated beta and alpha receptors in the heart and vessels by directly getting released into tissues.

In the adrenal glands, NE and EPI are released into the blood stream to stimulate alpha and beta receptors in the heart and vessels.

a1 - very present in vascular smooth muscle (constriction)
b1 - very present in cardiac muscle; stimulation increases HR (SA node) and force/stroke volume (AV node), thus increasing BP. Also, renal b1 receptors (juxtaglomerular cells) secrete renin into vasculature, which increases BP.
b2 - minimal in cardiac muscle, present in vascular smooth muscle (dilation); stimulation increases cAMP, which inhibits MLCK, which inhibits contraction and promote relaxation.

a1 is stronger than b2, so that’s why it’s more the focus for HTN therapy.

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6
Q

What does stimulation of the M3 receptor do in the vasculature? What does stimulation of M2 do?

A

M3 - Stimulation of M3 in endothelium results in increased production of NO. NO activates guanylyl cyclase, which converts GTP to cGMP, which leads to relaxation.

M2 - Stimulation of M2 decreases HR and force/stroke volume, resulting in a decrease in BP. M2 is inhibitory, so it decreases cAMP in the heart, resulting in decreased HR.

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7
Q

How does dopamine impact BP?

A

When renal sympathetic nerves are stimulated, they release dopamine from proximal tubules. At low dopamine concentrations, vasodilation occurs, but at high dopamine concentrations, dopamine causes vasoconstriction.

Dopamine purges NA+, which causes diuresis (lowers BP).

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8
Q

What drugs are in these classes: a1 antagonists, a2 agonists, nonselective a-blockers, b-blockers, a1/b blockers, catecholamine depleters

A

a1 antagonists - (-osins) prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin

a2 agonists - Methyldopa (Aldomet), clonidine

nonselective a-blockers - phentolamine (reversible), phenoxybenzamine (irreversible)

b-blockers -
- 1st gen (non-selective): carvedilol, propranolol, pindolol
- 2nd gen: metoprolol tartrate, metoprolol succinate, atenolol
- 3rd gen: nebivolol, betaxolol

a1/b blockers - carvedilol, labetalol

catecholamine depleters - reserpine

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9
Q

What are the mechanistic differences between non-selective a-blockers, a1-blockers, central acting a2 agonists, and catecholamine depleters?

A

a1 antagonists - in vascular smooth muscle and CNS. Activation by NE causes vasoconstriction, so antagonism dilates arteries and veins, causing a decrease in vascular resistance.

central acting a2 agonists - mainly in CNS. Activation decreases the firing of sympathetic nerves by inhibiting a1 and b receptors, thus decreasing heart rate, stroke volume, and increasing vasodilation in arteries, all resulting in a decrease in blood pressure.

non-selective a-blockers - these block a1 to dilate arteries and veins, which decreases vascular resistance. By also blocking a2 receptors, they prevent the negative feedback of NE release, which causes reflex tachycardia.

a1/b blockers - these decrease SVR through inhibiting a1 and also block the increase in HR, SV and CO from inhibiting b receptors.

catecholamine depleters - These irreversibly inhibit VMAT, which packages monoamines into vesicles. Without VMAT, monoamine storage is depleted, which decreases synaptic transmission. Decreasing NE causes vasodilation

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10
Q

What are the mechanistic differences between 1st, 2nd, and 3rd generation b-blockers and a1/b blockers?

A

b1 is primarily in cardiac muscle. b2 is widespread throughout cardiac muscle, skeletal muscle, vascular smooth muscle, bronchial smooth muscle, liver, and CNS.

1st gen - non-selective; Blocks b1 and b2. Inhibiting b1 reduces HR and SV to reduce blood pressure, which leads to reduction in renin release. These can cause rebound tachycardia

2nd gen - these are b1 selective, so there’s less bronchoconstriction

3rd gen - these are b1 selective, but they also have a 2nd mechanism of action. Nebivolol also has b3 stimulation to increase NO, which causes vasodilation. Betaxolol also has CCB effect.

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11
Q

How does antagonism of a1 and a2, agonism of a2, and antagonism of b1 and b2 impact VR, CO, and BP?

A

a1 antagonism - decrease vascular resistance by dilating arteries and veins

a2 agonists - decrease cardiac output and vascular resistance by increasing inhibitory effect of SNS (inhibits a1 and b receptors)

a2 antagonism - decreases the NE blockade, which does the opposite of what we want. It increases sympathetic effect, increases HR and VR

b1 antagonist - Reduces heart rate and stroke volume. Due to reduction of renin release, it can also cause vasodilation.

b2 antagonist - causes vasoconstriction when blocked, but causes adverse effects due to widespread location of b2 receptors.

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12
Q

What are the indications and contraindications of these: a1 antagonists, a2 agonists, nonselective a-blockers, b-blockers, catecholamine depleters

A

a1 antagonists - rarely used for HTN, except good for pheochromocytoma, otherwise 3rd or 4th choice.
- Contraindicated in…

a2 agonists - methyldopa first choice for pregnancy
- Contraindicated in…

nonselective a-blockers - hypertensive emergency (rarely used)

b-blockers - not 1st line for HTN
- Contraindicated in asthma, COPD, and CHF

a1/b blockers - labetalol can be used in pregnancy (pre-eclampsia), also useful in aortic dissection

catecholamine depleters - 2nd line for HTN

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13
Q

What is the biosynthesis pathway of angiotensin II and what is its role in HTN?

A
  1. Renin is released to the blood
  2. Angiotensinogen is released from liver into the blood
  3. Renin + angiotensinogen converts to angiotensin I
    Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) in pulmonary blood converts angiotensin I -> angiotensin II

Angiotensin II in BP -
1. Stimulates adrenal cortex to release aldosterone, which causes NaCL + H2O retention, increasing BP
2. Causes constriction of smooth muscle cells, increasing BP
3. Activates thirst center in pituitary gland to release ADH, causing person to drink more, increasing BP
4. Modulate baroreceptor reflex, increasing BP without reflex bradycardia
5. Causes cardiovascular hypertrophy by increasing contraction, increasing BP

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14
Q

By what mechanisms is renin released? What role does renin play in HTN?

A

Renin is released by juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney.
This happens due to:
- drop in BP in the pre-glomerular arteries (<90 systolic)
- low NaCl in the distal tubule of the kidney (via sensors in Macula Densa)
- increased sympathetic nervous activity (b1), or other signaling mechanisms

Renin increases blood pressure by producing angiotensin II downstream

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15
Q

What are the RAAS modulators and what class are they in?

A

RAAS: Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

Renin inhibitor:
- Aliskirin (Tekturna) directly inhibits renin.
- b1-blockers indirectly inhibit renin by blocking b1-AR mediated release of renin

ACE inhibitor: (-pril) lisinopril, enalapril (prodrug), captopril

AT 1 Receptor blocker: (-sartans) losartan, valsartan

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16
Q

What are similarities and differences between ACE-Is and AT1 receptor blockers in terms of clinical use, adverse effects, and contraindications?

A

ACE-I:
- use: HTN, HFrEF, MI, diabetic nephropathy, captopril good for orthostatic HTN
- adverse effects: first dose hypotension, hyperkalemia, acute renal failure, dry cough, angioedemia
- contraindications: pregnancy, SCr > 2.5, african-americans

AT1 receptor blockers: reduce BP and vasoconstriction
- use: HTN, CHF, diabetic nephropathy, stroke prophylaxis, losartan is good for gout
- adverse effects: first dose(s) hypotension, hyperkalemia (less than ACE-Is), teratogenic
- contraindications: pregnancy, hyperkalemia

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17
Q

What is the role of bradykinin in HTN and the therapeutic efficacy of ACE-Is?

A

Inhibition of ACE would stimulate bradykinin production. Bradykinin causes natriuresis and vasodilation, which is good for BP. Bradykinin also causes bronchoconstriction, which is why ACE inhibitors are known to cause a dry cough.

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18
Q

Thiazides - MOA?

A

MOA - Inhibits Na+-Cl- symport, so Na+ stays in the lumen. This happens primary in the distal convoluted tubule. This also impacts K+ reuptake

Ex. HCTZ, Chlorthalidone, Metolazone

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19
Q

Loop diuretics - MOA?

A

MOA - Inhibit Na+-K+-2Cl1 symport, thus preventing Na+ from leaving the lumen. Because water follows sodium, more water is excreted. This action is in the thick ascending limb

Ex. Furosemide, Bumetanide, Ethacrynic acid, Torsemide

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20
Q

K-sparing diruetics- MOA?

A

MOA -
- 1st class: Inhibit renal epithelial Na+ channels, thus preventing Na+ from leaving the lumen. This also keeps K+ out of the lumen. This happens primarily in the last distal tubule and collecting duct. Ex. Amiloride, Triamterene
- 2nd class: MRAs block the production of ATP-ase, which prevents Na+ from leaving the lumen and K+ getting into the lumen. Ex. Spironolactone, Canrenone, Eplerenone

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21
Q

What are the intracellular/extracellular distributions of Na+, K+, and Ca2+ in excitable cells?

A

Na+: high outside of the cell (145mM), low inside of the cell (12mM)
K+: low outside of the cell (4mM), high inside of the cell (155mM)
Cl-: high outside of the cell (1.5mM), very low inside the cell (100nM)

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22
Q

What is the role of voltage-gated calcium channels in cardiac, vascular, and skeletal muscle?

A

Cardiac muscle - Blocking the channels has an antiarrhythmic effect. When Cav1.2 is phosphorylated (activated), the Ca2+ influx would increase contractility and force of contractions, and increase AV nodal action potential conduction rate.

Vascular smooth muscle - Blocking the channels causes vasodilation, resulting in a decrease in BP and relief of angina. This is because it inhibits the influx of calcium (from RYR2 stores)that triggers contraction.

Skeletal - Unlike cardiac/vascular muscle, skeletal muscle does not require extracellular calcium for contraction. Skeletal muscle contraction is between Cav1.1 and RYR1, which is not what CCBs interfere with.

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23
Q

What are the three chemical classes of calcium channel blockers? What are the names of the members in each class and what are the recognizable structures?

A
  1. Dihydropyridines: stucture has dihydropyridine ring. Ex. nifedipine, isradipine, felodipine, amlodipine
  2. Phenylalkylamines: Long alkyl chain with phenyl rings. Ex. verapamil
  3. Benzothiazepines: Ex. Diltiazem
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24
Q

What are the MOAs and tissue selectivities of the 3 types of CCBs?

A

Dihydropyridines - Interferes with gating. The (+) enantiomer interferes with opening of channel, (-) interferes with closing. Binds allosterically to the outside of the pore when the channel is closed, in order to prevent its opening. (tonic block)
- Most potent in smooth muscle (ex. coronary artery), doesn’t compromise cardiac function. These are voltage-dependent, which explains their action in vascular muscle instead of the heart

Phenylalkylamines - Slows conduction through SA node (HR) and AV node (force). Blocks inside the pore to prevent Ca2+ influx. Also causes some vasodilation.
- These are more cardioselective due to frequency-dependent block.

Benzothiazepines - These have a frequency-dependent block of Ca2+ channels and also some tonic block. They cause vasodilation (less than DHPs) and slow conduction through SA/AV nodes. The binding side overlaps the inside and outside of the pore.
- Directly inhibit the heart (less than verapamil, but more than DHPs).

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25
Q

What is the basis for frequency-dependent block and what is its role in calcium channel blocker tissue selectivity?

A

Frequency-dependent drugs, like verapamil, bind to the inside of the pore to block Ca2+ influx. This means the drug only works if the channel is open, resulting in a frequency-dependent block. The more time the channel is open, the better the drug works.

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26
Q

What are the unique aspects of nimodipine and amlodipine action relative to other dihydropyridines?

A

Amlodipine - has ether side chain, which gives favorable PK properties, like a longer duration of action and slow onset, which is good for dilation of vessels, because it prevents tachycardia

Nimodipine - Selective for cerebral arteries, so it’s used in sub-arachnoid hemorrhage, in order to prevent neuropathy

27
Q

What are the side effects associated with the three classes of CCBs?

A

Dihydropyridines - reflex tachycardia (except amlodipine), nifedipine may increase the risk of MI in someone who’s already had an MI; facial flushing, tachycardia, and ankle edema are most common.

Phenylalkylamines - no reflex tachycardia. Constipation and ankle edema are the most common.

Benzothiazepines - initial reflex tachycardia. Ankle edema is most common.

28
Q

What is the cellular basis for the vasodilatory activity of organic nitrates/nitrates, cAMP/cGMP PDE inhibitors, and K+ channel openers?

A

Organic nitrates/nitrites - Nitric oxide binds to guanylate cyclase, stimulating production of cGMP and activating protein kinase G. Protein kinase G reduces Ca2+ signaling, helps hyperpolarize K+ channels, decreases MLC phosphorylation, and increases Ca2+ intake in to ER.

cAMP/cGMP PDE inhibitors - These inhibit the breakdown of cAMP and cGMP. Inhibiting breakdown of cAMP results in MLCK getting phosphorylated, which inhibits contraction and promotes relaxation.

K+ channel openers - The longer K+ channels are open, the closer the membrane potential is to K+ equilibrium potential. This is good, because the closer we get to K+ equilibrium potential, the harder it is to depolarize the membrane enough to open voltage-gated Ca2+ channels. Also inhibits cAMP PDE. Natrecor binds to membrane-bound GC domians to activate cGMP.

29
Q

What is the selectivity of these vasodilators? K+ channel openers, organic nitrates, cAMP PDE inhibitors, PDE5 inhibitors

A

K+ channel openers - Minoxidil and Diazoxide bind to K+/ATP channels, Adenosine binds to GPCR that increases conductance of K+ channel (activates GIRK)

Organic Nitrates - non-selective

cAMP PDE inhibitors - PDE3-i’s are more in vasculature, PDE5-i’s are more cardioselective

30
Q

What are the clinical characteristics of the vasodilators (routes of administration, side effects, susceptibility to tolerance)?

A

K+ channel agonists -
ROA - orally (minoxidil), IV (diazoxide, adenosine)
Side effects - hypertrichosis
Tolerance - no

Organic nitrites -
ROA - oral, IV (nitroprusside, natriuretic peptide), sublingually (nitroglycerin), transdermally
Side effects -
Tolerance - yes, with continuous administration (nitroglycerin)

cAMP PDE inhibitors -
ROA - IV (PDE3s), oral (PDE5s)
Side effects - PDE5 inhibitors can cause bluish vision
Tolerance - no

31
Q

What are the PDE inhibitors with selectivity for cAMP vs. cGMP phosphodiesterases? (name and structure)

A

cAMP - amrinone/milrinone (direct vasodilatory effect, direct increase in force of heart contraction, reducing the work the heart has to do)

cGMP - sildenafil, tadalafil, vardenafil, more selective on heart instead of vasodilation

32
Q

What are the names and structures of the organic nitrates/nitrites and K+ channel openers?

A

K+ channel openers - minoxidil, diazoxide, adenosine
- minoxidil and diazoxide have the sulfur group, adenosine has alcohol ring (glucose ring?)

Organic nitrates - amylnitrite, glyceryl trinitrate (nitroglycerin), pentaerythritol tetranitrate, isosorbide dinitrate, isosorbide monotritrate, nitroprusside, hydralazine, natrecor

33
Q

What is the difference in structure and activity of hydralazine vs. organic nitrates/nitrites?

A

It’s not clear if hydralazine generates NO. It dilates arterioles preferentially through an unclear mechanism. It is thought to interfere with the release of Ca2+ from the ER.
- Doesn’t have nitrogen cation

Organic nitrates turn into NO in vivo, then stimulate protein kinase G, which causes vasodilation.

34
Q

How is the action of adenosine on K+ channels different from that of minoxidil and diazoxide?

A

Adenosine binds to a GPCR that activates GIRK, which conducts K+ efflux and membrane hyperpolarization.

Minoxidil and diazoxide bind directly to the K+/ATP channel to potentiate them.

35
Q

What are the two mechanisms whereby intracellular Ca2+ concentration is increased in vascular smooth muscle cells?

A
  • Voltage-gated calcium channels: Ca2+ enters cell through calcium channels
  • Pharmaco-mechanical coupling: drug binds to GPCR, which results in release of Ca2+ from SR
36
Q

Describe the mechanism whereby intracellular Ca2+ concentration is increased in vascular smooth muscle cells, including the role of calmodulin, myosin light chain kinase, protein kinase A, myosin light chain, and actin.

A

When a1-adrenergic receptors are activated (Gq pathway), PIP2 is activated, which results in IP3 and DAG. IP3 increases the intracellular concentration of Ca2+. Ca2+-calmodulin and the increased Ca2+ activates myosin light chain kinase, which phosphorylated myosin light chain. when phosphorylated myosin LC and actin bind, it results in contraction.

37
Q

What is the use of alpha1 adrenergic agonists in the treatment of anaphylaxis, orthostatic hypotension, and as adjuncts to local anesthesia?

A

Anaphylaxis -

Orthostatic HTN -

Anesthesia - a1 agonists, like epinephrine, are used to reduce the blood flow to the site of injection. We want to keep the anesthetic local so that a lower dose of the anesthetic is required, there’s decreased toxicity, and a longer duration of action.

38
Q

Why are alpha1 adrenergic agonists and indirect activators of alpha1 receptors used as nasal decongestants and in eye drops?

A

a1 agonists in nasal decongestants and eye drops causes vasoconstriction in the nasal mucosa or conjunctiva.
- direct: phenylephrine
- indirect: pseudoephedrine, ephedrine
- partial: naphazoline, tetrahydrozoline, oxymetazoline

39
Q

What role does phospholipase C play in vasoconstriction when stimulated by alpha1 adrenergic agonists?

A

PLC cleaves PIP2 into IP3 and DAG. Then, IP3 increases intracellular concentration of Ca2+.

40
Q

Why do we use epinephrine to treat anaphylactic shock?

A

Epinephrine causes vasoconstriction which is good because someone in anaphylactic shock has major hypotension.

41
Q

What is the site of Endothelin production and action, what factors influence the expression level of its precursor?

A

Production - vascular endothelium
Action - Binds to GPCRs in the vascular smooth muscle and contracts the vascular smooth muscle
- Expression - elevated in pulmonary arterial hypertension

42
Q

What patient would benefit from anti-hypertensive treatment?

A

Patients with stage 1 HTN AND >10% ASCVD risk OR specific comorbidity
- diabetes mellitus
- CKD
- heart failure
- stable ischemic heart disease
- peripheral arterial disease
- secondary stroke prevention if BP ≥140/90

  • patients with stage 2 HTN

goal is <130/80

43
Q

What are the recommended non-pharmacological treatment options for hypertension?

A

(non-pharm recommended for patients with elevated BP)

  • DASH diet (11mmHg reduction, veg/fruits, whole grains, fat-free or low-fat dairy products, nuts and veg oils)
  • physical activity
  • decrease sodium intake
  • weight loss
  • enhance dietary potassium intake
  • moderation in alcohol intake
44
Q

What are the first-line therapies for the treatment of hypertension?

A

Thiazide diuretics: doses once daily in AM (ex. chlorthalidone, HCTZ, indapamide, metolazone)
- Contraindicated if sulfa allergy or anuria
- AEs: hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypercalcemia, hyperuricemia, hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, sexual dysfunction, increase in triglycerides/cholesterol

CCBs:
- DHPs: (-pine). Usually dosed once daily. AEs include reflex tachycardia, flushing, dizziness, headache, peripheral edema, and gingival hyperplasia
- nonDHP CCBs: (diltiazem, verapamil). Dosed once or twice daily. Added benefit if Afib or pts with angina that cannot tolerate beta blocker. Contraindicated if heart block or left ventricular dysfunction. AEs include bradycardia, headache, dizziness, etc.

ACE inhibitors: good to dose in PM for “BP dipping” overnight. (ex. -pril). Most are dosed once-twice daily, but captopril is 2-3 times daily
- Contraindicated if hx of angioedema on an ACEi, if aliskiren is being used in pts with DM, and if pregnant/breastfeeding
- AEs: angioedema, cough, hyperkalemia, actue renal failure

ARBs: good to dose in PM for “BP dipping” overnight. (ex. -sartan). Most are once daily, but losartan and eprosartan are 1 or 2x/day.
- Contraindicated if hx of angioedema on an ARB, if aliskiren is being used in pts with DM, and if pregnant/breastfeeing
- AEs: angioedema, hyperkalemia, acute renal failure

45
Q

What patient-specific factors would cause us to modify their treatment plans? (stable ischemic heart disease, heart failure, CKD, cerebrovascular disease, diabetes, pregnancy, race)

A
  • ALLHAT trial shows that for pts over 55yo with HTN + 1 CV risk factor, thiazides were superior to ACE-is and CCBs.
  • Stable Ischemic Heart Disease: 1st line is beta blockers, then ACEi/ARBs, then DHPs
  • Heart failure: reduced ejection fraction -> avoid non DHP CCBs, follow heart failure guidelines; preserved ejection fraction -> treat for symptoms. use diuretics for fluid overload, ACEi/ARBs for elevated BP, and beta blockers for HR
  • Chronic kidney disease: CKD stage 1 or 2 AND albuminuria -> ACEi (or ARB); CKD stage 3 or higher -> ACEi; post kidney transplant -> DHP CCBs
  • Cerebrovascular disease: secondary stoke prevention -> start with diuretic, then ACEi/ARB (start 2 agents); initiate treatment when >140/90
  • Diabetes: all first-line classes are good, but use ACEi/ARB if albuminuria
  • Pregnancy: use methyldopa, nifedipine, or labetalol (not ACEi/ARB or aliskerin), thiazides are questionable but not contraindicated
  • African american: if HTN but no HF or CKD, then first line is thiazide or CCB.
46
Q

What are the drug monitoring plans we should have based on the type of anti-hypertensive treatment?

A

Diuretic monitoring - electrolytes and renal function at baseline, 1-2 weeks after initiation, and then every 6-12 months after that. Loop diuretics and aldosterone antagonists can have electrolytes and renal function be checked at 3-4 weeks after initiation.

ACEi/ARB monitoring - potassium and renal function at baseline, 1-2 weeks after initiation, and every 6-12 months after. If elderly, check w/in one week. If potassium is less than 4.5, can wait 3-4 weeks before checking.

Aliskiren - Potassium, BUN, SCr

CCBs: heart rate for non-dihydropyridines

Aldosterone antagonists: potassium, BUN/SCr

Beta blockers: heart rate

47
Q

What are the adult BP classifications?

A

normal: <120/<80
elevated: 120-129/<80
hypertension stage 1: 130-139/80-89
hypertension stage 2: ≥140/≥90

*always pick higher stage

48
Q

When are loop diuretics used for HTN and when are they dosed? When are they contraindicated and what are some adverse effects?

A

Not first line for HTN, but preferred in heart failure for symptom management

Dosed in the morning or afternoon to avoid nocturnal diuresis

Furosemide - 1 or 2x/day
Torsemide - 1x/day
Bumetanide - 1-2x/day

Contraindicated if sulfa allergy.
AEs: hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, hyperuricemia, ototoxicity

49
Q

When are aldosterone antagonists used and when are they dosed? When are they contraindicated and what are some adverse effects?

A

Preferred with resistant HTN

Dosed in morning or afternoon to avoid nocturnal diuresis

Spironolactone - 1 or 2
Eplerenone - 1 or 2

Contraindicated if potassium is over 5mEq/L and if using potassium sparing diuretic. Eplerenone is contraindicated if T2DM with proteinuria or impaired renal function (SCr over 2 for males and 1.8 for females)
AEs: gynecomastia

50
Q

What are the common cardioselective and nonselective beta blockers?

A

Cardioselective: metoprolol tartrate and succinate.

Nonselective: propranolol IR and LA (don’t use in COPD or asthma)

51
Q

What are some clinical points about the direct arterial vasodilators?

A

Hydralazine is takes 2-4 times daily
Minoxidil is taken 1-3 times daily

Adverse effects include lupus-like symptoms with hydralazine, hair growth with minoxidil, tachycardia, chest pain, GI effects, etc.

Minoxidil has a boxed warning that it may cause pericarditis and pericardial effusion that could progress to tamponade

Patient must already be maxed out on a diuretic and two other antihypertensive agents (and/inc beta blocker)

52
Q

Which antihypertensive classes should you avoid abrupt cessation in due to rebound hypertension?

A

beta blockers
central alpha-2 agonist

53
Q

What is the definition of resistance HTN?

A

failure to attain goal BP while adherent to at least 3 agents at max dose, including a diuretic, or when 4 or more agents are needed.

risk factors include old age, obesity, CKD, diabetes, and if they are African American

  • must rule out secondary causes of HTN, nonadherence, whitecoat HTN, etc.
54
Q

What are the steps to manage resistant HTN?

A
  1. maximize lifestyle interventions and optimize 3-drug regimen (ACEi/ARB, CCB, and diuretic)
  2. Substitute optimized thiazide-like diuretic (chlorthalidone, indapamide)
  3. Add mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (spironolactone, eplerenone)
  4. If HR is over 70, add beta blocker. If HR under 70 or if bb is contraindicated, add central alpha-2 agonist (clonidine patch or guanfacine qHS)
  5. Add hydralazine (must be on diuretic + BB)
  6. Substitute minoxidil for hydralazine (must be on diuretic + BB)
55
Q

What is the difference between hypertensive urgency and emergency?

A

Urgency - SBP > 180 and/or DBP >120 with no evidence of target organ damage

Emergency - SBP >180 and/or DBP >120 WITH evidence of target organ damage

Sx of organ damage:
- cardiac ischemia (chest pain, arm numbness, shortness of breath (SOB)
- acute kidney injury (AKI)/renal failure (decreased urine output, dehydration, vomiting, back pain (increased SCr)
- neurologic deficits (stroke) (AMS, decreased cognition, severe headaches, dizziness
- changes in vision
- acute pulmonary edema

56
Q

What are the goals of therapy for hypertensive urgency and emergency and in pre-eclampsia/eclampsia, pheochromocytoma crisis, aortic dissection, and stroke?

A

Urgency - reinstitute or intensity oral medication, ensure follow-up with primary care

Emergency - within 1 hour, reduce BP by 25%; hours 2-6, reduce BP to below 160/110; hours 6-48, reduce to goal BP

Pre-eclampsia: Reduce SBP to <140 within the first hour

Pheochromocytoma crisis: Reduce SBP to <140 in the first hour

Aortic dissection: Reduce SBP to <120 in the first hour

Stroke: if it has been less than 72 hours since symptoms, give thrombolytic and lower BP to <185/110, maintain <180/105 for 24 hours post-thrombolytic administration. If not a candidate for thrombolytic, lower BP by 15% during the first 24 hours if BP >220/110; If BP <220/110, ensure neurologic stability and initiate/reinitiate antihypertensive drugs

57
Q

What are the different medications and medication classes used to treat hypertensive urgencies and emergencies?

A

Hypertensive urgency:
- Captopril; 25mg repeated every 1.5-2 hours prn
- Clonidine; 0.1-0.2mg, repeat 0.1mg every hour as needed, max of 0.7mg
- Nicardipine; 30mg q8h prn
- Labetalol; 200mg repeated every 3-4 hours prn

Hypertensive emergency: always IV at first
- Nicardipine: 5-15mg/hr titrate q5mins
- Hydralazine: 10-20mg via slow infusion q4-6hr prn (not titrated)
- Labetalol: up to 20mg IV bolus q10mins OR 0.5-2.0mg/min IV infusion
- enalaprilat: 1.25mg over 5 mins titrated by 5mg q6h prn (good if related to renin excess)

58
Q

When can you use specific medications for hypertensive emergencies based on specific patient information? (AKI, acute decompensated HR with pulmonary edema, aortic dissection, intracranial hemorrhage, ischemic stroke)

A
  • AKI - most IV situations good, use caution with sodium nitroprusside, avoid enalaprilat
  • acute decompensated HF with pulmonary edema - nitroglycerin or sodium nitroprusside (nicardipine and clevidipine good too), avoid BB or non-DHP CCB
  • aortic dissection - BB then vasodilator (nicardipine, clevidipine, or nitroprusside)
  • intracranial hemorrhage - nicardipine, clevidipine, or labetalol
  • ischemic stroke - nicardipine, clevidipine, or labetalol
59
Q

When can you use specific medications for hypertensive emergencies based on specific patient information? (hypertensive encephalopathy, acute coronary syndromes, pre-eclampsia or eclampsia, pheochromocytoma crisis, retinopathy)

A
  • hypertensive encephalopathy - most are good!
  • acute coronary syndromes - esmolol, labetalol, nicardipine, or sodium nitroprusside; caution with non-DHP CCV; avoid BB with HFrEF, low HR, low SBP, 2nd or 3rdº heart block, reactive airway disease
  • pre-eclampsia - hydralazine, labetalol, nicardipine; avoid enalaprilat and nitroprusside
  • pheochromocytoma crisis - bb +/- nicardipine or clevidipine
  • retinopathy - most IV antihypertensives are good, avoid fenoldopam
60
Q

What is the pathophysiology of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)?

A
  • high blood pressure in the lungs
  • PH is when the mean pulmonary artery pressure (MPAP) is at least 20mmHg at rest
  • PAH is a subset of PH in which there’s progressive disease that involves endothelial dysfunction that leads to pulmonary arterial pressure and pulmonary vascular resistance
  • Causes of PAH can be unknown, genetic, drug and toxin exposure, and it can be associated with CHD, HIV, and connective tissue disorders
  • Only 3% of PH patients have pulmonary arterial hypertension

Symptoms: fatigue, fainting/light headed, chest pain, shortness of breath, palpitations, edema

  • The right side of the heart becomes larger because it has difficulty pumping against high pulmonary pressures
  • Left side of heart becomes smaller (right ventricular failure)
61
Q

What is the mechanism of action of these PAH therapies?

A

(nitric oxide synthase and prostacyclin production goes down, thromboxane production and endothelin 1 production goes up)

CCBs: Inhibit contraction, allowing for vasodilation
- Ex. nifedipine, diltiazem, amlodipine

Direct pulmonary vasodilators
- Ex. inhaled NO

Phosphosdiesterase 5 inhibitors: inhibit cGMP from getting converted to GMP, so more vasodilation and antiproliferation occur.
- Ex. Sildenafil, tadalafil

Endothelin receptor antagonists (ERAs): prevent endothelin from binding to ET-A and ET-B receptors, thus inhibiting vasoconstriction and proliferation; take 8-10 to see effects
- Ex. ambrisentan, bosentan, macitentan

Prostacyclins: result in more cAMP, leading to vasodilation and antiproliferation
- Epoprostenol (IV), iloprost (inh), treprostinil (IV, SQ, inh, oral)
- Selexipag (oral) is an IP prostacyclin receptor agonist

Soluble guanylate cyclase stimulator - antiproliferative and antiremodeling activity
- Ex. Riociguat

62
Q

What are the differences between PAH therapies based on adverse affects, administration options, and cost?

A

CCBs: Only 5-8% of patients are indicated for these. May need to start additional/alternative therapy

Direct pulmonary vasodilators

Phosphosdiesterase 5 inhibitors - May require specialty pharmacy due to cost, taken orally or IV (rare, $$$)
- AEs: hearing loss, sudden vision loss, hypotension, blue-tinged vision
- Drug interactions: Don’t use with riociguat or nitrates

Endothelin receptor antagonists (ERAs) - All come through specialty pharmacy due to REMs programs
- AEs: Embryo-fetal toxicity, bosentan causes hepatotoxicity

Prostacyclins - Specialty pharmacy, $$$$
- AEs: Thrombocytopenia, hypotension, headache, jaw pain, etc. ORAL - diarrhea, anemia; INH - cough, throat irritation; IV - line infections (need perm. central line), erythema; SQ - site pain, infusion site reactions

Soluble guanylate cyclase stimulator
- Contraindicated in pregnancy

63
Q

How can you develop a drug therapy for patients with PAH?

A

If they are a positive responder to acute vasoreactivity testing, use CCB (nifedipine, diltiazem, amlodipine)

If negative responder, RV failure, or CCB contraindication:
- WHO FC I + treatment naive: monitor for disease progression and determine when to start therapy.
- WHO FC II + treatment naive: arbrisentan + tadalafil if they can tolerate combo therapy; ERA, riociguat, or PDE-5 inhibitor if they cannot tolerate combo therapy
- WHO FC II + treatment naive + slow progression: ambrisentan + tadalafil if they can tolerate combo therapy; ERA, riociguat, or PDE-5 inhibitor if they cannot tolerate combo therapy
- WHO FC III + rapid progression: if candidate for parental prostanoids, then 1. SC treprostinil (+ combo med); if not a candidate, then consider inhaled or oral prostanoid (probs w/ ERA + PDE5-i)
- WHO FC IV: if candidate for parental prostanoids, then 1. SC treprostinil (+ combo med); if not a candidate, then inhaled prostanoid + ERA + PDE5-i

*oral prostacyclins must be titrated.
**if SQ treprostinil not tolerated, then try IV treprostinil

64
Q

What are the monitoring plans for patients with PAH?

A

ERA monitoring: pregnancy test monthly, LFTs monthly/as indicated (not required for ambrisentan, but should still check), hemoglobin at baseline, then after first month, then as indicated

Monitoring for disease progression: dyspnea on exertion, fatigue, weakness, disease progession