Exam 5 Flashcards
What is the primary purpose of VEGF?
It promotes angiogenesis, increases vascular permeability, and stimulates endothelial cell migration and proliferation
Describe the TNM method of cancer staging
T=tumor, Tis=carcinoma in situ, T4 directly invades other organs/structures
N=node involvment, N0=no node involvement, N1 or N’greater than’2 means few or multiple nodes involved by tumor
M=Metastsis, M0=metastsis absent, M1=metastsis present
In regards to HPV oncoproteins, E6 affects____ and E7 affects ____
E6 affects p53, and E7 affects pRb (also know HPV can cause cervical and oral cancer)
MYC is a growth _____ oncogene. p53 is a growth _____ suppressor gene
MYC is a growth promoting oncogene. p53 is a growth inhibiting suppressor gene
(T/F) an oncogene is a proto-oncogene that has been mutated
true
Match the following:
1) pathogenesis
2) etiology
3) functional consequences
a) mechanism of development
b) signs and symptoms
c) cause
1) pathogenesis — a) mechanism of development
2) etiology — c) cause
3) functional consequences — b) signs and symptoms
Which one of the following choices describes a device that tests patients to help predict response to medications based on the proteins CYP2D6 and CYP2C19
a) ARMS PCR
b) gene therapy (ex vivo)
c) microarray technology
d) amplichip
d) amplichip
a) ARMS PCR–used to look for specific point mutations in family members
b) gene therapy (ex vivo)-perfomed on cells, not genes that are removed from the pt, manipulated, and returned
c) microarray technology-compares genes expressed in 2 populations of cells or tissues
Match the following:
1) totipotent
2) pluripotent
3) multipotent
a) from adult
b) from zygote
c) from blastocyst
1) totipotent—b) from zygote
2) pluripotent—c) from blastocyst
3) multipotent—a) from adult
What is unique about aquiring retinoblastoma (when retinal cells become tumors)
It requires 2 events. 1st needs one copy of Rb gene mutant in germline, then the 2nd copy of Rb gene in retinal cell becomes mutated in childhood
Match the following type 2 restriction endonucleases with their functions:
1) EcoRi
2) HaeIII
a) produces sticky overhangs
b) produces blunt cuts
1) EcoRi—a) produces sticky overhangs
2) HaeIII—b) produces blunt cuts
Dolly the sheep was cloned via __________
Whole somatic cell nuclear cloning
cDNA synthesis uses _______to make DNA copies from RNA
reverse transcriptase (a retroviral enzyme)
Match the following proteins that are required for Cdk/cyclin regulation to their classification:
1) ubiquitin ligases
2) transcriptional factors
3) tumor suppressors
4) inhibitor proteins
5) kinases
6) phosphotases
a) SCF, APC
b) CAK, Wee1
c) Cdc25
d) Jun, Fos, Myc, E2F
e) p21
f) p53,pRb
1) ubiquitin ligases–a) SCF, APC
2) transcriptional factors–d) Jun, Fos, Myc, E2F
3) tumor suppressors–f) p53,pRb
4) inhibitor proteins–e) p21
5) kinases–b) CAK, Wee1
6) phosphotases–c) Cdc25
In meiosis, which is the MOST error prone step?
a) Meiosis 2 telophase 2
b) Meiosis 1 anaphase 1
c) Meiosis 1 prophase 1
d) meiosis 2 prophase 2
b) Meiosis 1 anaphase 1 (this is when they are coming apart and there is an increased risk for non-disjunction)
What are the outcomes of non-disjunction in Meiosis 1 vs meiosis 2?
Meiosis 1: non-disjunction: 2 trisomy and 2 monosomy
Meiosis 2: 1 trisomy, 1 monosomy, 2 normals
Which of the following is NOT true?
a) Euploid is an extra full set of chromosomes due to polyspermy (triploidy, tetraploidy)
b) Aneuploid is an extra single chromosome due to non-disjunction (trisomy)
c) A tetrad is a pair of duplicated homologues (2 pair of sister chromatids)
d) All cases of monosomy is lethal
d) All cases of monosomy is lethal. False, the only case that is non-lethal is in Turner’s syndrome (one X)
Which one of the following is NOT true?
a) hypothalamus releases GnRH
b) pituitary releases FSH and LH
c) the ovaries and testes release estrogen and testosterone
d) all of the above are true
d) all of the above are true
(T/F) Dicteotene stage is when oocytes are arrested at diplotene stage until ovulation
true
Match the following congenital defects:
1) Cri du chat
2) fragile X syndrome
3) DiGeorge syndrome
4) Downs syndrome (trisomy 21)
a) x-linked disorder caused by a repeat
b) absence of thyroids and/or parathyroids due to a loss of signal in chromosome 22
c) a partial monosomy deletion
d) 1% are mosaics, 4% contain robertsons translocations, increased risk if HCG is high
1) Cri du chat–c) a partial monosomy deletion
2) fragile X syndrome–a) x-linked disorder caused by a repeat
3) DiGeorge syndrome–b) absence of thyroids and/or parathyroids due to a loss of signal in chromosome 22
4) Downs syndrome (trisomy 21)–d) 1% are mosaics, 4% contain robertsons translocations, increased risk if HCG is high
(T/F) Multifactoral disorders are disorders that run in families in which there is no single gene or chromosomal abnormality responsible. It does NOT follow Mendelian patterns of inheritance
true
Which one of the following is NOT true regarding maternal hypocholesteremia?
a) it causes holoprosencephaly
b) the sonic hedgehog (SHH) protein used in cell signaling is defective
c) there are 2 types (syndromic and non-syndromic)
d) all of the above are true
c) there are 2 types (syndromic and non-syndromic) this describes a condition called craniosynostosis
What is the 1st sign of gastrulation?
a) the primitive streak
b) the bilaminar disc
c) yolk sac
d) neural crest
a) the primitive streak. Gastrulation is the start of morphogenesis.
Match the following weeks of development with the following events:
1) week 1
2) week2
3) week 3
4) weeks 4 thru 8
a) migration, zygote, morula, blastocyst formation
b) a time for the greatest vulnerable for birth defects
c) development of bilaminar germ disc, 2 layers of trophoblast form a “blob” that produces HCG
d) development of trilaminar germ disc,, by the end of this week you have all 3 germ layers
1) week 1—a) migration, zygote, morula, blastocyst formation
2) week2—c) development of bilaminar germ disc, 2 layers of trophoblast form a “blob” that produces HCG the week of 2’s
3) week 3—d) development of trilaminar germ disc,, by the end of this week you have all 3 germ layers the week of 3’s
4) weeks 4 thru 8—b) a time for the greatest vulnerable for birth defects the 1st trimester
Which one of the following is NOT true?
a) the Epiblast gives rise to the ectoderm. They proliferate at the caudal end forming the primitive streak. They are on top.
b) The hypoblast become the endoderm and is on bottom
c) the amniotic cavity is on top
d) the umbilical vesicle is on bottom
e) all of the above are correct
e) all of the above are correct
Which one of the follwoing is not true?
a) embryonic age starts at fertilization
b) gestational age starts at first day of last menstrual period
c) neural-ectoderm forms the optic nerve and retina
d) The optic cup is the 1st part of the forming eye
d) The optic cup is the 1st part of the forming eye…false…the optic GROOVE is the 1st part of the forming eye
Which one of the following is NOT true?
a) Neural crest gives rise to the PNS and schwann cells
b) neural tube gives rise to the CNS and oligodendrocytes
c) BMP’s give rise to sensory neurons on the dorsal side
d) SHH’s give rise to motor neurons on the ventral side
e) all of the above are correct
e) all of the above are correct
the concentration gradient between BMP and SHH is responsible for forming the sensory and motor nerons in the spinal chord
*
Which one of the following is NOT correct?
a) the telencephalon gives rise to the cerebral hemispheres and the lateral ventricles
b) the metencephalon gives rise to the midbrain and aqueduct
c) the diencephalon gives rise to the thalami and 3rd ventricle
d) the myencephalon gives rise to the medulla and lower part of the the 4th ventricle
b) the metencephalon gives rise to the midbrain and aqueduct…false….the metencephalon gives rise to the pons, cerebellum, and upper portion of the 4th ventricle
the mesencephalon gives rise to the midbrain and aqueduct
Which one of the folloowing is NOT true?
a) there are 8 rhombomeres of the hindbrain
b) rhombomeres are placed between the 2 rows of somites
c) HOX genes are not expressed anterior to rhombomere 7
d) Somites are bilaterally aired blocks of paraxial mesoderm that form along the head-to-tail axis of the developing embryo in segmented animals
c) HOX genes are not expressed anterior to rhombomere 7…false…they are not expressed anterior to rhombomere 3
Match the following arches with the following cranial nerves:
1) arch 1
2) arch 2
3) arch 3
4) arch 4
a) CN10
b) CN9
c) CN5
d) CN7
1) arch 1–CN5
2) arch 2–CN7
3) arch 3–CN9
4) arch 4–CN10
Match the following arches with the following:
1) arch 1
2) arch 2
3) arch 3
4) arch 4
a) artery becomes part of the carotid artery, forms lower part of hyoid bone and greater horns of hyoid. Pouch becomes inferior parathyroid glands and thymus.
b) artery becomes part of aorta, forms crico-thyroid/levator veli/palatine, thyroid and cricoid cartilage. Pouch becomes superior parathyroid gland, ultimo-branchial body.
c) artery disappears, forms the muscles of mastication. Pouch becomes tympanic membrane and eustacian tube. groove forms external auditory meatus
d) artery disappears, forms muscles of facial expression. Pouch contributes to tonsils.
1) arch 1-(CN5)-c) artery disappears, forms the muscles of mastication. Pouch becomes tympanic membrane and eustacian tube. groove forms external auditory meatus
2) arch 2-(CN7)-d) artery disappears, forms muscles of facial expression. Pouch contributes to tonsils.
3) arch 3-(CN9)-a) artery becomes part of the carotid artery, form lower part of hyoid bone and greater horns of hyoid. Pouch becomes inferior parathyroid glands and thymus.
4) arch 4-(CN10)-b) artery becomes part of aorta, forms crico-thyroid/levator veli/palatine, thyroid and cricoid cartilage. Pouch becomes superior parathyroid gland, ultimo-branchial body.
Which one of the following is NOT true?
a) the posterior wall of the lens vesicle forms the lens fibers, while the anetrior portion becomes the anterior lens epithelium
b) the optic cup is the precursor to the retina and the optic stalk is the precursor to the optic nerve
c) the lens placode is the precursor to the lens
d) The optic nerve is surrounded by 3 sheaths that are not continuous with the meninges of the brain
d) The optic nerve is surrounded by 3 sheaths that are not continuous with the meninges of the brain–false–they are continuous with the brain
The eyes are derived from 4 sources. Which one is NOT one of those sources?
a) neuroectoderm of forebrain
b) surface ectoderm of head
c) mesoderm between the previous layers
d) neural tube cells
e) neural crest cells
d) neural tube cells (neural tube is the primitive spinal cord)
(T/F) myelination of the axons within the optic nerves begins in the late fetal period
true
Which of the following sheath blends with the sclera?
a) arachnoid
b) dura
c) pia
d) none of the above
b) dura…..the outer dural sheath blends with the sclera, the intermediate sheath from the arachnoid is thin, the inner sheath from the pia mater is vascular and closely invests with the optic nerve and central arterial and venous vessels of the retina as far as the optic disc
(T/F) The inner layer of the optic cup has thickened to form the primordial neural retina and the outer layer is heavily pigmented and is the primordium of the pigmented layer of the retina
true
