Exam 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Most common pathogen to cause septic bursitis

A

Staph aureus (90%)

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2
Q

Describe the three types of post concussion disorder

A
  • Physiologic: feel good at rest, headache with exertion
  • Vestibulo-ocular: dizziness, vertigo, nausea, gait issues, blurred or double vision
  • Cervicogenic: neck symptoms predominate, headaches exacerbated by neck movement and not exercise
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3
Q

Describe hemicord (Brown-Sequard) syndrome

A
  • Results from penetrating injury
  • Ipsilateral weakness and loss of proprioception and contralateral pain and temperature loss
  • Bladder spared
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4
Q

Describe the three genetic risk factors for Alzheimer’s disease

A

Down syndrome:
- Additional gene dose of APP
- Symptoms at age 10-20

Rare autosomal dominant form:
- Mutations in genes that alter beta-amyloid protein
- Symptoms in 40s

Late onset Alzheimer’s disease (LOAD)
- Most common
- Associated with APOE gene

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5
Q

How can a diagnosis of fibromyalgia be confirmed?

A

Studies using objective measures of brain activation showing difference in pain threshold compared to normal

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6
Q

What is the joint pattern of involvement in reactive arthritis?

A
  • Asymmetric
  • Oligoarticular
  • Knees, ankles, or feet
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7
Q

Treatment for gout attacks

A
  • NSAIDs
  • Colchicine
  • Steroids
  • Do not start allopurinol during an attack!
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8
Q

Best imaging tool for Alzheimer’s

A

MRI

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9
Q

Describe the difference between a radiculopathy and a neuropathy

A
  • Radiculopathy: nerve pinched or damaged at root where it comes off spine
  • Neuropathy: pinch or damage in a peripheral area
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10
Q

When would it be best to go straight to MRI (skip x-ray) for a patient with lumbar radiculopathy symptoms?

A
  • Signs of cauda equina syndrome
    (neurologic deficits, urinary retention, saddle anesthesia)
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11
Q

Symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia

A
  • Brief paroxysms of severe, unilateral “electric” pain
  • Sensation and strength unaffected
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12
Q

Treatment for osteomyelitis

A
  • Surgical debridement optimal
  • Vancomycin for staphylococcal infections
  • Ciprofloxacin for gram-negative
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13
Q

Symptoms of Bell’s palsy

A
  • Unilateral facial weakness
  • not painful
  • Appears quickly, then progressively worsens, peak at 3 weeks
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14
Q

The enthesitis in reactive arthritis causes these joint symptoms

A
  • Heel pain
  • Metatarsalgia
  • Sausage digits
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15
Q

What is the most common type of inflammatory arthritis affecting young adult males?

A

Reactive arthritis

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16
Q

Describe the differences between cortical and subcortical dementias

A

Cortical:
- Affects personality
- Amnestic and learning problems
- Alzheimer’s, Picks, frontal lobe degeneration

Subcortical:
- Affects motor
- Dysarthric speech
- Tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia, shuffling
- Parkinson’s, Huntington’s

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17
Q

Define obesity and sarcopenic obesity

A
  • Obesity: an excess or abnormal amount of adipose tissue accumulation for body size
  • Sarcopenic obesity: excess adiposity with low muscle mass
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18
Q

How is dementia different from delirium

A

Delirium is episodic, reversible, and can be drug/illness induced

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19
Q

Side effects of phentermine

A
  • Increased blood pressure
  • Tachycardia/palpitations
  • Anxiety/agitation
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20
Q

Two of these core features must be present for the diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies

A
  1. Recurrent visual hallucinations
  2. Cognitive decline with fluctuations in alertness (good and bad days)
  3. Parkinsonism (bradykinesia, rigidity, gait issues)
  4. REM sleep disorder
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21
Q

Name as many medications that cause weight gain as you can

A
  • Psychiatric: paroxetine, citalopram, venlafaxine, mirtazapine, trazodone, amitriptyline, antipsychotics
  • Anti-seizure and pain: gabapentin and pregabalin
  • Hormone: glucocorticoids, implantable and injectable progestins
  • Diabetes: insulin, sulfonylureas, thiazolidinediones
  • Heart: beta-blockers, calcium-channel blockers
  • Chemo: tamoxifen
  • Transplant medications
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22
Q

Risk factors for septic arthritis

A
  • Age >80
  • Diabetes
  • RA
  • Recent joint surgery
  • Joint prosthesis, previously damaged joints
  • Skin infection
  • Young adults with high risk sexual behavior (gonorrhea)
  • Immunosuppression
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23
Q

Treatment for diabetic polyneuropathy

A
  • SNRIs, TCAs, gabapentin
  • Good glucose control
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24
Q

In a severe head injury you see signs of brain herniation, what are some steps you can take to manage this?

A
  • Sedation
  • Hyperventilation
  • Mannitol (hypertonic saline)
  • Elevate head of bed 30 deg
  • Decompressive craniotomy
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25
Q

Symptoms of diabetic polyneuropathy

A
  • Distal, symmetrical polyneuropathy most common
  • Progressive loss of distal sensation, followed by motor weakness
  • “Stocking-glove” pattern

Can also affect autonomics
- Postural hypotension, gastroparesis, enteropathy with constipation/diarrhea
- And this makes other diseases present differently!

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26
Q

Signs and symptoms of osteomyelitis

A
  • Midline back or neck pain (adults)
  • Fever common
  • Pain limiting ROM
  • Vertebral tenderness (adults)
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27
Q

Symptoms of CPPD/pseudogout

A
  • Hot, swollen wrist or knee
  • Sudden onset, “woke up with it”
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28
Q

What are the point thresholds for mild, moderate, and severe brain injury in the Glasgow Coma Scale?

A
  • Mild 13-15
  • Moderate 9-12
  • Severe 3-8
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29
Q

Alzheimer’s patients with preserved insight are more likely to be [mood], whereas those with impaired insight are more likely to be [mood]

A
  • Preserved = depressed
  • Impaired = agitated or psychotic
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30
Q

For nutrition therapy in obesity it is recommended to reduce carbohydrates to this level

A
  • <130 g/day
    OR
  • <26% of calories
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31
Q

Symptoms of Guillain-Barre syndrome

A
  • Progressive, symmetric weakness
  • Starts in the legs and ascends
  • Mild paresthesia to complete paralysis and respiratory insufficiency
  • Absent/depressed deep tendon reflexes on physical exam
  • Many have autonomic dysfunction
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32
Q

Name this injury:
- Avulsion of the spinous process
- Most commonly at C7
- Direct trauma to spinous process or sudden ligamentous pull (MVA, athletes)
- Stable

A

Spinous process fracture/Clay-shoveler fracture

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33
Q

Name the four seronegative spondyloarthritises

A
  • Ankylosing spondylitis
  • Psoriatic arthritis
  • Reactive arthritis
  • Inflammatory bowel associated arthritis
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34
Q

What diagnostic criteria is used for fibromyalgia?

A
  • ACR criteria
  • Pain must be chronic (>3 months), widespread (bilateral, above and below waist, and axial)
  • Need 11 of 18 tender points
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35
Q

Treatment of subdural hematoma

A
  • Urgent surgical hematoma evacuation if signs of elevated ICP or clinical deterioration
  • Small hematomas can be managed non-operatively
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36
Q

What is the most common pathogen to cause infections preceding Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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37
Q

Which weight loss surgery is best for patients with GERD?

A

Roux-en-Y gastric bypass

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38
Q

Describe anterior spinal cord syndrome

A
  • Affects anterior 2/3 of spinal cord
  • Bilateral weakness and loss of pain and temp
  • Proprioception spared
  • Caused by disc herniation or spinal cord infarct
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39
Q

Name this injury:
- Abrupt neck extension causes ALL to avulse the antero-inferior corner from the remainder of the vertebral body
- Most commonly at C2
- No loss of vertebral height
- Unstable

A

Extension teardrop fracture

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40
Q

Treatment for septic arthritis

A
  • Drainage
  • Antibiotics
  • Early immobilization
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41
Q

Symptoms of Alzheimer’s

A
  • Progressive gradual onset memory impairment
  • Most common cognitive deficit = anterograde amnesia (can’t learn new things)
  • Anosognosia (loss of self-awareness and insight)
  • Word-finding issues
  • VIsuo-spatial impairments
  • Apathy, depression
  • Dyspraxia (loss of daily function)
  • Seizures late
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42
Q

What is enthesis?

A
  • Site of insertion of a ligament, tendon, or articular capsule into bone
  • Site of initial inflammatory process in ankylosing spondylitis
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43
Q

What is second impact syndrome?

A

Second head injury while still having symptoms from initial head injury

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44
Q

Risk factors for Alzheimer’s disease

A
  • Age is biggest RF
  • Family history, obesity, diabetes, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, sedentary lifestyle
  • Genetics
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45
Q

Diagnostic criteria for vascular cognitive impairment

A

Need both:
1. Cognitive disorder
2. History of stroke or MRI evidence of cerebrovascular disease

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46
Q

Best test to confirm diagnosis

A

EMG/NCVs

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47
Q

Treatment for Bell’s palsy

A
  • Glucocorticoids within 3 days of onset
  • Valacyclovir if severe
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48
Q

What is the most prominent symptom in frontotemporal dementia?

A
  • Language difficulty is biggest
    (others: loss of empathy, loss of social control, apathy)
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49
Q

Describe central cord syndrome

A
  • Usually caused by slow growing masses or hyperextension injury
  • Upper > lower extremity weakness
  • Bladder function lost
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50
Q

Describe the role, origin, and response of leptin in the body

A
  • Anorexigenic (counters ghrelin)
  • Secreted by white adipose tissue
  • Secreted in response to weight gain (inhibited by weight loss)
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51
Q

Best imaging for osteomyelitis

A

MRI - how deep in the bone is the infection

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52
Q

Symptoms of peroneal neuropathy

A
  • Acute foot drop
  • Sensory loss
  • Paresthesia
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53
Q

Side effects of orlistat (Xenical)

A
  • Diarrhea
  • Fat soluble vitamin deficiencies
  • Cholelithiasis, nephrolithiasis
  • Significant drug interactions due to absorption issues
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54
Q

Physical exam tests for ankylosing spondylitis

A
  • Occiput-to-wall test
  • Chest expansion
  • Schober test
  • Pelvic compression
  • Gaenslen’s test
  • Patrick’s test
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55
Q

Risk factors for obesity

A
  • Ethnicity
  • Socioeconomic status
  • Genetics
  • Body type/fat distribution (apple = abdominal fat)
  • Stress
  • Sleep quality
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56
Q

Signs and symptoms of septic arthritis

A
  • Intra-articular
  • Acute onset of pain, typically in one joint only (most often knee)
  • Pain with passive motion in absence of trauma
  • Joint pain and swelling
  • Red hot circle (round = staph, fingers = strep)
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57
Q

What is the best diagnostic imaging early in the course of septic arthritis?

A

Radionuclide bone scan

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58
Q

What is the imaging of choice for TBIs?

A

Non-contract CT

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59
Q

Where are the extra-articular manifestations of spondyloarthritis?

A
  • Eye
  • GI tract
  • Skin
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60
Q

Reactive arthritis is a sterile inflammatory synovitis most commonly following these two types of infection

A
  • Urogenital (GU)
  • Enteric (GI)
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61
Q

Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome

A
  • Physical therapy
  • Night splint
  • Surgery: carpal tunnel release
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62
Q

What are the gradings of eye opening in the Glasgow Coma Scale?

A
  1. Spontaneous
  2. To speech
  3. To pain
  4. No response
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63
Q

What x-ray changes in the spine are seen with ankylosing spondylitis?

A
  • Syndesmophytes (intervertebral bony bridges)
  • Bamboo spine
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64
Q

What is the name for acute gouty arthritis of the first metacarpal joint?

A

Podagra

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65
Q

Which is more predictive of poor outcome after a mild TBI/concussion, initial symptom severity, or initial injury severity?

A

Initial symptom severity

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66
Q

Best diagnostic test for septic bursitis

A

Bursa fluid analysis
- Analyze for WBCs, crystals, gram stain, and C&S

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67
Q

Which crystal has the property of negative birefreigence?

A

Gout crystals

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68
Q

In this spondylarthritis the arthritis is acute in onset, migratory, asymmetric, and pauciarticular (<5 joints), and does not cause x-ray changes

A

SpA related to bowel disease

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69
Q

Treatment for frontotemporal dementia

A
  • Treat the symptoms (SSRIs, antipsychotics)
  • Early education with caregiver
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70
Q

Describe leptin resistance and how it contributes to obesity and other diseases

A
  • In patients with obesity, chronically high levels of leptin lead to desensitization of leptin receptors
  • This ultimately leads to decreased/impaired satiety and weight gain despite their excess adiposity
  • High levels of leptin increase inflammatory mediators, leading to disease
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71
Q

Which weight loss medication is contraindicated in pregnancy and should have a negative pregnancy test before initiation?

A

Phentermine AND phentermine + topiramate (Qsymia)

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72
Q

Causes of peroneal neuropathy

A
  • Lying down with pressure on the nerve
  • Casts
  • Viruses
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73
Q

Which condition is typified by the symptom of acute foot drop?

A

Peroneal neuropathy

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74
Q

Treatment for frontotemporal dementia

A

Symptomatic management with SSRIs, behavioral therapy

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75
Q

How to differ Bell’s palsy from stroke based on facial symptoms

A
  • Forehead droop in Bell’s palsy
  • Forehead fine in stroke
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76
Q

In gout, the problem is overproduction and under-secretion of [blank]

A

Uric acid

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77
Q

How does psoriatic arthritis present differently in men and women?

A
  • Men often have DIP only
  • Women more symmetric polyarthritis
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78
Q

MRI shows cortical infarcts, subcortical lacunes, and white matter hyper intensities in this type of dementia

A

Vascular cognitive impairment

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79
Q

Mixed etiology dementia is more common in older adults, but what is the most common combination of dementia types?

A

Alzheimer’s with vascular cognitive impairment

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80
Q

Cervical radiculopathy is most commonly seen at this spinal level

A

C5 or C6

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81
Q

Describe the three behaviors measured in the Glasgow Coma Scale and how many points they are worth

A
  • Eye opening (4)
  • Verbal response (5)
  • Motor response (6)
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82
Q

Treatment for lumbar radiculopathy

A

PT, steroids, surgery

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83
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of dementia with Lewy bodies

A
  • Alpha-synuclein (Lewy bodies) accumulate in cerebral cortex and brainstem
  • Loss of dopaminergic neurons in substantia nigra
  • Degeneration of frontal/temporal lobes
  • Cholinergic deficit
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84
Q

Best diagnostic test to confirm septic arthritis

A

Synovial fluid gram stain, culture, or histopathology showing presence of bacteria

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85
Q

Differentiate between acute and chronic osteomyelitis

A
  • Acute: first clinical episode
  • Chronic: failed to resolve after one or more treatment attempt
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86
Q

In lumbar radiculopathy that involves L2, L3, L4, where would pain be felt?

A

Anterior thigh pain
(weakness in hip flexion, knee extension)

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87
Q

Ulnar neuropathy is typically due to compression of the ulnar nerve in this location

A

At the elbow

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88
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome is compression of the [nerve]

A

Median nerve

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89
Q

What is the most common neuropathy in the Western world?

A

Diabetic polyneuropathy

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90
Q

What are four signs of a basilar skull fracture?

A
  • Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis)
  • Hemotympanum
  • Battle’s sign (postauricular ecchymosis)
  • Halo sign (CSF otorrhea)
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91
Q

What mechanism of injury is associated with pasteurella multocida septic arthritis?

A

Bites from dogs and cats

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92
Q

Treatments for Alzheimer’s

A
  • Lifestyle, cognitive therapy
  • Cholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine)
  • NMDA antagonists (memantine)
  • MABs against amyloid beta (lecanemab and donanemab)
  • Antidepressants (citalopram, sertraline, paroxetine, mirtazapine)
  • Antioxidants (vitamin E)
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93
Q

Symptoms of frontotemporal dementia

A

Progressive socioemotional behavioral changes, cognitive and linguistic deficits

94
Q

Name two genetic conditions that can cause obesity

A
  • Prader-Willi syndrome
  • Bartlett-Biedel syndrome
95
Q

What symptoms are associated with reactive arthritis?

A
  • Urethritis
  • Conjunctivitis
  • Arthritis
  • Circinate balanitis
  • Keratoderma blennorrhagicum
96
Q

What is the most common type of weight loss surgery?

A

Sleeve gastrectomy

97
Q

Allopurinol dosing for gout should be increased until uric acid levels are [blank]

A

Less than 6

98
Q

Treatment for vascular cognitive impairment

A
  • Blood pressure control
  • Statins for cholesterol
  • Mediterranean diet
    (control vascular risk factors)
99
Q

What are the gradings of motor response in the Glasgow Coma Scale?

A
  1. Obeys command
  2. Moves to localized pain
  3. Flex to withdraw from pain
  4. Abnormal flexion
  5. Abnormal extension
  6. No response
100
Q

What is the most common cause of traumatic spinal cord injury

A

Motor vehicle accidents

101
Q

What are the alterations in cerebral blood flow seen in the days following a mild TBI/concussion

A
  • 1-3 days = hyper-perfusion
  • 4-15 days = hypo-perfusion
102
Q

Diabetics are particularly prone to getting osteomyelitis in their [blank]

103
Q

Which weight loss medication is approved for use in moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnea?

A

Tirzepatide (Mounjaro, Zepbound) GLP/GIP

104
Q

Treatments for dementia with Lewy bodies

A

Non-pharm preferred
(sleep hygiene, melatonin)

105
Q

Best diagnostic test for peroneal neuropathy

106
Q

Risk factors for osteomyelitis

A
  • Elderly
  • Prior s. aureus infection
  • Diabetes
  • IV drug sue
  • Systemic steroid therapy
  • Hemodialysis
  • Alcoholism
  • Recent spinal injury
107
Q

How does orlistat (Xenical) help with weight loss?

A

Prevents absorption of ingested fats

108
Q

Name three mental status exams that can be used in diagnosis of Alzheimer’s

A
  • MMSE
  • MoCA
  • CDR
109
Q

Physical exam signs of carpal tunnel syndrome

A
  • Positive Phalen’s sign/Tinel’s sign/Durkan’s sign
  • Diminished sensation in median nerve distribution
  • Wasting and weakness of thenar muscles
    (enough for clinical diagnosis)
110
Q

Which weight loss surgery is best for patients with history of nephrolithiasis and higher cardiovascular risk and avoided in patients with significant GERD?

A

Sleeve gastrectomy

111
Q

What is the most common cause of facial pain?

A

Trigeminal neuralgia

112
Q

Name this injury:
- Vertical compression force through occipital condyles of atlas (C1)
- Fractured anterior and posterior arches of C1
- Highly unstable

A

C1 burst (Jefferson) fracture

113
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic test for osteomyelitis?

A

Cultures (tissue/bone biopsy)

114
Q

Most common locations for osteomyelitis

A
  • Adults: Vertebral bodies
  • Children (1-15): femur and tibia
115
Q

Describe the three variants of frontotemporal dementia

A
  1. Behavioral: early personality changes, disinhibition, apathy, compulsion (hoarding)
  2. Non-fluent: progressive aphasia, non-fluent speech, agrammatism
  3. Semantic: loss of word meaning (anomia)
116
Q

Which weight loss medication is contraindicated in seizure disorders, anorexia/bulimia, uncontrolled HTN, and chronic opioid use?

A

Bupropion + naltrexone (Contrave)

117
Q

What is Milwaukee shoulder?

A
  • Hydroxyapatite crystal deposits
  • Huge recurrent bloody effusion in shoulder
  • Typically unilateral in context of end-stage OA
118
Q

In lumbar radiculopathy that involves L5, where would pain be felt?

A

Back pain that radiates down lateral leg and into foot
(reduced strength in dorsiflexion, toe extension)
(most common of the lumbar radiculopathies)

119
Q

Treatments for ankylosing spondylitis

A
  • Sulfasalazine and methotrexate for peripheral arthritis
  • Anti-TNF therapy very effective
  • Exercise (swimming best)
  • Avoid large pillows and smoking
120
Q

Treatment for fibromyalgia

A
  • TCAs
  • Cyclobenzaprine
  • SSRI
  • SNRI (duloxetine and Savella FDA approved)
  • Gabapentin/pregabalin
  • Exercise
121
Q

Most common pathogen to cause osteomyelitis

A

Staph aureus
(GBS and gram negative more common in newborns)

122
Q

At what age is trigeminal neuralgia most commonly seen?

123
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of Alzheimer’s disease

A
  • Extracellular neuritic plaques (b-amyloid)
  • Intracellular neurofibrillary tangles (tau protiens)
  • Progressive neuronal loss and brain atrophy
  • Cholinergic deficit
124
Q

Describe some complications of roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery that a patient should be counselled on

A
  • Anastomotic ulcers: avoid NSAIDs, nicotine/smoking, alcohol
  • Nutritional deficiencies: need bariatric formulation of vitamin supplements lifelong
125
Q

Symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome

A
  • Vague aching in palmar hand/forearm
  • Numbness and tingling in median nerve distribution
  • Night symptoms
  • Frequently dropping items
126
Q

What x-ray findings suggest CPPD/pseudogout?

A
  • Chondrocalcinosis
  • Osteoarthritic changes at MCP joints
  • Hook osteophytes
127
Q

Corticotropin-releasing hormone, locus caeruleus-norepinephrine, and the sympathetic nervous system play a major role in this condition

A

Fibromyalgia

128
Q

Dementia is an umbrella term for …

A
  • Loss of memory and other thinking abilities severe enough to interfere with daily life
  • A group of conditions that cause a progressive decline in cognitive abilities, including memory, thinking, reasoning, and problem-solving
129
Q

What CSF biomarkers suggest Alzheimer’s?

A
  • Increased total and phosphorylated tau
  • Decreased beta-amyloid
130
Q

How does phentermine help with weight loss?

A

Sympathomimetic amine (stimulant) that decreases hunger

131
Q

Risk factors for gout

A
  • Renal insufficiency
  • Alcohol
  • Cancer/transplant drugs (cyclosporine)
132
Q

Name one physical exam test for each of the three types of post concussion disorder

A
  • Physiologic: treadmill testing
  • Vestibulo-ocular: standardized gait/balance, screen for BPPV (Dix-Hallpike)
  • Cervicogenic: Cervical joint position error, check cervical spine alignment and ROM
133
Q

Name this injury:
- Severe flexion and compression causes one vertebral body to collide with the body below
- Most common in lower cervical spine
- Disrupts the posterior longitudinal ligament
- Associated with anterior spinal cord injury
- Highly unstable

A

Flexion teardrop fracture

134
Q

What determines whether a spinal cord injury is complete or incomplete?

A

Incomplete: some sensation or function in S4/S5 (sacrum spared)

135
Q

Diagnostic tests for reactive arthritis

A
  • Arthrocentesis excludes septic and crystal arthritis
  • ESR, CRP elevated
  • Synovial fluid cultures always negative
  • Culture body for triggering infection
    (HLAB27 is poor screening test, better for prognosis)
136
Q

How to prevent pulmonary complications in first 3-6 months after a spinal cord injury

A
  • Pulmonary embolism highest risk during acute phase
  • Give warfarin or DOAC as prophylaxis
137
Q

Symptoms of fibromyalgia

A
  • Widespread chronic pain
  • Fatigue, unrefreshing sleep
  • Cognitive dysfunction
  • Depression and anxiety
  • Regional musculoskeletal pain
  • Visceral pain
138
Q

Symptoms of vascular cognitive impairment

A
  • Stepwise cognitive decline
  • Executive dysfunction > memory impairment
  • Hemiparesis (one side weakness), dysarthria, gait issues
  • Speech changes
  • Depression, apathy, anxiety, psychosis
  • Sleep disorders
139
Q

Symptoms of lumbar radiculopathy

A

Paresthesia, radiating pain, numbness from inguinal region to feet (depending on nerves)

140
Q

Name this injury:
- Forceful flexion or extension of head
- Can occur above transverse ligament, base of the dens, or into the body of C2
- One type requires Halo immobilization

A

Odontoid fracture

141
Q

What is the most common cause of death in spinal cord injuries?

A

Respiratory (unable to clear lungs = pneumonia)

142
Q

Which types of odontoid fracture are unstable and which type requires Halo immobilization?

A
  • Type 1: stable (above transverse ligament)
  • Type 2: unstable, requires Halo immobilization, most common (base of the dens)
  • Type 3: unstable (extends into body of C2)
143
Q

What are the most common locations for septic bursitis?

A

Olecranon and prepatellar bursa

144
Q

Risk factors for vascular cognitive impairment

A
  • Hypertension
  • Diabetes
  • Smoking
  • Hyperlipidemia
  • Strokes (ischemic or hemorrhagic)
145
Q

Name this injury:
- Pure flexion injury involving the atlas (C1) and axis (C2)
- Unstable

A

Atlanto-occipital dislocation

146
Q

Which weight loss surgery goes with each of the following descriptions:
1. Dramatic increase in GLP-1 production and lowers body set point
2. Dramatic reduction in production of ghrelin

A
  1. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass
  2. Sleeve gastrectomy
147
Q

Signs and symptoms of traumatic brain injuries

A
  • Decreased level of consciousness
  • Memory loss before or after injury
  • Alteration of mental status
  • Neurologic deficits
  • Intracranial lesion
148
Q

Name the four pillars of obesity management

A
  • Physical activity
  • Nutrition
  • Behavior modification
  • Medical interventions
149
Q

What is the Spurling test used to diagnose?

A
  • Cervical radiculopathy
  • Extend and rotate neck, then push down on head
150
Q

Name four complications of rapid weight loss (by any method)

A
  • Nephrolithiasis: increased urinary oxalate and decreased citrate
  • Gout flares: uric acid released into blood from adipocyte breakdown
  • Cholelithiasis: liver releases cholesterol into gallbladder and transient gallbladder contractility decrease
  • Hair loss: hair follicles go into resting phase when in “starvation” mode
151
Q

How to differentiate Lewy body dementia from frontotemporal dementia with symptoms?

A

No hallucination or fluctuating cognition (good and bad days) in frontotemporal dementia

152
Q

Is dementia with Lewy bodies typically diagnosed in youth or old age?

A

Average age of onset mid 70s

153
Q

What is the most common pathogen to cause septic arthritis?

A

Staphylococcus

154
Q

Describe posterior spinal cord syndrome

A
  • Affects dorsal columns
  • Gait, ataxia and paresthesia, along with weakness
  • Caused by M.S., syphilis, vascular malformations, Friedrich ataxia
155
Q

What is the most common subtype of psoriatic arthritis?

A

Asymmetric oligoarticular disease
(DIPs, PIPs, MCPs, MTPs, knees, hips, ankles, dactylitis)

156
Q

Describe the role, origin, and response of ghrelin in the body

A
  • Orexigenic (only weight promoting hormone)
  • Secreted by the gastric fundus and proximal small bowel
  • Secreted in response to empty stomach (inhibited when stomach stretched)
157
Q

In lumbar radiculopathy that involves L1, where would pain be felt?

A

Inguinal pain

158
Q

Symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis

A
  • Back pain
  • Prolonged morning stiffness, relieved with movement
  • Insidious onset
  • Decreased spinal mobility
  • Reduced chest expansion
  • Sacroiliac tenderness
159
Q

Routine lab testing in every patient with obesity

A
  • CBC (polycythemia, Hgb up)
  • CMP (glucose, liver enzymes)
  • Fasting lipid panel (LDL and triglycerides up, HDL down)
  • HbA1c (prediabetes 5.7, diabetes 6.5)
  • TSH (cause and effect)
  • Vit D recommended (trapped in fat)
160
Q

How do GLP-1 agonists (Ozempic, Wegovy) help with weight loss?

A
  • Delays gastric emptying
  • Improves insulin sensitivity
  • Stimulates beta cell proliferation
161
Q

Treatment for septic bursitis

A
  • Compression of the bursa with wrap
  • Mild: med to cover MRSA
  • Mod: aspirate bursa and start oral antibiotic
  • Severe: Aspirate bursa, hospitalize, antibiotics, surgical bursectomyW
162
Q

Describe the eye symptoms associated with ankylosing spondylitis

A
  • Uveitis
  • May be the first symptom
  • Painful, unilateral, red, very photophobic, no secretions
163
Q

Where is a first gout attack likely to be?

A

Around first MTP (podagra)

164
Q

Symptoms of septic bursitis

A
  • Extra-articular
  • Pain and swelling over the bursa develops in hours to days
  • Erythema and swelling over the bursa
  • Associated cellulitis and regional lymphadenopathy
  • No increase in pain with joint movement (differ from septic arthritis)
165
Q

What are the physical activity guideline recommendations for exercise?

A
  • 150 to 300 minutes of moderate exercise per week
    OR
  • 75 to 150 minutes of vigorous intensity exercise
    PLUS
  • Moderate strength training/resistance two or more days per week
166
Q

How is the diagnostic criteria for mild neurocognitive disorders different that those for major?

A
  • Only modest cognitive decline and impairment instead of significant
  • Cognitive deficits do not interfere with independence and everyday activities
167
Q

Treatment for reactive arthritis

A
  • Eliminate triggering infection (doxycycline for chlamydia)
  • NSAIDs effective for pain
  • Intra-articular steroids
  • Sulfasalazine
168
Q

Treatment for cervical radiculopathy

A

PT
(steroid injections risky, surgery maybe)

169
Q

What gender and age group is most likely to get carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • Women
  • Age 45-60
170
Q

DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for major neurocognitive disorders requires concern of the patient, a knowledgable informant, or the clinician, as well as evidence of significant cognitive decline, that interferes with independence and daily activites, in one or more of these cognitive domains:

A
  • Complex attention
  • Executive function
  • Learning and memory
  • Language
  • Perceptual-motor
  • Social cognition
171
Q

Which, septic arthritis, or septic bursitis, is more likely to have a shorter recovery time?

A

Septic bursitis as it is extra articular and not affecting meniscus

172
Q

What types of medications can a patient not take post-bariatric surgery?

A

Avoid extended release formulations due to absorption issues

173
Q

In sickle cell patients [blank] is the most common cause of osteomyelitis

A

Salmonella

174
Q

Treatment for trigeminal neuralgia

A
  • Carbamazepine
  • Surgery to cushion nerve if refractory
175
Q

Reasons to order a CT scan for evaluation of a TBI

A
  • Glasgow coma scale <15
  • Depressed skull fracture
  • Any sign of basilar skull fracture
  • Two or more episodes of vomiting
  • New neurologic deficit
  • Bleeding diathesis
  • Seizure
  • Age 60+
  • Retrograde amnesia 30+ minutes
  • Potentially high impact injury
  • Intoxication, headache, or abnormal behavior
176
Q

Side effects of GLP-1 agonists (Ozempic, Wegovy)

A
  • Nausea #1
  • Vomiting
  • Diarrhea
  • Constipation
  • Sarcopenia
177
Q

In a moderate or severe head injury, the patient should be intubated if the [blank] Score is [blank]

A

If the Glasgow Coma Score is <8

178
Q

Other than BMI, what objective measurements can be used to diagnose obesity?

A
  • DXA body fat %: 30+ in men, 35+ in women
  • Waist circumference: 40+ in men, 35+ in women
179
Q

Treatment for psoriatic arthritis

A
  • NSAIDs
  • Gold, sulfasalazine, methotrexate, cyclosporine
  • Anti-TNF agents
    (anti-malarial drugs and steroids worsen/flare)
180
Q

Symptoms of cervical radiculopathy

A
  • Neck pain that may radiate to arm
  • Motor or sensory symptoms
181
Q

Repeated mild TBI/concussions may result in a “tau-opathy” known as …

A

Chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE)
(aggression, paranoia, impulsivity, depression, anxiety, suicidality)

182
Q

Most people with spinal cord injuries can be independent if the injury is at [blank] or better

A

C7 or lower

183
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic method for Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Biopsy (autopsy)

184
Q

Symptoms of ulnar neuropathy

A
  • Numbness and tingling in 4th and 5th digits
  • Elbow pain
  • Worse with elbow flexion
  • Weakness and wasting in dorsal interosseous/hypothenar region
185
Q

Describe the Schober test and what it’s used for

A
  • Ankylosing spondylitis
  • Patient bends forwards
  • Measured points on lower back should increase from 10 cm to at least 15 cm
186
Q

Describe the difference between primary and secondary injury in a severe TBI

A

Primary:
- immediate injury (contusion, penetration, vascular injury)

Secondary:
- cascade of events hours to days later (edema, loss of autoregulation, excitatory neurotransmitter release, hypotension and ischemia, increased ICP)

187
Q

Traumatic spinal cord injuries are more often [complete/incomplete] and [tetraplegic/paraplegic]

A

More often incomplete and cause tetraplegia

188
Q

Pyoderma gangrenosum and erythema nodosum are extra-articular manifestations associated with this type of spondylarthritis

A

SpA related to bowel disease

189
Q

Treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome

A
  • Hospitalization (monitor autonomic status)
  • IV immunoglobulin plasma exchange
190
Q

What are the gradings of verbal response in the Glasgow Coma Scale?

A
  1. Oriented to time, person, and place
  2. Confused
  3. Inappropriate words
  4. Incomprehensible
  5. No response
191
Q

Which weight loss medication is contraindicated in patients with family history of medullary thyroid cancer or personal history of pancreatitis?

A

GLP-1 agonists

192
Q

What is the side effect of Krystexxa?

A

Congestive heart failure exacerbation

193
Q

Is ankylosing spondylitis more common in men or women?

194
Q

What is the first imaging method that should be used for osteomyelitis?

A

X-ray - but it will be normal for the first 2-3 weeks

195
Q

Best diagnostic test for Guillain-Barre syndrome

A
  • Lumbar puncture
  • Shows elevated protein and normal to mildly elevated leukocytes
196
Q

Treatment for ulnar neuropathy

A
  • Activity modification and night splints to stop flexion if no muscle wasting
  • Surgery if severe and symptoms over 6 months
197
Q

In a moderate or severe head injury what are the goal perfusion and systolic blood pressures, and what agents can be used to achieve them?

A
  • Cerebral perfusion pressure >60 mm Hg
  • Systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg
  • Phenylephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine
198
Q

Treatment for CPPD/pseudogout attacks

A
  • NSAIDs, colchicine, steroids
  • Intra-articular steroid injections
199
Q

Where are the extra-articular manifestations in psoriatic arthritis?

A
  • Nails
  • Eyes
  • Skin
200
Q

Describe the grades of concussion

A
  • Grade 1: transient mental changes lasting less than 15 minutes, no loss of consciousness
  • Grade 2: loss of consciousness for <15 minutes
  • Grade 3: loss of consciousness for >15 minutes
201
Q

Which lumber radiculopathy can be found with the straight leg raise test?

A

L5
(maybe L4 too)

202
Q

Which is likely to be diagnosed earlier in life, dementia with Lewy bodies or frontotemporal dementia?

A
  • Frontotemporal onset usually before age 65
  • Dementia with Lewy bodies = mid-70s
203
Q

How to differentiate Alzheimer’s from frontotemporal dementia with symptoms?

A

In frontotemporal dementia memory is preserved early on

204
Q

Which hypertension and cholesterol medications are good and bad for gout?

A
  • Good: Losartan (mild uricosuric) and Fenofibrate (helps UA excretion)
  • Bad: HCTZ (decreases excretion)
205
Q

Describe the differences between an epidural and subdural hematoma

A

Epidural:
- arterial blood (MMA)
- lentiform/biconvex/lemon shape
- does not cross suture line

Subdural:
- venous blood
- crescent/banana shape
- crosses suture line

206
Q

Imaging for cervical radiculopathy

A
  • Not really
  • MRI if motor deficit/infection/tumor
  • EMG/NCVs better if symptoms over 3 weeks
207
Q

What are the different causes of lumbar radiculopathy in younger (40-50) and older patients?

A
  • Younger: disc herniation
  • Older: spondylosis
208
Q

How should patients starting allopurinol for gout be counselled?

A
  • Warn patient about increased risk of attacks in first 3-6 months
  • Prophylaxis against attacks when starting (colchicine, NSAIDs, steroids)
  • Never stop and start allopurinol
  • Rare hypersensitivity reaction (bright red skin) most common in old women on HCTZ
209
Q

Name this injury:
- Forced hyperextension of skull, atlas (C1), and axis (C2)
- Bilateral pedicle fractures
- Unstable but often spares spinal cord

A

C2 hangman’s fracture

210
Q

Treatment for CPPD/pseudogout chronic inflammatory disease (MCP)

A
  • Plaquenil
  • Methotrexate
211
Q

Treatment for peroneal neuropathy

A
  • Remove pressure on nerve
  • AFO (ankle-foot orthosis, cast that keeps foot in dorsiflexion)
  • PT
212
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia is a medical emergency that can happen with spinal cord injuries at level T6 or above. Describe what happens

A
  • Uninhibited sympathetic response to noxious stimuli below level of injury
  • Diffuse vasoconstriction and hypertension
  • Compensatory vasodilation above injury leads to hypotension

(typical stimuli: bladder distension, UTI, nephrolithiasis, bowel impaction, pressure sore, or occult fracture)

213
Q

What conditions are associated with the HLAB27 gene?

A

Spondyloarthritises

214
Q

BMI ranges for:
- Normal weight
- Pre-obesity/overweight
- Class 1 obesity
- Class 2 obesity
- Class 3 obesity

A
  • Normal weight: 18.5 to 24.9
  • Pre-obesity/overweight: 25 to 29.9
  • Class 1 obesity: 30 to 34.9
  • Class 2 obesity: 35 to 39.9
  • Class 3 obesity: 40+
215
Q

Name this injury:
- Flexion-rotation injury
- Best seen on open-mouth odontoid or CT
- Associated with RA, inflammatory spondyloarthropathies
- Unstable

A

Atlanto-axial dislocation

216
Q

Describe the NEXUS criteria

A
  • Used to clear patients with cervical spine injury without needing imaging
  • Only for age <65
  • Criteria: normal alertness (GCS 15), no intoxication, no focal neurologic deficit, no painful distracting injury, no midline cervical tenderness
217
Q

In a moderate or severe head injury the goal for CO2 and oxygen tension levels are …

A
  • CO2 40 mm Hg
  • O2 tension >60 mm Hg
218
Q

Describe psoriatic nails

A
  • Soft and boggy
  • Hyperkeratotic (thickened)
  • Subungual debris
  • Onycholysis
  • Pitting
  • Oil spots
219
Q

This condition is an immune system attack on myelin that typically follows a recent URI/gastroenteritis infection in the previous four weeks

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

220
Q

Which group of dementia conditions can be caused by Pick bodies?

A

Frontotemporal dementias
(all Pick diseases are FTD, not all FTD are Pick)

221
Q

Risk factors for septic bursitis

A
  • Male
  • Immune deficiency
  • Alcoholism
  • Diabetes
  • RA
222
Q

Imaging for lumbar radiculopathy

A
  • X-ray first because more likely degenerative changes
  • MRI best
  • EMG/NCVs
223
Q

What is a tophus?

A

Lumps under the skin formed by deposits of urate crystals

224
Q

At what ages do gout and CPPD/pseudogout typically show up?

A

Gout:
- men in 20s
- women only after menopause

CPPD/pseudogout:
- elderly, 70s, oldsters

225
Q

Vertebral body osteomyelitis can lead to this neurologic complication that is a medical emergency

A

Cauda equina syndrome

226
Q

What is the best imaging method that should be used

227
Q

Describe the difference between gout and calcium pyrophosphate crystals

A

Gout crystals:
- needle shaped
- negative birefringence

CPPD:
- rhomboid (stubby)
- weakly birefringent
- harder to find

228
Q

Does spondylarthritis more commonly begin in youth or old age?

A

Usually begins in late adolescence/young adulthood

229
Q

Is a higher or lower level of spinal cord injury worse for the patient?

A

Higher is worse

230
Q

Which age group is at particular risk for prolonged symptoms of mild TBI/concussion?

A

Adolescents (13-17)