Exam 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Transferring electrons between proteins in the mitochondrial membrane is a type of ______________

A

Redox reaction

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2
Q

Pathogenic staphylococci can be differentiated by plating on blood agar plates. What allows you to tell them apart?

A

The extent of hemolysis

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3
Q

Which of the following might a pathogen use to attach to host cells?

A

pili or fimbriae

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4
Q

Ocean viruses contribute to carbon cycling by _________ ocean bacteria and algae

A

lysing

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5
Q

Which of the following ‘fix’ carbon and increase biomass?

A

a corn field

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6
Q

_____ phage genes code for protein that take over host functions. _____ phage genes include structure components of the virus

A

Early, late

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7
Q

a community of bacteria which coordinate their activities to colonize a surface is called

A

biofilm

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8
Q

lactose intolerance in humans is due to the lack of an _____ necessary to split a _____

A

Enzyme, disaccharide

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9
Q

True or False: vaccination was invented by a British doctor in 18th century London

A

False

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10
Q

A streak plate is used to isolate single colonies from a mixture of bacteria. The equivalent technique when working with viruses is called

A

Plaque assay

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11
Q

True or false: living genetically modified humans walk the Earth

A

True

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12
Q

all of the following are natural polymers except: cellulose, glucose, chitin, glycogen

A

Glucose

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13
Q

True or false: most bacteria from environmental samples can be cultured in a lab

A

False

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14
Q

True or false: animal viruses are capable of lysogeny

A

True

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15
Q

All life can be sorted into three domains. The best evidence of this comes from

A

rRNA sequence analysis

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16
Q

which of the following is an emerging disease in our area: influenza, malaria, lyme

A

No correct answer

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17
Q

according to our present understanding, mitochondiral and chloroplasts are of _____ origin

A

bacterial

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18
Q

In bacteria and mitochondria, a concentration of protons builds on one side of a _____. These protons can only travel through a channel in a protein called an _____, which functions as a “turbine” to make _____

A

Membrane, ATPase, ATP

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19
Q

You have streaked to single colonies, a sample from a dead animal. The results show several different types of colonies. This result indicated a _____ and _________ clearly indicate a cause of the animal’s death

A

Mixed population, does not

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20
Q

True or false: smallpox has killed hundred of millions of people since there have been humans

A

True

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21
Q

True or false: Smallpox infections no longer occur on earth due to vaccination

A

True

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22
Q

True or false: endospore production is a bacterial response to rapid environmental change

A

True

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23
Q

recent increases in Whooping cough are due to: anti-vaxxers, weakened vaccine immunity, changes in the bacteria

A

All of the above

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24
Q

True or false: enveloped viruses code for their own envelope

A

False

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25
Q

True or false: You were doing a Gram staining and forgot to counter stain with safranin. This would prevent you from identifying a gram positive bacteria.

A

False

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26
Q

One reason there are far fewer antiviral drugs is _________

A

Viruses use host processes to multiply

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27
Q

Cellular respiration requires ___________ which is used to collect/neutralize _____________ in the mitochondria

A

oxygen, electrons

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28
Q

Human pathogenic bacteria are ___________

A

mesophiles

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29
Q

Gram negative bacteria have an outer membrane, a portion of which is toxic to humans and causes fever. This molecule is made of _____

A

sugar and lipid

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30
Q

True or false: ATP synthase ‘run backwards’ and will consume ATP

A

True

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31
Q

Magnetosomes are _____ structures used by some bacteria to _____

A

Iron, escape oxygen

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32
Q

The Calvin cycle is the process which plants use to _____ and _____

A

Fix CO2, build biomass

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33
Q

Suppose you treat an exponentially growing culture of bacteria with a potential antimicrobial compound. Over the next few hours, cell doubling stops (untreated, control culture continues doubling) but the cells remain metabolically active. This antimicrobial compound is _____

A

Bacteriostatic

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34
Q

Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) refers to minimum _____

A

amount of a chemical required to kill all the microorganisms

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35
Q

Electrons captured from the breaking of glucose in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells are carried to the _____ by _____.

A

Mitochondria, NADH

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36
Q

True or false: Persistent HPV infection requires viral integration in superficial/surface epithelia layers

A

False

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37
Q

Where in a liquid culture would you find an anaerobic bacterium?

A

at the bottom of the tube

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38
Q

Hydrothermal vent tube worms contain _____ bacteria (symbiotes), which in turn obtain _____ from the worms’ blood stream

A

chemolithotrophic, oxygen

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39
Q

Pasteurization is now a common procedure to ensure food safety. Pasteur’s flasks disproved _____

A

‘bad’ air causes diseases

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40
Q

What microorganisms use inorganic compounds like hydrogen sulfide as their energy source

A

Chemolithotrophs

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41
Q

This protein is made by bacteriophage and humans

A

lysozyme

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42
Q

Lysogenic bacteria exposed to UV light will: accumulate DNA damage, die, accumulate maturing bacteriophage

A

all are correct

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43
Q

Glycolysis is a series of _____ leading to _____ molecules

A

Enzymatic reactions, three carbon

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44
Q

True or false: Tamiflu prevents influenza virus from binding to host cells

A

False

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45
Q

These microorganisms use light as their energy source

A

Phototrophs

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46
Q

The terms “run” and “tumble” are used to describe _____

A

Movement of bacteria

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47
Q

True or false: water is a waste product of cellular respiration

A

True

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48
Q

Robert Koch is best known for a set of rules he created, now commonly known as Koch’s postulates. What is the purpose of Koch’s postulates

A

They help to determine if a particular infectious agent causes a specific disease

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49
Q

Three options by which an organism may obtain energy are: light, organic molecules and _____

A

inorganic molecules

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50
Q

Sugars are used by living systems for

A

energy storage and building materials

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51
Q

True or false: enveloped viruses contain genes for their own plasma membrane

A

False

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52
Q

True or false: horizontal/lateral gene transfer is largely responsible for human genetic diversity

A

False

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53
Q

True or false: some bacteria owe their virulence to a viral prophage integration

A

True

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54
Q

sRNAs (short RNAs), viroids, and CRISPR all work by a similar mechanism. They all rely on _________ to destroy or change a target sequence

A

base pairing

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55
Q

True or false: The sum total of an organism or cell’s protein content is termed its genome

A

False

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56
Q

True or false: the sum total of the information stored in a cell or organism’s DNA is called its proteome

A

False

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57
Q

Colistin is a charged antibiotic molecule that can cause kidney damage. Some colistin resistance has been shown to?

A

change the charge on the cell surface

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58
Q

True or false: some viral prophage are able to measure the number of host cells outside the individual cell they are in

A

True

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59
Q

Which of the following methods of gene transfer has the potential to transfer more unique regions of the bacterial chromosome?

A

Generalized transduction

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60
Q

The ‘transforming factor’ in Griffith’s (blue/red bacteria, mouse dead/live) experiment was ultimately found to be a gene for?

A

a sugar coat

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61
Q

In the experiment that established that DNA replication occurs semi-conservatively, newly synthesized strands could be distinguished from parental strands by?

A

Density

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62
Q

Some bacteriophage use a protein called Tip to control entry into the lytic cycle. Qtip expression is regulated through a protein that is a _____________

A

transcription factor and receptor

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63
Q

Plasmids that govern their own transfer are known as _____

A

Conjugative

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64
Q

When testing antibiotic resistance using “paper disc test”, you find the clearing around the disc is larger in the presence of EDTA. You conclude the bacteria is _____.

A

Using a metalloprotease to inactivate the antibiotic

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65
Q

Some bacteria use pili to capture _______ from the environment. Expression of pili genes and membrane pore complex genes are linked to ________?

A

DNA, available food sources

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66
Q

The Penicillin family of antibiotics bind to the active site of _____

A

Enzymes that form peptide crosslinks

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67
Q

When _____ interacts with RNA polymerase, it increases the rate of transcription initiation of the lac operon

A

cAMP/cAMP response protein (CRP)

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68
Q

Cipro is a _____ antibiotic. This is because it _____.

A

Broad spectrum, prevents DNA unwinding

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69
Q

Gene X makes a protein that binds to DNA. A mutation of gene X causes an increase in the expression of gene Y. We can conclude that _____

A

Gene X is a negative regulator of gene Y

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70
Q

A b-lactamase/penicillinase provides resistance to penicillin by _____.

A

modifying the penicillin-binding protein involved in cell wall synthesis and destroying the ring structure of penicillin

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71
Q

The acronym ORF stands for _____

A

Open reading frame

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72
Q

To be activated a quorum-sensing gene system requires the accumulation of a secreted small molecule called an _____

A

Auto inducer

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73
Q

True or false: a phage particle can be infectious even if all its DNA has been replaced by bacterial DNA

A

True

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74
Q

Operons _____.

A

Allow coordinated expression of multiple related genes in prokaryotes

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75
Q

Bacterial heat shock response requires expression of many proteins including _____, which prevent misfolding/denaturation. Coordinate expression of these different genes is controlled by _____

A

Chaperons, a unique sigma factor

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76
Q

Competence refers to the ability of bacterial population to _____

A

Be transformed by foreign DNA

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77
Q

True or false: In prokaryotes all RNA contains coded information for amino acid sequence

A

False

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78
Q

Insertion sequences are the simplest mobile genetic element. They code for a single protein. What does this protein do?

A

It can cut & reseal DNA strands

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79
Q

What do exposure to Cipro, Covid-19, and the Lyme’s disease bacteria have in common?

A

All are associated with post treatment disease/ symptoms

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80
Q

The promoter site of an operon is the site at which _____ initiates

A

RNA polymerase

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81
Q

In a gel-shift assay, free DNA runs _____ than protein::DNA complexes

A

Faster

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82
Q

In the absence of lactose, the lac _____ will _____

A

operator, be bound by repressor

83
Q

Two populations of bacteria have recently acquired resistance to Mitchomycin. Population 1 did so in three generations (60 minutes). Population 2 acquired this resistance over the course of several months. The most likely mechanism for resistance in Population 1 is?

A

Horizontal gene transfer of a plasmid

84
Q

Which of the following would cause a stringent response in a bacterial population: antibiotic treatment, rapid change in available nutrients, rapid increase in temperature

A

All are correct

85
Q

True or false: heat maps are a way of representing changes in gene expression

A

True

86
Q

The first enzyme in a metabolic pathway has a second binding pocket for a product many steps down the metabolic pathway. This is likely an example of _____

A

Allosteric regulation

87
Q

You have cloned the promoter from your favorite retinal gene upstream (in front of) GFP (green fluorescent protein) and then made a transgenic fish. What would you expect to see when the fish grow up?

A

Only the eyes of the fish glow green

88
Q

Certain bacteria, when under stress produce transducing particle-like gene transfer agents (GTAs). These particles contain _____ pieces of bacterial DNA and the portion of the population that produces GTAs is determined _____.

A

Random, stochastically

89
Q

Calico cats have three colors of fur. This is due to inactivation of _____ and ultimately is controlled by _____.

A

One X chromosome, a guide RNA

90
Q

CRISPR (clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats) is: a bacterial defense mechanism, used to edit many different genomes, a type of immunological memory

A

All are correct

91
Q

What are sigma factors responsible for?

A

Binding of RNA polymerase to promoter sequences

92
Q

Which of the following are quorum-sensing phenomena: squid light organ, gut enterotoxin release, competence/transformability

A

All are correct

93
Q

Adding the amino acid Arginine to a bacterial culture _____

A

Represses the synthesis of the enzymes required for the production of arginine

94
Q

What do Texiobactin and Vancomycin have in common?

A

Both are relatively resistance proof and both inhibit the linking of cell wall to plasma membrane

95
Q

True or false: RNA sequencing does not sequence RNA directly

A

True

96
Q

True or false: RNA sequencing is a method for genomic analysis

A

False

97
Q

Prokaryotic genes as an _____ are transcribed as _____

A

Operon, a polycistron

98
Q

“Gene chips” contain ____________ for a large set of genes. ___________ are fluorescently labeled and are hybridized to the chip to measure changes in ______________?

A

single-strand DNAs, mRNAs, gene expression

99
Q

A DNA/genomic mutation removes the RBS from the 5’ UTR (untranslated region) of your favorite gene. This gene would be?

A

transcribed but not translated

100
Q

HIV has an RNA genome and can persist in human cells as a lysogen. What is the first step in this process?

A

Converting RNA to DNA

101
Q

Purposely infecting bacteria with Transposons is a type of ____________

A

mutational screen

102
Q

Which of the following does not lead to more antibiotic resistance bacteria: antibiotics in animal feed, false positive Strep throat (antibody) tests, over prescription, taking the entire prescription

A

Taking the entire prescription

103
Q

DNA replication happens in a ___________ manner, using information from the _______ strand as _________ to synthesize the new strand

A

semi conservative, parental, template

104
Q

What do BCG treatmeant, halo nevi, and spontaneous remission have in common?

A

All suggest a role for the immune system in fighting cancer

105
Q

True or false: Colonic epithelial cells get most of their energy from the blood stream

A

False

106
Q

Coagulase is a _____ protein used to _____

A

bacterial, escape immune detection

107
Q

Certain types of E coli produce a chemical mutagen called Colibactin. Studies have shown that it causes mutations consistent with _____ in humans.

A

Colon cancer

108
Q

Neutrophil expressed traps (NETS) are made of?

A

DNA

109
Q

True or false: live virus can be used to vaccinate against influenza

A

True

110
Q

Cholera toxin is?

A

an enterotoxin

111
Q

True or false: Mast cells have receptors for an antibody variable region

A

False

112
Q

True or false: There is an antibody for every allergen

A

True

113
Q

HIV specifically attacks and kills helper T cells. This drastically weakens the immune system because helper T cells _____

A

Stimulate antibody & cytotoxic T cell production

114
Q

Activation of a naive cytotoxic T cell (Tc) requires engagement of a co-receptor pair CD28/B7. Antigen Presenting Cells and cytotoxic T cells are originally brought together by _____

A

MHC, TCR, & antigen

115
Q

True or false: there is a single antibody gene for every antigen your body will ever encounter

A

False

116
Q

True or false: the Tuberculosis skin test is a type of immediate inflammatory response

A

False

117
Q

True or false: a ring that causes a rash in your finger involves Mast cell activation

A

True

118
Q

The ability to make antibody quickly after a second exposure to antigen is ultimately due to _____

A

Memory cells

119
Q

Antibodies present in a newborn are considered _____

A

Naturally acquired passive immunity

120
Q

Thymic education refers to the process by which _____ are selected for their ability to recognize _____ properly

A

T cells, foreign antigen

121
Q

The inflammatory response includes spiking a fever. This is done by the release of a _____ which travels to the _____

A

cytokine, brain

122
Q

After activation, B cell receptors (BCR) become _____

A

Antibodies

123
Q

The Limulus (horseshoe crab) amebocyte lysate assay can be used to detect _____ in intravenous solutions

A

Endotoxin

124
Q

Bacteria that are phagocytosed are destroyed in the _____ by a combination of enzymes and _____.

A

Lysosome, reactive oxygen species

125
Q

One type of interferon is expressed when _____ is detected in a cell. Its absorption into neighboring cells prepares them to _____

A

double stranded RNA, commit suicide

126
Q

True or false: In humans, specific bacterial infections have been treated successfully with fecal transplants

A

True

127
Q

Akkermansia munciphilia is a human gut bacteria that metabolizes _____

A

Mucus

128
Q

Certain types of E coli can cause bloody diarrhea. Which type of toxin do they use to accomplish this?

A

Endotoxin

129
Q

Botulinum toxin is a _____ which prevents _____ at neuromuscular junctions

A

neurotoxin, vesicle fusion

130
Q

GALT is part of the ________ which is responsible for defending against and _______ pathogens from outside the body

A

lymphatic system, sampling

131
Q

The following foreign antigens would be detected by the innate immune system except: viral RNA, 2025 influenza proteins, proteoglycan, flagellin

A

2025 influenza proteins

132
Q

Studies using a mouse model of autism have shown which of the following can lessen the autistic behavior: antibiotics in their water, a single species of bacteria in their water, a bacterial metabolite in their water

A

A single species of bacteria & a bacterial metabolite in their water

133
Q

Identify the component that is not part of innate immune defenses: skin, cytotoxic T cells, toll-like receptors, mucus

A

Cytotoxic T cells

134
Q

Cholera toxin causes diarrhea by _____ colonic endothelial cells

A

Increasing the flow of ions out of

135
Q

The human microbiome contains all _____

A

Organisms present in & on the body

136
Q

True or false: bacterial adhesions refer to a species-specific interaction between the pathogen and molecules on the host cell surface

A

True

137
Q

True or false: fermented foods and yogurt are good sources of prebiotics

A

False

138
Q

Which of the following can be used as a diagnostic test for a suspected infection: florescent antibody staining, selective culture media, agglutination

A

All are correct

139
Q

Why are Western blots used to confirm rapid diagnostic tests (HIV & others)

A

They produce a more complex banding pattern

140
Q

True or false: Chimeric Antigen Receptor T cell therapy (CART) does not always work. Antigen-positive relapse means the cancer antigen has mutated

A

False

141
Q

The complement system is considered part of the ______ immune system because it is activated by _________

A

Innate, any bacteria

142
Q

True or false: Type O blood reacts with anti-Type B antibodies in serologic agglutination tests

A

False

143
Q

PDL1, immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy is an _______ based treatment which can ______ the number of T cells attacking a tumor

A

antibody, increase

144
Q

Opsonins _____________

A

Increase phagocytosis

145
Q

Irritable Bowl Disease (IBD) is an overreaction of the immune system to ____________

A

gut microbiota

146
Q

Activation of complement leads to which of the following: increased inflammation, increased phagocytosis, holes in the bacterial membrane

A

All are correct

147
Q

Natural killer cells ______________

A

Kill cells that lack MHC molecules

148
Q

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease (SCID) is a genetic condition which: affects antibody production, results in a lack of Natural Killer T cells, affects T cell production

A

Affects antibody production & affects T cell production

149
Q

True or false: pathogens with heavily glycosylated outer membranes cannot activate complement

A

False

150
Q

The variable region of an antibody is _________. The constant region signals _________ by changing shape.

A

A region for binding antigen, antigen is bound

151
Q

The control line in a rapid test tells you ____________

A

You have added enough sample

152
Q

Major histocompatibility complex proteins are types in organ transplant cases. They are: markers of self, viral antigens, ‘presenter’ molecules/antigen holders

A

Markers of self and presenter molecules

153
Q

The ‘older’, _________ portion of the human immune system includes receptors that detect double-stranded RNA. The ________ makes specific tools (antibodies/T cells) to fight specific pathogens/infections

A

Innate, adaptive

154
Q

True or false: wounds that release pus are a sign that the bacteria is able to kill white blood cells

A

True

155
Q

True or false: Swelling is caused by the release of solutes by the bacteria that increase osmotic pressure

A

False

156
Q

True or false: ‘Cytokine storms’ can be caused by certain bacterial infections and/or cancer treatment

A

True

157
Q

Small mutations in the genes for the H and N proteins (hemagglutinin and neuraminidase) lead to changes in the infectivity of the influenza virus. This is also known as

A

genetic DRIFT

158
Q

True or false: Smallpox is an endemic disease in parts of Africa

A

False

159
Q

Identify the acute infection: HIV, HPV, Norovirus, Lyme’s (Burgdorferi)

A

Norovirus

160
Q

True or false: for any disease prevalence will be less than incidence

A

False

161
Q

The onset of an epidemic began with a sharp rise in the number of cases reported over a few days. This indicates that the mode of transmission is?

A

a common source

162
Q

The two leading Covid vaccines both contain ________ “packaged” in ___________

A

mRNA, lipid

163
Q

A disease that is present in unusually high numbers throughout the world is called a __________

A

pandemic

164
Q

Which of the following is an emerging disease in New England: influenza, cholera, West Nile virus

A

West Nile virus

165
Q

HIV is a _________ with a _________ genome. An enzyme called ________ copies its genome into ________ which is then integrated into the infected cell’s DNA

A

retrovirus, RNA, reverse transcriptase, DNA

166
Q

True or false: the majority of sexually active people will be exposed to HPV

A

True

167
Q

True or false: HPV infections led to cancer when the virus integrates into superficial epithelial cells

A

False

168
Q

Paxlovid is a protease inhibitor, its mechanism of action is similar to certain HIV treatments. The effect of these drugs is?

A

prevent viral maturation

169
Q

True or false: man has created synthetic DNA

A

True

170
Q

True or false: Synthetic DNA molecules have escaped into the environment

A

True

171
Q

What was the breakthrough advancement that led to the success of mRNA vaccines?

A

advances in backbone stability

172
Q

The Flu vaccine is not always effective in preventing severe disease. This can be due to?

A

Variants that arise after production starts

173
Q

Whooping cough outbreaks across the country have been associated with non-medical exemptions. Another factor that has been associated with increased whooping cough incidence is ___________

A

acellular vaccines

174
Q

A certain bacterium has as its reservoir a rodent only found in the Southwest United States. Each year, a few human cases of the disease caused by this bacterium are reported in Arizona and New Mexico. This disease can be categorized as _____________

A

endemic

175
Q

True or false: Some tick bites have been shown to cause a delayed allergic reaction to a mammalian carbohydrate

A

True

176
Q

Identify the viral infection that is transmitted by aerosol droplets: influenza, HPV, West Nile virus, Lyme disease

A

Influenza

177
Q

Heart disease and cancer are the leading cause of death worldwide in the 21st century. Up until the mid-twentieth century, the top three causes of death were all due to?

A

infectious diseases

178
Q

The main habitat (reservoir) of Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus, is?

A

soil

179
Q

Typhus and Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever are both caused by __________

A

bacterial parasites

180
Q

The original Whooping cough vaccine used in the US was more effective than the one currently being used. Which of the following explains why: original vaccine was a subunit vaccine, current vaccine is whole agent vaccine, original vaccine induced more memory cells

A

original vaccine induced more memory cells

181
Q

True or false: over 300,000 people die every year worldwide due to under-treated Strep throat

A

True

182
Q

True or false: PreP is a form of antiretroviral treatment for HIV infection, that when taken daily, reduces viral load to the point where the person cannot transmit the virus

A

True

183
Q

Novel Chicken Virus 7 has a high mortality rate (~80%). What kind of evidence would be the most concerning in terms of pandemic risk?

A

Poultry worker family deaths

184
Q

True or false: HPV vaccination can still be effective after having sex

A

True

185
Q

True or false: cancer progression requires prophage integration into a stem cell

A

True

186
Q

True or false: a test for anti-Covid-19 antibodies on the day of infection would be negative

A

True

187
Q

When herd immunity against a particular pathogen has been reached in a population, _______ people are protected

A

all

188
Q

True or false: infectious diseases are the cause of about 15% of all deaths worldwide

A

True

189
Q

Which of the following are established reservoirs for Influenza: domesticated turkeys, wild turkeys, pigs

A

all are correct

190
Q

True or false: vaccines are available for all sexually transmitted diseases

A

False

191
Q

True or false: if not treated completely with antibiotics, Group A Streptococci can cause severe post-infection diseases

A

True

192
Q

True or false: vaccination is a type of artificial passive immunization

A

False

193
Q

SARS-COVID-19 has become an endemic disease worldwide. Which of the following is the best evidence for this fact

A

large “waves” of new infections are absent

194
Q

What accounts for the chance of genetic shift leading to the next flu pandemic?

A

it has a segmented genome

195
Q

True or false: upper respiratory tract pathogens are generally more deadly than lower respiratory pathogens

A

False

196
Q

PLWH (people living with HIV) are at greater risk for _____________ than the average population

A

opportunistic infections

197
Q

True or false: in the US ~15,000 liver cancer deaths caused by chronic Hepatitis Virus C (‘HepC’) occur each year

A

True

198
Q

True or false: HepC treatment can cost $25,000-95,000 USD even with insurance

A

True

199
Q

The ‘a’ in DTaP vaccine refers to?

A

the type of vaccine

200
Q

What do treatment for Covid with Paxlovid and certain types of HIV ART have in common

A

Both inhibit the viral protease

201
Q

Why are most domesticated turkeys recently being raised indoors

A

To prevent viral infection

202
Q

True or false: During the Phase III trials for the Covid mRNA vaccine, the majority of side effects were reported in the vaccine arm of the trial

A

False

203
Q

AIDs patients world-wide ultimately die from __________

A

secondary infections