EXAM 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the functions and secondary functions of the kidneys?

A

Maintaining fluid balance
Maintenance of acid-base balance
Excretion of metabolic wastes

Produce Erythropoietin (during hypoxia)
Release Renin (secreted by juxtaglomerular cells) when BP is low, initiates RAAS.
Converting Vit D into Calcitriol (when Ca2+ levels are low)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the basic renal processes?

A

Filtration
Reabsorption (aka resorption)
Secretion
Excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the classes of diuretics?

A

Loop diuretics
Thiazide diuretics
Potasium-sparing diuretics
Osmotic diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is preload

A

The amount of blood volume that fills the ventricles in the diastole (relaxation) phase of the cardiac cycle (aka filling pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is afterload?

A

The pressure the ventricles must work against to open the valves so blood can leave the ventricles (aka peripheral vascular resistance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where in nephron do Loop Diuretics work?

A

Act in ascending limb of Loop of Henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do loop diuretics work?

A

Block reabsorption of Na+ (H20 follows), Cl- (in ascending limb)
Dilate blood vessels
Decrease preload, afterload and BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the indications for loop diuretics?

A

Manage HTN (not 1st line)
Decrease edema r/t HF, liver, renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the adverse effects of loop diuretics?

A

Hypotension
Na+, K+, and other electrolyte depletion
Possibly hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the prototypical Thiazide diuretic?

A

Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where do thiazide diuretics act?

A

Distal convoluted tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do thiazide diuretics work?

A

Block reabsorption of Na+ (H20), Cl-, K+ (in DCT)
Relaxes arterioles
Decreases preload, afterload, and BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the indications for Thiazide diuretics?

A

First-line tx for HTN
Management of mild to moderate HTN
Adjunct tx for HF, liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the adverse effects of Thiazide Diuretics?

A

Electrolyte imbalance
Hypokalemia
Possibly hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is aldosterone secreted by?

A

Adrenal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does aldosterone act on? (which part of the nephron)

A

Distal CT and collecting duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the effects of aldosterone?

A

Increased reabsorption of sodium and water
Increased blood pressure

Excretion of potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the prototypical Potassium-sparing diuretic?

A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do potassium-sparing diuretics work?

A

Aldosterone-antagonist (blocks reabsorption of Na and water)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where do potassium-sparing diuretics work?

A

DCT and collecting ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the indications for potassium-sparing diuretics?

A

Management of HTN
Edema r/t HF, liver, renal disease
Counteract K+ loss caused by other diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the adverse effects of potassium sparing diuretics?

A

Hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What drug is the osmotic diuretic?

A

Mannitol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where do osmotic diuretics work?

A

PCT and descending limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the Actions of osmotic diuretics?

A

Increase osmotic force
Inhibits H2O reabsorption
Produces rapid diuresis
(Degree of diuresis r/t drug conc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the indications for osmotic diuretics?

A

Edema
Increased intracranial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the adverse effects of osmotic diuretics?

A

Dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the diuretic effects on geriatric patients?

A

Can cause dizziness, lightheadedness
Risk of orthostatic hypotension
Increase risk of dehydration and constipation
More prone to fluid and electrolyte imbalances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are two nursing considerations when giving geriatic patients diuretics?

A

Recommend taking dose in AM
Lower doses if taking other diuretics or anti-HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the nursing implications for patients on diuretics?

A

D - diet (potassium intake)
I - I/O monitoring, daily weight
U - unbalanced F&E (electrolytes, BUN, creatinine, hydration)
R - ready for dynamic changes (light-headedness, VS, hearth/breath sounds, cardiac rhythm, etc)
E - no evening doses
T - take in AM
I - increased risk for orthostatic hypotension
C - consider age, other meds that increase risk of F&E imbalances and BP changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does Endothelial injury cause? And what are the results?

A

Vasoconstriction

To reduce blood flow and achieve hemostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 3 main steps of hemostasis?

A

Vasoconstriction
Platelet plug
Clotting cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What activates platelet plug formation? What do they then secrete? And what gets triggered by them?

A

Collagen exposure leads to adhesion of platelets
Activated platelets secrete stimulators (help platelets stick together)
Clotting cascade triggered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the role of the clotting cascade?

A

To cause clotting factors (plasma proteins) to stabilize the fibrin clot and stop bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What do stimulators do platelets secrete and what do they do?

A

Adenosine diphosphate (ADP) - causes platelets to change shape and aggregate
Thromboxane A2 (TXA2) - induces platelets aggregation

36
Q

What is the action of aspirin /acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)?

A

Prevents the formation of TXA2
Prevents platelet aggregation

37
Q

What are the indications for aspirin?

A

Stroke and MI prophylaxis

38
Q

What are the adverse effects of aspirin?

A

GI bleeding, dyspepsia (heart burn)

39
Q

What are the drug-drug interactions with aspirin?

A

May increase risk of bleeding with anti-coagulants and anti-platelet medications

40
Q

What is the action of clopidogrel?

A

ADP inhibitor
Alters platelet membrane and prevents signal to aggregate

41
Q

What is clopidogrel commonly given with? What is the combo effective for?

A

Aspirin
combo is effective in CVD

42
Q

What are the indications for clopidogrel?

A

Prophylaxis of stroke, TIA, MI and post-MI

43
Q

What are the adverse effects of clopidogrel?

44
Q

What is a consideration with clopidogrel?

A

It is highly bound to protein (albumin)
Its duration of action is 5 days - may interfere with surgery due to increased risk of bleeding

45
Q

What is the normal range of platelet count?

A

150,000 - 400,000 platelets per microliter (mcL)

46
Q

What’s the term for platelet count under 150,000?

A

Thrombocytopenia

47
Q

What are considerations when pts are on antiplatlet drugs?

A

Avoid IM injections
Discontinue 5-7 days before surgical procedures
Abrupt discontinuation may increase risk of CV events (educate pt on this)
Assess CBC (H/h, platelet count)

48
Q

What are important things to teach patients on antiplatelet drugs?

A

Use electric razors, soft toothbrush
Prevent injury
Report signs of bleeding (hematuria, black tarry stools, bruising, increased bleeding from small cuts, nose bleeds)
Food/Herbal interactions: chamomile, feverfew, garlic, ginger, ginkgo (increase risk of bleeding)

49
Q

What are the actions of rivaroxaban and apixaban?

A

Oral factor Xa inhibitor
Prevents new clots from forming
No effect on already-formed clots
Prophylactic treatment of clots

50
Q

What is the indication for rivaroxaban and apixaban?

A

Increased risk or history of thrombotic events

51
Q

What are the adverse effects of rivaroxaban and apixaban?

A

Bleeding (however no routine monitoring required)

52
Q

What is the black box warning for rivaroxaban and apixaban?

A

Increased risk of clots if discontinued abruptly

53
Q

What is the antidote for rivaroxaban and apixaban?

A

Andexxa (binds to and negates drug effect)

54
Q

What are the drug-drug interactions for rivaroxaban and apixaban?

A

Other anticoagulants, antiplatelets, aspirin

55
Q

What are the actions of warfarin (coumarin)?

A

Inhibits action of multiple clotting factors
Inactivates vitamin K dependent-clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X)
No effect on a formed clots
Prevents clot enlargement

56
Q

What are the indications for warfarin?

A

Prophylaxis and treatment of thromboembolic events

57
Q

What are the considerations with warfarin?

A

Onset of action 36-72 hours (b/c highly (98%) bound to protein)
3-5 days to reach therapeutic range
“Bridge therapy” needed (usually a heparin)
Return of normal coagulation levels takes 3-4 days (also b/c protein bound)

58
Q

What are the drug-drug interactions of warfarin?

A

Heparin, NSAIDs, anti-platelet drugs

59
Q

What is the black box warning/ adverse effects of warfarin?

60
Q

What is the antidote for warfarin?

61
Q

What are important labs to monitor for a patient on warfarin?

62
Q

What does prothrombin time measure?

A

Time it takes for a clot to form

63
Q

How is the PT therapeutic range changed for patients on warfarin?

A

1.5-2 times baseline (and may be increased in other conditions)

64
Q

What are the normal and therapeutic ranges of INR?

A

Normal: 0.8-1.2 (1)
Therapeutic range: greater than 2-3.5 (dependent on condition)

65
Q

What herbal/ foods are antagonists to warfarin?

A

Vitamin K supplements and foods high in vitamin K

Foods - asparagus, broccoli, cabbage, cauliflower, kale

Supplements - green tea, gingko, garlic, ginger, cranberry (juice), chamomile, & licorice

Increase risk of bleeding

66
Q

What are the nursing implications for someone on warfarin?

A

Avoid IM injections
Assess CBC PT/INR
Observe for s/sx of bleeding
Routine time
High-alert medication
Use of NSAIDs, anti-platelets increase risk of bleeding

67
Q

What patient teachings are important for someone on warfarin?

A

Soft toothbrush/ no flossing
Electric shaver
Assistive devices
Report s/sx of bleeding
Prevent injury
Routine lab tests
Herbal/food interactions

68
Q

What receptors do opioids bind to in CNS?

A

Mu and kappa receptors

69
Q

What risks do mu-opioid receptor agonists cause?

A

Respiratory depression and constipation

70
Q

How do Mu-opioid receptor agonists work?

A

Alter perception of pain

71
Q

What is morphine prescribed for?

A

Acute and chronic pain

72
Q

What is morphine (ER) prescribed for?

A

Chronic pain management

73
Q

Which type of morphine is given for breakthrough pain?

A

Short-acting

74
Q

What is hydromorphone prescribed for?

A

Severe acute and chronic pain

75
Q

Does dilaudid cause more or less nausea than morphine?

76
Q

What are the increased risks of hydromorphone over morphine?

A

Orthostatic hypotension, urinary retention, and respiratory depression

77
Q

What is codeine prescribed for?

A

Mild to moderate pain

78
Q

What is fentanyl prescribed for?

A

perioperative anesthesia

79
Q

Who is fentanyl ordered for?

A

Opioid-tolerant pts
Management of breakthrough cancer pain
Chronic persistent pain

80
Q

How much stronger is fentanyl than morphine?

A

100 times stronger

81
Q

What is oxycodone prescribed for?

A

Moderate to severe pain

82
Q

What is methadone prescribed for?

A

Moderate to severe pain in opioid-tolerant; ATC long-term tx

Used in tx to reduce or quit heroin/opiates (higher doses)

83
Q

What are the adverse effects of opioids?

A

Central Nervous System
- Sedation, confusion, drowsiness, dizziness, floating
feeling, and possible euphoria
Respiratory
- Respiratory depression
Cardiovascular
- Hypotension, bradycardia
Gastrointestinal
- Constipation, nausea, vomiting
Genitourinary
- Urinary retention
Miscellaneous
- Tolerance, physical and psychological dependence

84
Q

When do you consider holding opiates?

A

If RR is less than 12 breaths/min

85
Q

What are signs of over-sedation?

A

Respiratory depression less than 10/min
Unresponsive to verbal cues
Require painful stimuli (sternal rub)

86
Q

What is the opioid antagonist?

87
Q

What does naloxone do?

A

Reverses opioid-induced CNS and respiratory depression

Reverses analgesia effects