Exam 5 Flashcards

1
Q

There is a correlation coefficient of .80 between two variables. This means that the proportion of variance in Y that can be accounted for by knowing X is:

A

64%

The squared correlation coefficient (r2) is the proportion of variance in Y that can be accounted for by knowing X. Conversely, it is the proportion of variance in X that can be accounted for by knowing Y.

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2
Q

Some facts about practice effects and comparing test results across time

A

Practice effects can persist for years after testing, though inconsistently across tests..

Associated with the magnitude of change in many cases are:
The use of alternate forms
the ages of participants
clinical diagnoses of study participants
length of the test-retest interval are

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3
Q

Fine motor problems related to hydrocephalus are least likely to occur in children with:
spina bifida / Angelman’s /
Dandy Walker / IVH realted to prematurity

A

Angelman Syndrome does not include hydrocephalus.
Williams syndrome does not include hydrocephalus.
Fragile X can be with and sometimes without.

Angelman syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system and causes a range of symptoms. Children and adults with Angelman syndrome may have difficulty with daily tasks like washing, dressing, and feeding. They may also have jerky hand movements, like missing when reaching for an object or over-correcting their movements. Children will reach for an object and miss and then over-correct the movement. This is often observed as jerky hand movements

Spina bifida, dandy walker, IVH all include hydrocephalus

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4
Q

Describe optic neuritis related to MS.

A

monocular loss of central vision, eye pain that worsens with lateral eye movement, reduced color vision, and have a diagnosis of MS, these symptoms are highly suggestive of optic neuritis, an inflammation of the optic nerve which is a common neurological manifestation of multiple sclerosis (MS)

Optic neuritis occurs in 15–20% of people with MS as their first symptom, and in 50% of people with MS at some point during their illness

The characteristic pain with eye movement is a key indicator of optic neuritis, often described as a deep ache behind the eye that worsens when looking sideways

This type of vision loss, affecting the central part of your visual field, is typical in optic neuritis.

People with optic neuritis often experience difficulty perceiving colors accurately, appearing “washed out

Usually, only one eye is affected at a time

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5
Q

Describe some correlations between long COVID and PVT performance.

A

Approximately 25% of patients with long COVID have a known external incentive to perform poorly

PVT failure rate in patients with long COVID is approximately 10%

PVT failure in long COVID is similar to that seen in patients with ADHD, mTBI, and pain

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6
Q

What type of intervention is most helpful for individuals who have sustained a mild traumatic brain injury?

A

Interventions targeting self-efficacy are likely to be most helpful for treatment success.

such as…..
Self-Management Activity Restriction and Relaxation Training (SMART)
A web-based program that helps adolescents with mTBI improve self-efficacy by teaching them how to manage symptoms and cope effectively. SMART includes daily symptom monitoring, personalized feedback, and educational modules

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7
Q

What correlation in the literature is an important consideration for assessment of former athletes?

re # of concussions & subjective complaints

A

Subjective cognitive complaints are strongly related to self-reported number of concussions.

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8
Q

Based on what you know about Alzheimer’s disease progression, what findings would be least likely to get worse on re-evaluation:
Information / WCST / DS Forward /
visual perceptual issues on BNT

A

Reduced basic attention performance should remain stable over time (Digit Span Forward score)

Semantic knwoledge, naming, visual perception of images, and abstraction will reduce over time

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9
Q

Which type of testing would help to differentiate dementia vs. depression for a patient with impaired memory testing?

A

Including praxis testing would be helpful to rule-out cognitive complaints due to depression.

praxis testing: motor programming for basic activities like brushing hair / teeth, etc. In Alz, this may reduce but in depression it should be intact.

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10
Q

What is the feature that confirms an FAS diagnosis over FAS spectrum disorder?

A

Evidence of both cognitive and behavioral impairment (≥ 1.5 SD below the mean)

Both will have:
Known pattern of maternal binge drinking, particularly in the first trimester.
Height and/or weight deficiency (≤10th percentile for chronological age)
Facial anomalies (smooth philtrum, thin vermilion border, short palpebral fissures)

Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASD)
A range of conditions that can include FAS, partial FAS (pFAS), alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder (ARND), alcohol-related birth defects (ARBD), and neurobehavioral disorder associated with prenatal alcohol exposure (ND-PAE)

Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)
The most severe form of FASD, FAS can cause facial abnormalities, growth problems, and central nervous system (CNS) issues.

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11
Q

What are best practices of serial assessments?

A

Repeating neuropsychological tests in the presence of severe disease or brain injury is not likely to show large changes.

Repeating neuropsychological tests can help differentiate between neurologic and environmental factors affecting test performance.

Reliable-change scores can be used to determine how likely the patient’s change in scores reflect neurologic change.

There are limited data regarding optimal test-retest intervals between testing sessions to minimize practice effects

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12
Q

What are some important considerations for testing with a non-english speaking individual who has suffered a recent left MCA stroke as it relates to best practices for the evaluation?

A

Level of acculturation, including language dominance of his education and family experiences, would be important

It is preferable to be assessed by a bilingual neuropsychologist rather than through an interpreter.

Given the importance of assessing language skills, this testing should be conducted in both languages.

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13
Q

Which medications may most likely result in anticholinergic side effects?

A

Medications that most commonly cause anticholinergic side effects include: tricyclic antidepressants, first-generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine (Benadryl), certain antipsychotics, some antispasmodics, and certain Parkinson’s medications; all of which can lead to side effects like dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention.

Key drug classes with anticholinergic potential:

Antihistamines: Diphenhydramine, chlorpheniramine, cyproheptadine, doxylamine

Tricyclic antidepressants: Amitriptyline, imipramine, doxepin

Antipsychotics: Chlorpromazine, haloperidol, quetiapine, clozapine

Antispasmodics: Oxybutynin, glycopyrrolate, propantheline

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14
Q

What type of neuroimaging would you recommend to help differentiate AD and FTD?

A

Positron emission tomography with fluorodeoxyglucose (FTD-PET) is superior in differentiating between AD and FTD.

it can clearly show distinct patterns of brain metabolism between the two conditions, with AD typically demonstrating posterior brain hypometabolism and FTD showing frontal and anterior temporal lobe hypometabolism

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15
Q

Describe what associate processing and assembled processing look like for people with spina bifida meningomyelocele.

A

Intact associative processing and impaired assembled processing are cognitive differences that can occur in people with spina bifida meningomyelocele (SBM):

Associative processing
The ability to form associations, categorize information, and activate stimulus information. People with SBM are often strong in associative processing, which can lead to good language skills, word reading, and categorical knowledge.

Assembled processing
The ability to integrate information and create internal models to guide performance. People with SBM are often weak in assembled processing, which can lead to difficulties with language comprehension, mathematical problem solving, and other cognitive tasks.

These differences can lead to unbalanced cognitive development. However, the processing differences are not absolute, and there may be systematic biases in processing

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16
Q

Several areas of hyperpigmented skin on the arms and a large skin-colored mass on her neck is indicative of what disorder?

A

Neurofibromatosis Type 1

café-au-lait spots , which are flat patches on the skin that are darker than the surrounding area

Neurofibromas are benign tumours arising from the endoneurium and are characteristic of NF1. They develop as discrete focal cutaneous or subcutaneous tumours or more diffuse plexiform neurofibromas that grow along the length of nerves

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17
Q

What aspect of attention and executive functioning is typically preserved among autistic individuals?

A

Inhibition

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18
Q

What test is most sensitive to neuropathological disease?

A

Clock drawing is the test with the most sensitivity to neuropathological disease.

In the research, only Braak-NFT stage and limbic-predominant age-related TDP-43 encephalopathy (LATE) pathology associated significantly with performance across multiple cognitive domains. Of all cognitive tests, the clock-drawing test was particularly sensitive to levels of multiple neuropathologies

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19
Q

When would you use a Point biserial coefficient?

A

You should use a point-biserial correlation to measure the relationship between a continuous variable and a dichotomous variable when you have only two variables. A dichotomous variable has two values, such as male/female, yes/no, or true/false. A continuous variable is measured on a scale, such as salary or cholesterol concentration.

Here are some examples of when you might use a point-biserial correlation:

Gender and salary: To determine if there is an association between gender and salary

Smoking status and cholesterol concentration: To determine if there is an association between smoking status and cholesterol concentration

Cancer drug and age of death: To determine if a cancer drug prolongs life

Age and life satisfaction (high or low): To determine if life satisfaction is higher for older people

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20
Q

What is some of the supported research around cannabis use in developing brains?

A

In utero exposure to cannabis has been linked to later anxiety and mood dysregulation.

The younger one is when first using cannabis, the more likely they are to develop an addiction.

Use of cannabis as a teen is linked with increased risk of addiction in general.

Exposure to cannabis in adolescence does not have equivalent effects to that of adult exposure.

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21
Q

.What triad of symptoms is linked to Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Ataxia, confusional state, eye movement abnormalities

ACE!!!!

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22
Q

Explain some of the research around exercise and dementia

A

All patients who regularly exercise have a moderately reduced risk of developing dementia.

Research suggests that, compared with a sedentary lifestyle, all forms of exercise are associated with improved cognitive health.

Exercise is helpful for both older adults with mild cognitive impairment and dementia, but more effective for those without dementia.

Exercise’s benefit for brain health may be through the improvements of medical conditions such as diabetes and heart disease.

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23
Q

Early childhood neuropsychological evaluation indicates what for clinical prediction of later (adolescent/early adult functioning)?

A

Results of early evaluation may not be predictive of current IQ due to lower stability of findings over time, particularly for longer measurement intervals.

24
Q

When it comes to pediatric temporal lobe epilepsy, memory tasks MAY indicate what on neuropsychological assessment?

A

Memory deficits may not localize given mixed findings of memory deficits.

25
Q

What is a ONE WAY Anova likely going to do for our data set versus a T-test?

a. decreases the likelihood of a Type I error
b. decreases the likelihood of a Type II error
c. can control for the effects of an extraneous variable
d. assesses for both main and interaction effects

A

Anova decreases the likelihood of a Type I error

A t-test is designed for comparing just two groups, while an ANOVA can compare three or more groups

Essentially, an ANOVA is an extension of a t-test for situations where you have more than two groups to compare

If you run both an independent samples t-test and a one-way ANOVA on data with only two groups, the results will be essentially the same.

When comparing multiple groups using multiple t-tests, there’s a higher risk of Type I error (false positive) compared to using a single ANOVA, which controls for this error more effectively.

26
Q

What is Type II error and how do we decrease the likelihood of a Type II error?

A

Type II error: This occurs when a researcher fails to reject a null hypothesis that is actually false, meaning they miss a real effect in the data. False negatives!!

A test that increases the sample size is most likely to decrease the likelihood of a Type II error

a larger sample size provides more statistical power, which directly reduces the chance of a Type II error occurring.

27
Q

What is Type I error and how do we decrease the likelihood of a Type I error?

A

Type 1 errors – often assimilated with false positives – happen in hypothesis testing when the null hypothesis is true but rejected.

While lowering the alpha level can reduce the chance of a Type I error, it can also increase the likelihood of a Type II error.

28
Q

Mr. Shingler is a 64-year-old gay man with Parkinson’s Disease. His physician commented that he looks sad, which the patient denied, but admitted that he no longer attends his boxing classes, has anhedonia, and is more frustrated. Which of the following is not true about mood treatment in Parkinson’s Disease?

Describe some recent research about mood treatment in Parkinson’s disease.

A

SNRIs or SSRIs medication is often a first line treatment for mood symptoms in patients with PD

Depression and anxiety occur in about 30% of patients with PD

SSRI medications may cause or worsen tremor

Patients with PD typically have some (moderate?) benefit from CBT

29
Q

Describe the 4 different types of MS.

A

Relapsing-remitting MS (RRMS)
The most common type of MS is called relapsing-remitting MS (RRMS). It is defined by temporary periods called relapses, flare-ups, or exacerbations when symptoms appear. These attacks are followed by periods of remission when the symptoms may disappear or subside. Remissions can last anywhere from weeks to months or years. Approximately 85% of people with MS are initially diagnosed with RRMS.

Primary-progressive MS (PPMS)
Over time, RRMS may advance to the secondary progressive phase: secondary progressive MS (SPMS). This type of MS does not have the distinctive remissions, flare-ups, or plateaus that RRMS does, but instead is characterized by slowly worsening symptoms and neurologic function. Without treatment, approximately half of the individuals with RRMS convert to SPMS within 10 to 20 years.

Secondary-progressive MS (SPMS)
People diagnosed with primary-progressive MS (PPMS) have symptoms that steadily worsen with no periods of remission and flare-ups. Approximately 10% of people with MS are diagnosed with this form of the condition.

Progression-Relapsing MS (PRMS)
A small percentage of individuals may be diagnosed with a relatively rare type of MS known as progression-relapsing MS (PRMS). This type of MS steadily worsens from the onset of the first symptoms, regardless of relapses or periods of remission. Approximately 5% of people with MS are diagnosed with PRMS

30
Q

Carbamanzapine is a seizure medication, but also used to treat this type of pain in MS….

A

trigeminal neuralgia

31
Q

Dalfampridine is used to treat what symptom in MS patients?

A

Gait impairment

32
Q

What are some of the clinical and neuropsychological findings of vascular Parkinsonism?

A

Vascular parkinsonism (VP) is a condition that causes symptoms similar to Parkinson’s disease, but is caused by small strokes or other vascular issues in the brain, rather than a gradual loss of nerve cells

Slow movements, stiffness, difficulty walking and balancing, and lower body parkinsonism. VP patients are less likely to have tremors than those with Parkinson’s disease.

Intact memory earlier in the disease course with lower body freezing and an impaired sense of smell

attention, executive, and visuoperceptual deficits

VP is chronic, but it doesn’t necessarily worsen over time.

However, because VP is caused by vascular disease, people with VP are more likely to have cardiovascular issues that can reduce life expectancy

33
Q

Mr. Sim has been evaluated by neurology and diagnosed with vascular parkinsonism. Along with attention, executive, and visuoperceptual deficits, which of the following clinical and neuropsychological findings are likely to correspond to this diagnosis?
a. Early disease stage changes in memory with upper body freezing and a preserved sense of smell.
b. Intact memory earlier in the disease course with lower body freezing and an impaired sense of smell.
c. Intact memory earlier in the disease course with lower body freezing and a preserved sense of smell.
d. Early disease stage changes in memory with lower body freezing and a preserved sense of smell.

A

b.

34
Q

Which neuropsychological data analytic method would be best for predicting functional driving abilities of an 85-year-old with an 8th grade educational level?
a. Adjust the patient’s raw test scores using demographically (e.g., race, education) corrected norms.
b. Refine the estimated prediction of premorbid abilities by using oral word reading performance.
c. Compare the patient’s raw test scores to those scores of mixed-age adult population.
d. Use age-based norms, as demographic factors have minimal impact on functional classification.

A

a. Adjust the patient’s raw test scores using demographically (e.g., race, education) corrected norms.

35
Q

What environmental situations would be vulnerable to Parkinsonism based on exposure to manganese, lead, and solvents?

A

manganese exposure- welders
lead- in the water or in the ground, chemicals
solvents- trichloroethylene (TCE)
A colorless chemical used in dry cleaning, metal degreasing, and paint thinners, TCE is a common contaminant in soil and groundwater. A 2023 study published in JAMA Neurology found that two years of heavy exposure to TCE may increase the risk of Parkinson’s by 70%. TCE has also been linked to certain cancers

36
Q

You recently evaluated a preschool-aged a child with a history of perinatal hypoxic-ischemic injury with basal ganglia involvement suggesting extrapyramidal motor system involvement. What subtype of cerebral palsy is most likely?

A

Dyskinetic cerebral palsy

37
Q

What are the three types of dyskinetic cerebral palsy?

A

The three types of dyskinetic cerebral palsy (DCP) are dystonia, athetosis, and chorea:

Dystonia: Repetitive, twisting movements that can cause abnormal postures. Dystonia can be focal, affecting only one part of the body, or generalized, affecting many areas.

Athetosis: Slow, “stormy” movements.

Chorea: Irregular, unpredictable, dance-like movements.

DCP is the second most common type of cerebral palsy, after spastic forms. It’s caused by damage to the basal ganglia, a part of the brain that controls purposeful movements. Different types of DCP result from injuries to different parts of the basal ganglia.

DCP is characterized by abnormal movements and postures, and impaired movement coordination and tone regulation. These movements are often more noticeable when the person tries to move. DCP can often be combined with spasticity, which is called mixed cerebral palsy

38
Q

In general, what are the four main types of Cerebral Palsy

A

The main types of cerebral palsy (CP) are:

Spastic CP
The most common type, characterized by increased muscle tone that makes movement awkward.

Dyskinetic CP
People with dyskinetic CP have difficulty controlling their arms, hands, legs, and feet, and experience random, uncontrolled movements.

Ataxic CP
The least common type, characterized by problems with balance and coordination, which can lead to shaky or clumsy movements.

Mixed CP
A combination of symptoms from more than one type of CP

39
Q

Explain what the 3 different subtypes of spastic cerebral palsy look like clinically.

A

The three types of spastic cerebral palsy are:

Quadriplegia
The most severe form, affecting both arms and legs, and sometimes the torso and face. People with spastic quadriplegia often have a weak neck and are usually unable to walk.

Hemiplegia
Affects muscles on one side of the body, usually the arm more than the leg. Children with spastic hemiplegia may have delays in learning to talk, but are usually of normal intelligence.

Diplegia
Affects the legs, and sometimes causes mild stiffness in the arms. People with spastic diplegia may require a walker or leg braces, but are usually of normal intelligence and language skills. Note* premature birth and neuroimaging findings of PVL

Spastic cerebral palsy is caused by damage to the motor cortex, which controls voluntary movement, and the pyramidal tracts, which relay signals to the muscles

40
Q

Among children born very preterm or with very low birth weight, risk factors for global cognitive impairment under the age of 5 years include what?

A

male sex

nonwhite race/ethnicity

lower level of parental education- continues to be a risk factor in older children

lower birth weight

41
Q

What are some early signs of cortical basal degeneration?

A

CBD is a rare neurological disease that causes progressive brain degeneration. Symptoms typically begin between the ages of 45 and 70. The disease continues to worsen over time, causing nerve cells to die and multiple areas of the brain to shrink.

Early signs of corticobasal degeneration (CBD) include:

Movement issues: Difficulty controlling a limb on one side of the body, such as a hand or arm, or a feeling that the limb doesn’t belong to you

Stiffness: Muscle stiffness in the limb

Shaking: Shaking hands or tremors in the limb

Speech changes: Slow, slurred, or halting speech

Eye movement changes: Changes in eye movements

42
Q

What is PPA and what is the most common neuropathological cause of PPA?

A

most likely caused by abnormal accumulation of TDP-43
and neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles

Primary progressive aphasia (PPA) is a neurodegenerative disease that can be classified into three types based on the patient’s main deficits:

Semantic variant PPA (svPPA): Difficulty naming objects or understanding the meaning of words

Nonfluent agrammatic variant PPA (nfvPPA): Poor grammar or difficulty speaking fluently

Logopenic variant PPA (lvPPA): Difficulty finding the right words or understanding others

Considered an FTD- The most common causes of PPA are frontotemporal lobar degeneration with abnormal tau protein accumulation (FTLD-tau), frontotemporal lobar degeneration with abnormal TDP-43 accumulation (FTLD-TDP-43), and Alzheimer’s disease (AD). Most people who develop PPA are in their 50s and 60s

43
Q

A patient is experiencing abulia, pseudobulbar affect, and a dense amnesia with confabulation, there is likely a lesion in which artery?

A

Anterior communicating artery

Symptoms of a lesion in the anterior cerebral artery (ACA) can include:

Neuropsychological features: Abulia, agitation, memory impairments, emotional lability, incontinence, anosognosia, altered consciousness, and speech disorders

Motor symptoms: Hemiparesis or hemiplegia, primarily in the lower limbs and pelvic floor

44
Q

What is Meniere’s disease?

A

Ménière’s disease is a chronic inner ear disorder that causes vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss, and a feeling of fullness in the ear:

Vertigo: A severe spinning sensation that can lead to loss of balance

Tinnitus: Ringing in the ears

Hearing loss: Can include muffled hearing or an inability to hear select frequencies

Ear fullness: A feeling of congestion or pressure in the ear

Ménière’s disease can affect one or both ears, and symptoms can come and go. Attacks can last from 10 minutes to several hours, and symptoms can take a day or two to completely disappear.
Often onsets in 40-60yo, unknown cause, fluid in ear can be a trigger, and there is no cure.

45
Q

What is Myasthenia gravis (MG)?

A

Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a chronic autoimmune disease that causes weakness in the muscles of the body

MG can cause weakness in the muscles of the eyes, face, throat, limbs, and neck. Symptoms include double vision, drooping eyelids, difficulty speaking, difficulty swallowing, and weakness in the arms and legs. Weakness worsens with activity and improves with rest.

it’s a chronic autoimmune disorder in which antibodies destroy the communication between nerves and muscle, resulting in weakness of the skeletal muscles. Myasthenia gravis affects the voluntary muscles of the body, especially those that control the eyes (early sx), mouth/chewing (early sx), throat and limbs.

10% can have life threatening complications due to issues with skeletal muscles needed to breathe.

Can be treated with anticholinesterase inhibs.

Assoc with abnormal activity in left thalamus and medial prefrontal cortex.

Memory, language, and visual spatial skills can be reduced

46
Q

White or light-colored patches of skin and/or reddish spots or bumps on the face are indicative of what disorder?

A

Tuberous sclerosis complex (TSC) is a neurocutaneous syndrome that can cause a wide range of symptoms, including

Skin abnormalities
White or light-colored patches of skin called hypomelanotic macules, or “ash leaf spots”. These can appear anywhere on the body. Reddish spots or bumps called facial angiofibromas, or adenoma sebaceum, can appear on the face. These can start out the size of a grain of millet and spread and enlarge over time. Other skin abnormalities include forehead plaques and shagreen patches.

Tumors
Tumors can appear in the brain, heart, kidneys, lungs, eyes, mouth, and liver. Heart tumors are more common in children, and most patients with TSC-related heart tumors don’t have symptoms.

Other symptoms
Epilepsy, learning disabilities, hyperactivity, autism spectrum disorder, behavior problems, and sleeping difficulties.

Kidney problems
Over 80% of people with TSC have kidney lesions, and kidney problems can include increased blood pressure or kidney failure.

Lung problems
Hamartomas in the lungs can cause coughing, trouble breathing, chest pain, or a buildup of fluid around the lung. These problems are more common in females and don’t usually cause issues until adulthood.

47
Q

When would you use a spearman rho coefficient?

A

You should use Spearman’s rho coefficient to measure the relationship between two variables when data is ordinal and you only have two variables.

Some examples of when you can use Spearman’s rho coefficient include:

Calculating the correlation between the finishing ranks of contestants in two spelling competitions

Determining whether there is an association between exam performance and time spent revising

Determining whether there is an association between depression and length of unemployment

Determining how well data fits a model, like when determining the similarity of text documents

48
Q

When would you use the Pearson R coefficient?

A

Use the Pearson correlation coefficient (“r”) when you want to measure the strength and direction of a linear relationship between two continuous variables that are:
normally distributed
have no significant outliers
both measured at an interval or ratio level

essentially, when you want to see how closely two variables change together in a straight line

49
Q

When would you use a Phi coefficient?

A

The phi coefficient is used in statistics to measure the relationship between two binary variables, or variables with only two possible outcomes.

It’s often used in educational and psychological testing, where variables are frequently dichotomized into pass/fail categories

another example?

50
Q

True/False
One-way ANOVA decreases Type 1 error

A

True.
The more tests you run (e.g., more t-tests), the greater a chance for T1 error,.

So an ANOVA can be 1 test to replace a series of t tests, which will reduce the T1 error

51
Q

True/False
A one-way ANOVA accounts for main and interaction effects

A

False.
A two-way ANOVA accounts for both, but a one-way only accounts for main effects (not interactive because there is no interaction- there is only 1 IV).

52
Q

What is the difference between Type 1 and Type 2 error

A

Type I: rejecting the null hypothesis when it’s actually true.
A False Positive error.

Type II: failing to reject the null hypothesis when it’s actually false.
A False Negative error.

53
Q

What are ways to reduce Type II error

A

Increase sample size

increase significance level (which increases the probability of rejecting the null when it is true- but doing this increases Type 1 error risk)

Create a study to make the pre-and post- changes larger (the greater the effect, the smaller the sample size needed)

54
Q

Rate of depression in Parkinsons

A

~35% major depression
~50% some depression
It will often appear early
Risk of depression is x4 compared to normals

55
Q

What type of parkinsonism are welders at heightened risk of getting

A

PD due to manganese exposure; “Manganism”
Cause: welding, bad water, genetic d/o, liver disease
SX: bradykinesia, tremor, speech issue, rigid, poor gait
Special difference with manganism: L-dopa less effective because the brain has trouble releasing dopamine into the synapse in the first place.

56
Q

What does L-dopa do for PD patients

A

L-dopa is a precursor for dopamine so it’s a replacement agent.
L-dopa targets best the bradykinesia.

PD requires bradykinesia + either tremor or rigidity.
Low dopamine causes all 3 tremor + rigidity + bradykineseia
dopamine itself cannot cross BBB but L-dopa can, so that’s why dopamine is not prescribed