Exam Flashcards

1
Q

While in microbes selective toxicity tends to apply to structural differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes, in cancer we are killing our own cells. So, what options do we have to target cancer cells? How is this similar and different to antimicrobials?

A

Anti-cancer drugs still target many of the same steps as do antimicrobials with respect to the cell cycle. However, whereas antimicrobials like trimethoprim, sulfonilamide, and fluoroquinolones all target differences in structure, anti-cancer drugs exploit differences in rate.

Basically, we kill our own cells in the process but hope that the rate at which a tumor cell divides is much faster than that of our cells. That way the tumor dies before we die.

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2
Q

Would a male or a female be more likely to become sterile with chemotherapeutics? Why?

A

A male would because spermatogenesis is a process that occurs throughout life whereas oogenesis occurs embryonic life. So, inhibiting the synthesis of DNA would prevent this process.

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3
Q

What metric is used to gauge the selective toxicity of chemotherapeutics? How is it expressed? If the value of this was 1, would you prescribe the drug? Why or why not?

A

Chemotherapeutic Index

CI = toxicity to cancer cells/ toxicity to normal cells

No you would not prescribe the drug if CI = 1.

Since toxicity refers to the LD<strong>50</strong>, then,

CI = LD50 Cancer/ LD50 Normal

That means if the CI was equal to 1 that any given dose would kill an equal number of normal cells as it would cancer cells, it’s not a good drug.

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4
Q

Growth factors can bind to receptors and induce signal cascades to get the cell through what two major cell cycle transitions?

How could a mutation in a part of this system lead to uncontrolled division?

A

G0–>G1

G1–>S

If the receptor is mutated such that it is in a conformation that tells the cell that it is “on” all of the time, then no growth factor is needed to stimulate the cell cycle = no control.

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5
Q

Sometimes a single anti-cancer drug doesn’t do the job. What are 3 things that can be accomplished with a drug cocktail vs. a single drug?

A

1) It provides maximum tumor cell kill that is tolerated by the host!
2) It provides a broader range of coverage for pre-existing resistant cell-lines in heterogenous tumors.
3) It prevents the formation of new resistant cell lines that could create heterogenous tumors.

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6
Q

Differentiate primary resistance and acquired resistance. What are examples of cancers that show these characteristics? What mechanisms create these types of resistance?

A

Primary Resistance–this is the absence of a response to a drug or drugs the first time around and occurs in colon cancer and NON-small cell lung cancers.

Acquired Resistance–this is the development of resistance to drugs after exposure. And this occurs in many cancers.

The major difference is that in primary resistance there is basically a natural immunity to the drug. In Acquired resistance there is often either A) amplification of genes or B) overexpression of genes, and these genes encode the proteins that get rid of the drugs, hence the resistance.

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7
Q

What three drugs have been experimentally shown to reverse multi-drug resistance?

A

Calcium Channel Blockers: Vermapil, Quinidine, and Cyclosporin.

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8
Q

Multi-drug resistance can often be caused by the overexpression of transport proteins to get rid of the drug. We talked about two in class:

1) What are they?
2) What kinds of proteins are they? How are they different in terms of energy requirement?
3) What kinds of drugs to they get rid of?

A

1) Multi-Drug Resistance Protein (MRP) and P-Glycoprotein
2) Both are transmembrane transporter proteins with ATPase domains; however, P-Glycoprotein has 2 ATP binding sites whereas MRP only has 1.

—–Only one of P-glycoproteins ATPase’s is needed for drug expulsion, though.

3) MRP gets rid of anthracyclines and vinca alkaloids both of which are anti-cancer meds.

P-Glycoprotein, on the other hand, gets rid of BOTH anti-cancer and anti-microbial drugs.

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9
Q

What are the 3 goals of chemotherapy?

A generalized drug-resistance phenotype in a patient would indicate a mutation in what gene? Why?

A

1) Control of Spread– this is pretty self-explanatory
2) Possible cure–again pretty obvious
3) Palliative Tx–not so obvious, this is when the drug has already metastasized and cure is no longer an option. So goals 1 and 2 are not possible. But this can reduce the symptoms and improve quality of life

MDR1… This is the gene that encodes for P-Glycoprotein. The fact that it is a generalized drug resistance and not just anti-cancer indicates that P-Glycoprotein is the problem, not MRP.

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10
Q

If a patient started chemotherapy and had the following symptoms, what about the effect of the drug on the body would cause these?

A) Fatigue and Dizziness

B) Shaking Chills and a Runny nose

C) Weight loss

D) Hair loss

E) Severe bruising when bumping themself

What do all of these have in common?

A

A) The fatigue and dizziness would most likely be caused by the effect of the drug on bone marrow, in this case it is by a lack of myeloid stem cells resulting in low RBC or anemia.

B) The shaking and runny nose are also a result of the effect on bone marrow–this time on the lymphoid stem cells… Causes Leukopenia

C) Weight loss is caused by lack of growth of G.I. epithileum and decreased ability to absorb nutrients.

D) Hair loss–the regenerative (stem) cells of the hair shaft cannot divide.

E) Again an effect on the bone marrow, this is from thrombocytopenia–lack of platelets and clotting

ALL of these come from tissues in which cells are constantly replaced by rapidly dividing stem cells. Thus, since chemo targets rate, these cells are the most like cancer cells. That is why there is no real effect on muscle cells, for example.

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11
Q

In general, (not just for cancer), what two regions of the CNS do antiemetics act on?

A

1) The vestibular apparatus–prevent motion sickness
2) The Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ)–prevent illness from poisons or drugs.

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12
Q

What two general classes to anti-emetics fall under? Which is the front-line choice?

A

Serotonin-Receptor (5HT3)-antagonists–front line

Dopamine-Receptor (DA2)-antagonists

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13
Q

Assuming that a person is NOT on anti-emetics and they just took a bunch of toxic drugs, describe the entire process of how the brain would cause the person to start barfing.

A

1) The drugs would be taken into the bloodstream from somewhere, i.e. stomach, intestine, etc.
2) The drugs then flow to the brain where they stimulate the Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone. There probably is no blood-brain barrier here if I had to guess.
3) If CTZ is sufficiently stimulated it will fire signals, using BOTH dopamine and serotonin (5HT) as its neurotransmitters, to the vomiting center located in the area postrema on the floor of the fourth ventricle.
4) Since the vomiting response is parasympathetic, if the stimulation at the vomiting center is strong enough it will fire action potentials down the vagus nerve to the stomach and GI causing emesis.

This is the bodies way of getting rid of nasty stuff.

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14
Q

Name 3 Serotonin-antagonist drugs, what receptor do they act on?

A

1) Dolasetron, Granestron, Ondansetron

5HT3

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15
Q

Name 3 anti-dopaminergic drugs, what receptor do these act on?

A

Prochlorperazine, Fluphenazine, Chlorpromazine

DA2

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16
Q

Are the following anti-dopaminergic drugs or anti-serotonergic drugs?

1) Prochlorperazine
2) Fluphenzine
3) Granisetron
4) Ondanestron
5) Chlorpromazine
6) Dolasetron

A

1) Anti-dop
2) Anti-dop
3) anti-ser
4) anti-er
5) anti-dop
6) anti-ser

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17
Q

1) What is meant by “chemotherapy” in antimicrobials?
2) What, specifically, is an antibiotic?

A

1) This is the use use of chemical agents against infectious organisms
2) An antibiotic is a chemical made by a microorganism that is used to kill other microorganisms.

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18
Q

What five (6) pieces of information do you need to select the most appropriate antimicrobial medication?

A

1) The identity of the organism and its sensitivity to the prospective drug.
2) The site of infection on the host.
3) The safety of the drug to the host.
4) Patient Factors i.e. allergy to drug
5) The Cost of the medication

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19
Q

In general, what is empiric therapy and when is it justified?

A

Empiric Therapy is basically when you treat an infection without knowledge of the identity of the causal organism. Normally, this is not ideal because of issues with resistance etc. but it is justified if there is evidence that demonstrates that early intervention will improve the outcome.

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20
Q

There are specific regimens of empiric therapy that Caldwell talked about.

What are they? What drugs are used in each? What do they have in common?

A

1) Single Broad Spectrum Therapy–imipenem/cilastatin
2) Combination Broad Spectrum Therapy–gentamicin and clindamycin

Both of these regimens are broad spectrum. Thus, they both treat gram negative, gram positve, and anaerobic bacteria.

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21
Q

There is a slide that says “Characteristics of Selective Toxicity”. Really, these are all independent of each other. So, what are three general but separate requirements for selective toxicity?

Which would also apply to selective toxicity in cancer?

A

EITHER

1) The target is unique to the pathogen, it is not present in the host at all.

OR

2) The target is structurally different from the host version.

OR

3) The target is more important for the pathogen than it is for the host.

—This would apply to cancer since cancerous cells tend to divide faster than normal cells. 1-2 would not because cancerous cells are still human cells.

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22
Q

A 22 year old medical student is sitting at a desk studying pharmacology and begins to experience tachycardia with respirations 20-25/min. At the ER the physician believes he is having an anxiety attack because he got “gooed” while studying. How is it possible for one to get “gooed” while studying?

A

NGU’D

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23
Q

Describe how cephalosporins and penicillins exhibit selective toxicity.

Aside from bacteria that are resistant these drugs, which bacteria in a population inoculated with these drugs would not be affected?

A

Cephalosporins and penicillins exhibit selective toxicity because they target the synthesis of cell walls. Since humans do not have cell walls, these have not effect on us.

The bacteria that are not dividing will not be killed. This is because the process of cell wall synthesis only occurs during replication.

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24
Q

Sulfamethoxazole is a combination of what two drugs?

Describe how this drug (drugs?) exhibits selective toxicity.

What does each component of the drug do?

A

Sulfamethoxazole is a combo of trimethoprim and a sulfonamide.

This drug exhibits selective toxicity because it targets a process that only occurs in bacteria–the synthesis of folate. Moreover, bacteria cannot take up folate like we can so this is lethal to them.

Folate Synthesis: TWO STEPS

A) the sulfonamide component inhibits the first reaction by mimicking the structure of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA). This is the rxn of PABA–>TH2

B) Trimethoprim inhibits the second reaction of bacterial dihydrofoloate reductase TH2–TH4

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25
Q

Name 5 general ways to target microbes

A

1) Inhibit cell wall synthesis
2) Inhibit DNA replication
3) Inhibit protein synthesis
4) Inhibit an enzyme specific to the microbe4
5) Disrupt the membrane

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26
Q

Differentiate MIC and MBC.

A

MIC is the minimal inhibitory concentration. That is the minimal plasma concentration of the drug required to INHIBIT bacterial growth.

MBC is the minimal bactericidal concentration. Thats is the minimal plasma concentration of the drug required to KILL bacteria.

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27
Q

What sets the size limitations for drug action on intracellular receptors in gram negative bacteria?

What kind of mutation could occur so that a drug that previously entered the cell no longer does?

A

The size of the porins. Only small molecules are allowed in, large drugs are not.

If a mutation happens in the gene encoding for a particular porin that a drug uses, then that could confer resistance to the bacterium.

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28
Q

What are four general ways that a drug may fail to reach its receptor?

A

1) There could be efflux pumps for the drug
2) Active transport of the drug into the cell could be blocked. Many drugs are actively taken up into bacterial cells, if this is blocked the bacteria are resistant.
3) The drug may be metabolized by the body too greatly.
4) The drug may not be able to get into the cell due to size limitations, i.e. gram negative bacteria and porins.

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29
Q

What process does gentamicin act on? How does it reach its target?

Name 2 ways that the process of reaching its target could be interfered with and why.

A

Gentamicin acts on ribosomes so it halts protein synthesis. It reaches its target by being actively transported the cell via an electrochemical gradient.

1) If there is a mutation in the transporter, then it will not get in.
2) Under anaerobic conditions. This is because the active transporter uses the electrochemical gradient generated by oxidative phosphorylation. Recall bacterial Ox-Phos occurs on the membrane since they lack mitochondria, so it is easily coupled to the transporter.

So, if there is no oxygen to do Ox-Phos, there will be no gradient. If this was a regular ATPase, it wouldn’t matter since ATP is still being generated from fermentation.

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30
Q

Name 5 drug classes that are actively transported OUT of bacterial cells by efflux pumps.

What do each of these drugs do (general)?

A

1) Fluoroquinolones–inhibit DNA gyrase, stop replication.
2) Macrolides– 50S ribosome, protein synthesis
3) Beta lactams–knock out PBP, inhibit cell wall synthesis in REPLICATING CELLS
4) Tetracylcines– 30S ribosome, protein synthesis
5) Chloramphenicol–50S ribosome, protein synthesis

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31
Q

Describe a specific situation in which the failure to activate a prodrug leads to bacterial resistance.

What other drugs are always combined with this drug?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis metabolizes the drug isoniazid into an active form. A mutation in the enzyme that converts the prodrug to active will lead to resistance against isoniazid.

But… Isoniazid is always given with

Ethambutol

Rifampin

Pyrazinamide

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32
Q

Which antibiotics promote resistance? Of these, which are the worst offenders? Why?

What is the usual reason that bacteria will get resistance to aminoglycosides and penicillin?

A

ALL antibiotics promote resistance, every antibiotic that has ever been made has at least one documented case of resistance, even if just in vitro.

The worst are the broad-spectrum antibiotics because they are capable of killing off competing microbes.

A major reason for resistance to aminoglycosides and penicillins is the production of enzymes that destroy them.

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33
Q

How is superinfection defined?

Why does superinfection occur? What antibiotics are usually the cause of superinfection?

A

1) Superinfection is defined as the development of a secondary infection during treatment of the primary infection.
2) It is usually caused by administering broad spectrum antibiotics because they knock out the inhibitory effects of normal flora which leads to an infection with unusual bacteria.

For those of you ecology aficionados, this would be a good example of the competitive exclusion principle since the infectious organisms normally cannot compete for resources with our normal flora, but when normal flora are knocked out they can move in.

Or you can use Caldwell’s morbid example of a gazelle carcass in Africaand something about a rifle and shotgun.

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34
Q

In the first part of antimicrobial lecture, Caldwell said to name 5 items you need when selecting an antibiotic.

In the second lecture he asks for 3 principle ones which happen to be 3/5 from the last lecture.

So, I guess, what are the 5 things you need when selecting an antimicrobial and which 3 are most important?

A

1) The identity of the microbe and sensitivity to the drug you want to use.
2) The site of infection
3) The cost of the medication
4) The safety of the drug to the patient
5) Host factors like allergies etc.

Most important: Identity of microbe, sensitivity, and patient factors.

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35
Q

When are three general times that you would choose to use a second-line (alternative) antibiotic rather than the main one for any given infection.

Name 2 specific examples of contraindications for antibiotics in neonates and the deleterious effect of the drug when given.

A

1) If the patient is allergic this is an obvious no-no
2) If the site of infection cannot be reached… Best I can think of would be like meningitis and not being able to get through the BBB.
3) The patient is unusually susceptible to toxicity i.e. maybe in liver failure and low plasma proteins, or an ultrafast metabolizer.

A) Sulfonamides in newborns bind to plasma proteins and displace bilirubin from the plasma proteins. This causes the neurological disease– kernicterus

B) Tetracyclines in newborns can cause staining of the developing teeth.

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36
Q

What are 5 pretty solid reasons to use antibiotic combinations?

A

1) Initial treatment of EITHER a severe infection or a neutropenic host (or a severe infection in a neutropenic host, I guess).
2) Prevention of resistance–TB–isoniazid, ethambutol, rifampin, pyrazinamide
3) Preventing toxicity of one of the drugs
4) Used when drugs potentiate each other
5) Mixed infections–i.e. your intestines rip open and a bunch of stuff spills into the peritoneum.

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37
Q

Give an example of a situation in which it would be beneficial to treat with a drug cocktail in order to reduce the toxicity of one of the drugs. What is the toxic effect?

A

When treating fungal meningitis with amphotericin B, you run the risk of causing damage to the kidneys.

But if you combine amphotericin B and Flucytosine, the toxicity is reduced!

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38
Q

Compare and contrast combination therapy of pencillins with tetracyclines to penicillins with aminoglycosides. WHY are they different? What do each of these drugs do on their own?

A

Penicillins –bind to penicillin binding proteins (transpeptidases) and inhbit cell wall synthesis in replicating cells.

Tetra’s–bind 30S, Aminoglyco’s–bind 50S

IF you give penicillins and aminoglycosides THEN there will be a potentiation effect. This occurs because aminoglyco’s are taken up into the cell actively. So, compromising the cell wall (penicillin) provides more holes for them to enter, potentiating the effect of the aminoglycos’.

IF you give penicillins and tetracylines THEN there will be an antagonistic effect ON THE PENICILLINS! This is because the tetracylines will just go right in and knock out protein synthesis. This means the cell will NOT divide b/c it lacks the machinery to do so. Since penicillins act on dividing cells only, they are antagonized here.

39
Q

What would it mean if you gave drug A and drug B together and the MIC of drug A increased?

A

That drug B is antagonizing the effect of drug A by some mechanism. Since MIC is minimal inhibitory concentration, if with the addition of drug B, this # increases that must mean that more of drug A is needed to do the job.

40
Q

If two drugs, A and B were given together and B had 8x more bactericidal activity with A than alone, what would have happened to the MBC of B?

A

If B is 8x more active with A than alone, that means that A has potentiated the effects of B and that it can do the job at an MBC that is 1/8 that of the MBC of B alone.

41
Q

What are the 3 possible interactions that antibiotics may have on each other when combined?

A

1) They may potentiate each other (or one potentiates the other) this means that the effect of both acting together is greater than the sum of the two acting alone.
2) They may be additive–that is that the effect of both together is equal to the sum of both alone. So if you want this effect, just double the dose of one of them instead of prescribing two drugs like an idiot.
3) Antagonistic–This is when they antagonize each other or one antagonizes the other such that the combined effect is less than that of each alone (not simply the sum).

42
Q

Describe 3 general models of antibiotic synergism

A

1) When multiple drugs are used together to block sequential steps in a pathway
2) When two or more drugs are used together in order to prevent drug inactivation of one or more of the drugs.
3) When two or more drugs are used together to increase antibiotic uptake into the bacteria.

43
Q

Give a specific example for the following general models of antibiotic synergism

1) Multiple drugs blocking sequential steps
2) Multiple drugs being used to prevent drug inactivation of one or more of the drugs
3) Multiple drugs being used to enhance the uptake of one or more of the drugs

A

1) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxizole–this is a combination antibiotic that blocks sequential steps in the bacterial synthesis of folate.

The sulfonilamide component blocks PABA–> TH2 by mimicking PABA, the trimethoprim component blocks TH2–>TH4 by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase.

2) This is like using a beta lactam and a beta-lactamase inhibitor this way the beta lactam can just go to town w/o being degraded.
3) This is when penicillin is used in combination with aminoglycosides (NOT TETRACYCLINES), so that the breakdown of the cell wall can increase uptake of the aminoglycoside.

44
Q

Give an example of antagonism from antibiotic combination therapy:

A

Using penicillins and tetracylines.

The tetracycline gets into the cell, knocks out protein synth, now the cell won’t have the necessary means to divide, penicillins only act on dividing cells since that is the only time they make cell walls. Now the penicillin doesn’t work at all. Boom. Antagonism.

45
Q

List the four types of ion channels that are present in cells of the CNS.

A

1) Voltage-Gated Ion channels
2) Ligand-Gated Ion channels (where ligand = neurotransmitter)
3) Membrane Delimited Metabotropic Ion Channel
4) Diffusible Second Messenger Metabotropic Ion Channel

46
Q

Which of the four types of ion channels in the CNS is the least like the others and why?

A

Voltage-Gated Ion channels are the least like the others. They do not open in response a neurotransmitters action like the others do. They open due to changes in voltage.

If you want to get technical, I guess you technically do need neurotransmitters to open these since they start the initial depolarization which, if sufficient, would open a voltage-gated channel but it’s kind of a stretch

47
Q

Differentiate the membrane delimited metabotropic ion channel and the diffusible second messenger metabotropic ion channel. What do they both have in common?

A

Both of these ion channels are associated with a G-Protein mediated mechanism.

But…

The membrane delimited version is opened by the diffusible G-Protein subunit itself (the one that dissociates away from the trimer).

The diffusible second messenger system is one in which the diffusible G-protein subunit does not open the ion channel, rather it stimulates an enzyme to produce a second messenger and that is what will stimulate the channel.

48
Q

Where do you find the most amounts of GABA? Why here?

What kind of receptor is the GABAA receptor?

What is the effect of an agonist on this receptor?

A

In short interneurons. Because interneurons basically bounce information around, since GABA is inhibitory it can modulate the effects of excitatory neurotransmitters to an appropriate level.

A ligand-gated ion channel, allows Chloride in.

Though an agonist does stimulate the function of the receptor, it would have inhibitory effects physiologically.

49
Q

What are 3 examples of GABAA agonists? What are they used for?

When do you give a person Flumazenil? What does it do?

A

1) Barbiturates–these are basically sedatives
2) Zolpidem (Z-hypnotics)–also sedatives, sleep aids.
3) Benzodiazepines– anxiolytics

Caldwell said this could be on boards: Flumazenil is given to people who overdose on benzo’s.

It specifically antagonizes the GABAA receptor at the binding site for benzo’s.

50
Q

Why is it wrong to classify a neurotransmitter as excitatory or inhibitory?

A

Because a neurotransmitter is just the messenger frpm one cell to another. Many bind to multiple receptors that have similar enough binding sites for it.

However, it is the receptor that dictates the response of the cell, which may be excitatory or inhibitory.

51
Q

Usually, glutamate is thought of as being an excitatory neurotransmitter. Why might the use of ketamine as an antidepressant refute that?

A

Because ketamine is a glutamate receptor antagonist. However, it is being used as an antidepressant, apparently that would mean that in that particular circuit, glutamate has an inhibitory effect.

That’s because it’s the receptor, not the neurotransmitter.

52
Q

What are two basic functions that glial cells have at synapses?

Which area of the brain has a very large density of cell bodies (nuclei) and sends projections (tracts) to different parts of the brain to communicate?

Deficiency of what amino acid would result in a depletion of catecholamines?

A

1) They surround the synapse and kind of keep everthing together. That way the neurotransmitters just stay in the synapse and don’t float off somewhere.
2) They take up metabolites of the neurotransmitters that were degraded in the synapse. This is NOT the same as reuptake which is done by the pre-synaptic cell.

Tyrosine (it’s the starter)

53
Q

Compare and contrast the structure of the norepinephrine tract system to that of the serotonin tract system, in a general sense.

A

Both have nuclei (clusters of cell bodies) in the midbrain and pons-ish area.

For norepinephrine, the main nucleus is the locus ceoruleus.

For serotonin (5HT), the main nucleus is the raphe magnus.

Both then send out tracts of neurons throughout other parts of the brian, Norepi more extensively so than 5HT.

54
Q

List the sequence of steps involved in the production of catecholamines.

Why isn’t epinephrine made in the brain? Where is it made?

A

Synthesis of catecholamines follows a stepwise pathway:

Tyrosine–>L-DOPA–>Dopamine–>Norepinephrine–>epinephrine.

Because whatever enzyme that converts norepi to epi is not expressed in the brain. It is expressed in the adrenal medulla which is where epinephrine is made.

55
Q

Why does a person on cocaine:

A) Feel like the man

B) Have high cardiac output

How does chronic use of cocaine affect the bodies ability to manufacture certain catecholamines, why?

A

A) People feel like high because coke is blocking dopamine reuptake which means there is more in the synapse to stimulate the next cell (this prob is referring, specifically tot he mesolimbic pathway, don’t quote me).

B) Cocaine also blocks norepinephrine reuptake. Since sympathetic innervation to the heart uses norepi, that means more will stimulate nodal tissue (HR) and myocardial cells (stroke volume)– CO = HR x SV

By continuously stimulating post-synaptic dopaminergic cells, the pre-synaptic cell responds by producing less dopamine. Now to get as high as you did the first time you need more cocaine.

56
Q

What are the 3 most important dopamine pathways?

Which nuclei are communicating with each other in each?

A

1) Nigrostriatal: nuclei from the substantia nigra are communicating with the corpus striatum.
2) Mesolimbic: nuclei from the ventral tegmental area and substantia nigra are communicating with the nucleus accumbens.
3) Tuberoinfundibular–nuclei from the infundibulum (part of hypothalamus) are communicating with:

A) Neurons of the posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis)

B) Glandular tissue of the ant. pit.

57
Q

The medical student who was “gooed” while studying did not recieve proper holistic care at the ED. Unfortunately, he was not referred to psychiatric counseling and has subsequently developed post-traumatic stress disorder and psychosis. He is being treated with haloperidol for the psychosis but had to drop out of medical school and is flat broke because he couldn’t pay back his loans. He recently showed up to the ED again and was described by a staff member as follows:

“He is a poor man… He has developed… Milk dripping… From. His. Nipples.”

What’s going on?!?!

A

Haloperidol is a DA2 antagonist. It is given to patients with psychosis because their mesolimbic pathway is in overdrive.

However, DA2 receptors are not limited to the mesolimbic system. They are also in the nigrostriatal pathway and the tuberoinfundibular system.

In the tuberoinfundibular system dopamine is a.k.a “Prolactin Inhibiting Factor”. So, since the dopamine receptors are being knocked out, prolactin is being released and causing growth of the mammary glands.

58
Q

What combination-like therapy does sinemet accomplish? What antimicrobial therapy is this most analagous to?

A

Sinemet–given to parkinson’s patients, a pathology of the nigrostriatal system which uses dopamine as its neurotransmitter.

Sinemet is a combo of 2 drugs:

1) L-DOPA, the direct precursor of dopamine
2) A DOPA-Decarboxylase inibitor, Carbidopa, which prevents L-DOPA from being degraded.

This is kind of like giving a beta-lactam with a beta-lactam inhibitor.

59
Q

What is the main nucleus of the 5HT system? Where do its projections go?

Would a person on SSRI’s have a more or less intense experience with LSD than a normal person? Why?

A

The raphe magnus–sends projections to the hypothalamus and cortex.

LSD is a 5HT1A agonist. Since these receptors are located in the hypothalamus and the cortex, this explains why people get so goofy when they take it.

SSRI’s block serotonin reuptake. Meaning there will be more serotonin in the synapse along with the LSD which is a serotonin receptor agonist.

THEY WOULD TRIP BALLS

60
Q

What effect do amphetamines and methamphetamines have on the mesolimbic pathway?

A

These drugs stimulate the release of dopamine, meaning it would increase activity of the mesolimbic pathway. I can only assume crystal meth is contraindicated in a psychotic patient.

61
Q

Which five nerves of the parasympathetic nervous system are cholinergic nerves?

A deficiency of what amino acid would lead to problems with cholinergic transmission?

A

Cranial Nerves: III, VII, IX, and X as well as Pelvic Splanchnics–these are the parasympathetic nerves

Serine–it is the starter for de novo synthesis of Ach

62
Q

What are the two general ways that Acetylcholine can be made?

T/F: Choline and Acetate are taken back up by the Ach transporter of the presynaptic neuron and re-synthesized.

A

There is de novo synthesis which is making it from scratch using serine. Basically, it adds Acetyl-CoA to serine.

There is also the salvage pathway, this is the main pathway. Made after choline reuptake, choline and Acetyl-Coa make acetylcholine.

False: the choline is taken back up, the acetate diffuses away (prob to a glial cell). In the presynaptic neuron, Acetyl-Coa from the mitochondria enters the cytosol and Choline Acetyltransferase makes acetylcholine from them.

63
Q

Why can’t acetylcholine cross the BBB as acetylcholine? In what form can it cross the BBB?

What are two rate-limiting steps in the synthesis of acetylcholine (from the salvage pathway)?

A

It is a quaternary amine and so has a positive formal charge, therefore it cannot cross the BBB.

1) Reuptake of choline
2) Synthesis of acetylcholine, based on metabolism.

64
Q

Because of Ach’s charge, it is not easily stored in vesicles:

1) How does it get in?
2) How does it stay in without forming an unstable vesicle?

A

1) The vesicle contains a Proton ATPase that pulls in protons which creates a concentration gradient, then a Acetylcholine/Proton Antiport uses the energy stored in the gradient to transport Ach inside secondarily actively.
2) The vesicle is loaded with ATP and Heparin which are negatively charged.

65
Q

Describe the use of SNARE proteins in the release of Ach.

THIS INFO COMES FROM SLIDE 7 OF NGU’S CHOLINERGIC LECTURE–I am summarizing most of it here.

A

1) Basically there are two proteins on the vesicle and two proteins on the membrane of the axon terminal.

On the vesicle are synaptobrevin and synaptotagmin. On the membrane there are Syntaxin and SNAP-25. Syntaxin is bound up by n-sec-1

2) When stimulated to release, n-sec-1 dissociates. Now SNAP-25 Syntaxin form a complex.
3) Synaptobrevin (on the vesicle) binds to the SNAP-25/Syntaxin complex (membrane) forming an alpha helix that primes the vesicle by tethering it to the membrane
4) Opening of the voltage gated Ca channels stimulates synaptotagmin (on vesicle) to bind and release the Ach via exocytosis.

66
Q

What are two places you will find true acetylcholinesterases?

Why might it be important to know if a person has high levels of pseudocholinesterases prior to surgery? Where in the body are pseudocholinesterases found?

A

1) In the synapse of cholinergic systems
2) In RBC’s (whatever, just go with it).

Because pseudocholinesterases are plasma proteins that degrade acetylcholine and succinylcholine. Succinylcholine is given to ppl prior to surgery to paralyze them. It would be good to know if the pseudo’s are hyperactive so you could give more succinylcholine.

67
Q

What is the MAIN difference in the structure of nicotinic and muscarinic Acetylcholine receptors?

Which muscarinic receptors are excitatory and inhibitory? What post-receptor mechanism is responsible for this?

A

Nicotinics are all ligand-gated ion channels

Muscarinics are all metabotropic (associated with G-Proteins)

Excitatory Muscarinics: M1, M3, M5– these are associated with Gq. The subunit of the G-Protein that falls off activates phospholipase C to cleave PIP3 into DAG and IP3, the IP3 opens up intracellular Calcium channels (from rER).

Inhibitory Muscarinics: M2, M4–these are associated with Gi, the subunit that falls off decreases adenylyl cyclase activity so less cAMP is made, also they activate PKC which opens up potassium channels that hyperpolarize the membrane.

68
Q

Where will you find NN and NM receptors?

A

These are both nicotinic receptors

NN are at autonomic ganglia, adrenal medulla, and CNS

NM are at the neuromuscular junction

69
Q

For the following pathologies, what neurotransmitter deficiency or excess is causal?

1) Psychosis
2) Parkinson’s
3) Peptic Ulcers
4) Milk dripping from the nipples (!)
5) Dementia
6) Hyperhidrosis
7) Xerostomia
8) Paralytic Ileus and Ogilvie syndrome

A

1) Psychosis is an excess of dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway
2) Parkinson’s is a loss of dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway
3) Peptic Ulcers are caused by excess Ach which leads to excess histamine from enterochromaffin cells which stimulate exess HCl from chief cells = ulcer
4) Lactation, lack of dopamine in the tuberoinfundibular pathway
5) Lack of Ach in CNS
6) Excess Ach at sweat glands
7) Lack of Ach to parotids
8) Lack of Ach in enteric nervous system

70
Q

What are the two regions with the greatest cholinergic projections in the CNS? What occurs if these start to lose activity?

Name 3 drugs used to treat, what class?

A

Entorrhinal Cortex and Hippocampus (memory). Ya get Alzheimer’s/Dementia.

Give acetylcholinesterase inhibitors: rivastigmine, galantamine, and Domepezil

71
Q

What 3 types of drugs could you give a parkinson’s patient and why?

A

1) Mainly give them L-DOPA w/ Carbidopa to promote synthesis of dopamine
2) Can give acetylcholinesterases to break down the excess Ach which causes some of the symptoms
3) Can give anti-muscarinics to block muscarinic receptors for the same reason as 2… Trihexyphenadyl and Benztropine

** Loss of DA shifts the DA:Ach ratio in the nigrostriatal pathway, so that there is a relative excess of Ach, this causes some of the symptoms.

72
Q

Name 3 drugs that cause mydriasis, what do you use these for? What receptor?

Name 2 drugs used to treat Glaucoma? Explain the rationale for using these.

A

Mydriasis = dilation of sphincter pupillae, used for fundic eye exam.

Use Scopalamine, Atropine, Hyoscyamine–these are antimuscarincs acting on M3 (M3 are located on smooth muscle)

Glaucoma– aqueous humor is produced by ciliary muscles. Using muscarinic agonists: physostigmine and pilocarbine basically move the ciliary muscle out of the way to expose the Canal of Schlemm which drains the aqeuous humor.

73
Q

What do you normally treat asthma with?

What cholinergic medications (class and 3 specific) can you use and why?

What class of drug can you give someone with hyperhidrosis, name 3 specifics:

A

Normally treat with Beta-2 agonists.

Can treat with antimuscarinics: atropine, ipratropium, tiotropium

Anti-Muscarinics: glycopyrrolate, benztropine, oxybutynin

74
Q

Dude’s got Sinus Bradycardia. What kind of drug are we gonna give him? Name 3 specific drugs in this class.

What other drug drug do you have to supplement in this case and why?

A

Anti-muscarinics specific for M2 (M2 is inhibitory), so we’re assuming his vagus is going to town on the SA node causing the bradycardia. By blocking this, the only innervation is sympathetic.

Give: quinine, procaineamide, and disopyramide

ALSO have to give something to slow the heart rate (digoxin), this seems weird but if the sympathetics are the only thing acting on the heart, then the person will have tachycardia so you need to regulate with digoxin.

75
Q

For the following disease states, what causes the problem and what class of drug (+1 specific example for each) would you give?

1) Paralytic Ileus
2) Xerostomia
3) Peptic Ulcer
4) Ogilvie Syndrome

A

1) Paralytic Ileus– probably caused by screwing up the enteric nervous system during surgery. Give an anticholinesterase-inhibitor, e.g. Neostigmine
2) Xerostomia– antibodies attack the otic ganglion (CN IX), so no cholinergic supply to parotid. Give a muscarinic agonist, e.g. pilocarpine
3) Peptic Ulcer–excess Ach basically causes excess HCl in a round about way, give muscarinic antagonist, e.g. pirenzapine
4) Ogilivie Syndrome–not enough Ach in enteric nervous system give acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, e.g. neostigmine

76
Q

You accidentally eat Amanita muscaria and start sweating and have difficulty breathing, why?

What would you need to alleviate these problems?

What do organophosphates do? Name 3

A

Because A. muscaria is loaded with muscinol and muscarine which are agonists for muscarinic receptors (big surprise there). The sweating is from excessive stimulation of the receptors at sweat glands like in hyperhidrosis. The respiratory issues are from bronchispasm like in asthma.

Give an anti-muscarinic, e.g. atropine.

Note: do not confuse with Amanita phalloides, that’s the one from biochem that knocks out RNA pol II, in case it’s a distractor on the exam.

Organophosphates inhibit acetylcholinesterase causing muscle spasms. Sarin, Malathion, Parathion.

77
Q

What term describes the arcing of the back when you have tetanus poisoning?

How does tetanus poisoning work?

A

Opisthotonus

Tetanus toxin hydrolyzes synaptobrevin (SNARE on vesicle) so that it cannot bind the syntaxin/SNAP-25 complex on the membrane. No release of Ach OR GABA. Lack of GABA release disallows muscle relaxation.

Tx: Okay Ngu was pretty unclear on this one but asking him after class he said:

You would give a cholinergic drug, this is because after fixing the problem with GABA (benzodiazepine??) you would need to reinstate Ach stimulation to the muscle or you would get flaccid paralysis.

So give something to fix the GABA problem to relax the muscle, and give a cholinergic to restimulate it so that you dont just make a spastic paralysis into a flaccid one. Hope that cleared stuff up.

78
Q

According to Ngu’s lecture how do you treat motion sickness?

According to Caldwell’s how do you do it? (6)

A

Scopalamine, knocks down signalling to area postrema

Caldwell:

Antiserotonergics: ondanesetron, granasetron, dolasetron

Antidopaminergics: prolchlorperazine, chlorpenazine, and fluphenazine

79
Q

What is the problem in Lambert Eaton? What is the problem in Myasthenia gravis?

What are the two experimental Ach synthesis blockers?

What are 2 natural toxin that inhibit release of Ach?

A

LE–antibodies against presynaptic Ca channels, difficult to stimulate enough to get exocytosis of Ach.

MG–antibodies against nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

Experimental: Hemicolinium-3 (block choline reuptake) and Vesamicol (block uptake into vesicles)

Natural: tetanus toxin (also affects GABA, so spastic)

Botulinum toxin (only affects Ach so flaccid)

80
Q

OMG THIS MEMORIZATION IS SO AWESOME

Name 8 inhibitors of Acetylcholine degration (Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors)

What cardiac issues can these cause + why?

Which can be used to wake someone up from surgery (the paralysis anyway)?

Which is tensilon in the tensilon test for Lamber-Eaton

A

Edrophonium, neostigmine, donepezil, rivastigmine, physostigmine, pyridostigmine, ambenonium, galantamine.

They can cause sinus bradycardia, because there is excess Ach on the nodal tissue.

Physostigmine can reverse anti-cholinergic effects

Edrophonium is tensilon

81
Q

Which acetylcholinesterases are specifically for the CNS (3)? What are they used for?

Name 5 muscarinic agonists, what are they used for?

A

Rivastigmine, Galantamine, and Donepezil

used for Alzheimers

Methacholine–used to test for asthma

Carbachol–used to Tx glaucoma

Bethanechol–used to Tx urinary incontinence

Cevimeline and Pilocarpine–used to Tx xerostomia

82
Q

What kind of drug is succinylcholine? In whom is it contraindicated?

What kind of drug is atropine?In whom is it contraindicated?

A

A nicotinic receptor agonist used to paralyze people in surgery. Contraindicated in upper motor neuron injury patients.

A muscarinic antagonist used in sinus bradycardia, organophosphate and muscarine poisoning. It is contraindicated in people with glaucoma.

83
Q

What do you use scopalamine for? What kind of drug is it?

What do you use pirenzapine, methscopalamine, and glycopyrrolate for? What kind of drugs are these?

A

Scopalamine mostly used to Tx motion sickness. It is a muscarinic antagonist

Pirenzepine, methscopalamine, and glycopyrrolate are used for peptic ulcers, and sinus bradycardia, these too are muscarinic antagonists.

84
Q

What do you use Ipratropium and tiotropium for? What kind of drugs?

What do you use oxybutynin, propanetheline, and terodiline for? What kind of drugs?

A

Asthma and COPD, muscarinic antagonists

Hyperreflexive and overactive bladder–muscarinic antagonists

85
Q

What are the long and intermediate lasting nicotinic receptor antagonists?

A

Long lasting–tubocurarine and pancuronium

Intermediate lasting–vecuronium and rocuronium

Apparently mivacurium is neither long or intermediate

86
Q

Where is newly synthesized dopamine stored? Name a drug for which this is the target.

What enzyme converts dopamine into norepinephrine?

In what cells will you find phenylethanolamine N-methyltransferase, why?

A

VMAT–vesicular monoamine transporter, reserpine

Dopamin Beta hydroxylase

In chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla since this is the enzyme that converts norepinephrine to epinephrine and this only occurs in the chromaffin cells.

87
Q

What do you expect to find in the urine of a person with pheochromocytoma? Why?

What are two ways in which catecholamines can be metabolized?

A

Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), this is a byproduct of catecholamine metabolism. Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal gland so a ton of epi and norepi are produced resulting in excess of this byproduct.

1) By the two isoforms of Monoamine Oxidase

MAO-A: Degrades norepi, dopamine, and 5HT (not a catecholamine) MAO-B preferentially metabolizes dopamine.

2) By COMT in the brain and liver

Catechol-O-methyltransferase

88
Q

Where are MAO’s located (in the cell)?

Where are COMT’s located in the cell?

Name three MAO-I’s

A

Outer membrane of mitochondrion

Cytoplasm

Phenelzine, Isocarboxazid, Selegiline

89
Q

Compare the alpha1 post-receptor mechanism to the alpha2 post-receptor mechanism.

A

The alpha1 post-receptor mechanism is tied the the Gq G protein subunit. This causes increased activity of phospholipase C whicleads to higher IP3, DAG, and Ca

The alpha2 post-receptor mechanism is tied to the Gi G-protein subunit so it downregulates activity of adenylate cyclase so that there is less cAMP production. It also opens a K channel to hyperpolarize the membrane.

This means that cAMP levels will decrease to the presence of phosphodiesterase (as opposed to remaining static)

90
Q

What is the post-receptor mechanism of beta adrenergic receptors?

Where are beta1, beta2, and beta3? What effect does stimulation have on their organs?

Why are beta-blockers useful in treating angina pectoris?

A

Beta receptors are tied to Gs (for review alpha1’s are Gq and alpha2’s are Gi)

Gs stimulates production of cAMP so these are stimulatory.

Beta1–on the heart, increase HR and contractility

Beta2–on bronchiolar smooth muscle, relaxation

Beta3–on fat and stimulates lipolysis

By blocking beta1 on the heart, it decreases rate and strength of contraction, since cAMP is not being made, phosphodiesterase will decrease its levels in the cytoplasm.

91
Q

What is the differnce in post-receptor mechanism of D1 and D2 receptors?

What is fenoldopam used for?

A

D1 are associated with the Gs subunit and so result in an increase in cAMP, this relaxes vascular smooth muscles.

D2 are located in the brain and are associated with the Gi subunit so decrease cAMP. These are common targets for anti-psychotics

Fenoldopam is a partial agonist at D1 and can be used to treat a hypertensive crisis

92
Q

What nerve supplies the adrenal glands with parasympathetic innervation?

What is the main way of terminating cholinergic transmission? Adrengergic transmission?

How does the tractus nucleus solitarius decrease orthostatic hypertension?

A

The adrenal glands do not recieve parasympathetic innervation.

Cholinergic–degrade Ach// Adrenergic–reuptake NE

When blood pressure is low it is detected by baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid bodies, these fire to the tractus nucleus solitarius and cause increased sympathetic firing to contract blood vessels.

93
Q

What is the effect of epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine, and isoproteronol on total peripheral vascular resistance?

A

Epinephrine decreases TPR, Norepi increases TPR, dopamine decreases TPR, and isoproteronol decreases TPR.

94
Q
A