EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

Patient with stable angina with all possible therapy again have attacks, chest pain has become more frequent and more severe, what are you going to do?

A. Heparin

D. Digoxin? may increase myocardial oxygen consumption and exacerbate the situation.

C. Thrombolytic therapy? for documented myocardial infarction

A

Heparin

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2
Q

Problem with breathing and weakness but no chest pain.

ECG shows nonspecific ST-T changes. It is painless myocardial infarction

A

Myocardial Infarction(The classic presentation of acute myocardial infarction (MI) involves heavy or crushing sub-sternal chest pain or pressure.)

However, 15 to 20% of infarctions may be painless, with the greatest incidence in diabetics and the elderly. Dyspnea or weakness may initially predominate in these patients)

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3
Q

Dressler syndrome post myocardial infarction syn

Recognize it and therapy

A

A. Autoimmune pleuritis, or pericarditis characterized by fever and pleuritic chest pain, with onset days to 6 weeks post cardiac injury, as after a cardiac operation, cardiac trauma, or MI.

B. Therefore the most effective therapy is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug or occasionally a glucocorticoid.Pneumonia would be with dyspnea.

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4
Q

After myocardial infarction develop CHF which

medication you will give

A

ACE I angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor . This has been shown to prevent or retard the development of heart failure in patients with left ventricular dysfunction and to reduce long-term mortality when begun shortly
after an MI. This relates to inhibition of the renin-angiotensin system and to reduction overload

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5
Q

Patient with hypertension presents with new onset of mild hemiparesis without the complicating factors

A

A. The Antihypertensive
Aspirin alone might be sufficient for such a patient

B. In patients with atrial fibrillation
risk of stroke approaches 30%, therapeutic anticoagulation with warfarin (Coumadin) reduces the incidence of future stroke

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6
Q
Myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) symptoms
 and therapy
A

The Initial therapy for acute coronary syndrome includes aspirin, nitro-glycerine, anticoagulation, and morphine. A cardio selective beta-blocker, such as metoprolol, is frequently given in the immediate management of ACS to decrease myocardial oxygen demand, limit infarct size, reduce pain, and decrease the risk of ventricular arrhythmias

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7
Q

Crescendo-decrescendo murmur at the upper right sternal border, would you perform stress test (Aortic stenosis)

A

Cardiac auscultation suggests aortic stenosis, a contraindication to stress testing

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8
Q

Low-pitched diastolic rumbling murmur

is faintly heard toward the apex Dg

A

The etiology of mitral stenosis is usually rheumatic, rarely congenital

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9
Q

Ventricular septal defect auscultation finding?

A

A holosystolic murmur at the mid-left sternal border is the murmur most characteristic of a ventricular septal defect

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10
Q
hypertensive encephalopathy (emergency)and
 asthma th
A

Nitroprusside is indicated (vasodilatation)

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11
Q

**Recognize rheumatic fever .. Dx.

A

An antistreptolysin O antibody is necessary to diagnose the disease by documenting prior streptococcal infection.
Most experts recommend the use of glucocorticoids when carditis is part of the picture of rheumatic fever. Penicillin should also be given to eradicate group A β-hemolytic streptococci

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12
Q

18 year a syncope episode on sport training Echocardiogram will reveal symmetric or asymmetric hypertrophy of the ventricle, with the septum most commonly involved. If the patient’s ECG and echocardiogram are normal, consideration could be given to pursuing an electrophysiological study.
When to return him to sport

A

Until the results of the ECG and echocardiogram are available, the patient may not return to sports.

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13
Q

***1h chest pain, acute ST segment elevation blood pressure is 80/40 mm Hg, HR 40 therapy?
caused by increased vagal tone and not by destruction of the SA node. When associated with hypotension, therapy ?

A

A. th ?…atropine; ventricular tachycardia in the context of cardiac ischemia warrants the use of amiodarone;
In idioventricular rhythm the rate is 30-45 bpm. The QRS complexes are wide (> 0.12 sec, often > 0.16 sec) because the ventricular signal is transmitted by cell-to-cell conduction between cardiomyocytes and not by the conduction system.
B. Accelerated idioventricuar rhythm is a rapid form (60-120 bpm) of idioventricular rhythm associated with reperfusion during myocardial infarction. This is a benign rhythm and rarely degenerates into ventricular tachycardia or other serious arrhythmia; so observation is the appropriate choice.

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14
Q

*Recognize (PAD). …Therapy ?

A

Initial intervention should focus on lifestyle modification, most notably smoking cessation. Claudication can be improved by a graduated exercise regimen. Cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase inhibitor ( inhibition in platelet aggregation), improves exercise tolerance

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15
Q

*screening examination for

overweight, hypertensive, 70 year old

A

The US Preventive Services Task Force recommends that all males between the ages of 65 and 75 with any history of smoking undergo one-time screening for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).

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16
Q

*Abdominal aortic aneurysms occur in 1% to 2% of men older than 50 years and to a lesser extent in women. Consequences?

A

Smoking and hypertension are major risk factors for the development of an AAA. Abdominal aneurysms are commonly asymptomatic, and acute rupture may occur without warning. Some will expand and become painful, with pain as a harbinger of rupture. The risk of rupture increases with the
size of the aneurysm. Serial follow-up with ultrasound, CT, or MRI is indicated, with the major determinant for surgery being aneurysmal size greater than 5 to 6 cm

17
Q

*Cor pulmonale recognize symptoms and ECG

A

A. Right sided heart failure and pulmonary heart disease is enlargement of the right ventricle of the heart as a response to increased resistance or high blood pressure in the lungs (pulmonary hypertension)

B. ECG The electrocardiographic findings include tall peaked P waves in leads II, III, and aVF (indicating right atrial enlargement), tall R waves in leads V1 to V3 and a deep S wave in V6 with associated ST-T wave changes (indicating right ventricular hypertrophy) and right axis deviation

18
Q
Although peripartum (or postpartum) cardiomyopathy may occur during the last trimester of pregnancy or within 6 months of delivery, it most commonly develops in the month before or after delivery. The most common demographics are multiparity, African American race, and age greater than 30. 
What is the recovery?
A

About half of patients will recover completely, with most of the rest improving, although the mortality rate is 10% to 20%. These women should avoid future pregnancies due to the risk of recurrence. Treatment is as for other dilated cardiomyopathies, except that ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy. Diagnosis can typically be made without invasive testing.

19
Q

*Aortic dissection, recognise and treat

A

With signs of Aortic insufficiency in proximal dissection, Hypotension may be present in severe cases. Distal dissection can lead to obstruction of other major arteries with neurological symptoms (carotids), bowel ischemia, or renal compromise. In aortic dissection, the first line of defense is emergent therapy with parenteral beta-blockers. After beta-blockade is established,
nitroprusside is commonly used to titrate systolic blood pressure to less than 120. The diagnosis is established with transesophageal echo, MR, or CT angiography.

20
Q

pulmonary edema treatment

A

Lower resistance to flow through the LV outflow tract will increase the proportion of stroke volume that enters systemic circulation.
Vasodilators such as ACE inhibitors (Enalapril)

21
Q

The classic triad of symptoms in aortic stenosis are exertional dyspnea, angina pectoris, and syncope
What else can you expect?

A

A harsh systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur heard best at the upper right sternal border

22
Q

Ball valve

A

left atrial mixoma

23
Q

Hypertensive encephalopathy

A

?

24
Q

Who need to be protected by antibiotics before intervention

A

Recommendations for prophylaxis of infective endocarditis (IE) from transient bacteremia associated with dental, gynecologic, or gastrointestinal procedures has recently undergone major revision.
Only patients with history of prior infective endocarditis (IE), patients with prosthetic heart valves, patients with un-repaired congenital
cyanotic heart disease, and patients with prosthetic graft material which has not yet endothelialized (typically 6 months from placement of the graft material) are given prophylactic antibiotics

25
Q

*Coarctation of aorta

A

?

26
Q

*ECG shows Mobitz type I second-degree AV block, also known as Wenckebach phenomenon, characterized by progressive PR interval prolongation prior to block of an atrial impulse. This rhythm generally does not require therapy

A

?

27
Q

*ECG shows complete heart block.

A

Although at first glance the P waves and QRS complexes may appear related, on closer inspection they are completely independent of each other, i.e., dissociated. Complete heart block in the setting of acute myocardial infarction requires at least temporary, and often th…permanent, trans-venous pacemaker placement

28
Q

**Hypokalemia, Hyperkalemia, Hypocalcemia Na?

A

A. Hypokalemia typically increases automaticity of myocardial fibers, which results in ectopic beats or arrhythmias. Electrocardiography in hypokalemia reveals flattening of the T wave and prominent U (It is typically small, and, by definition, follows the T) waves.

B. Hyperkalemia decreases the rate of spontaneous diastolic depolarization in all pacemaker cells. It also results in slowing of conduction. One of the earliest electrocardiographic signs of hyperkalemia is the appearance of tall, peaked T waves. More severe elevations of the serum potassium result in widening of the QRS complex

C.Hypocalcemia results in prolongation of the QT interval. Low serum calcium levels may also be associated with a decrease in myocardial contractility .

Na

29
Q

*Dizziness, ECG tachycardia-bradycardia syndrome (heart alternates between too fast and too slow)

A

Sinus node automaticity is suppressed by the tachyarrhythmia and results in a prolonged sinus pause
following termination of the tachycardia. The patient in this case is symptomatic, and pacemaker placement is warranted;

30
Q

*ECG reveals shortened PR interval and a delta wave causing widening of the QRS. The delta wave is a “slurring” of the upstroke of the R wave caused by the early depolarization of ventricular myocardium. This is consistent with an accessory conduction pathway or WPW

A

?

31
Q

DG and how to do DG? pleuritic chest pain that is relieved by sitting up

A

it is classic for pericarditis. A pericardial friction rub may initially be present, then disappear, with the heart sounds becoming fainter as an effusion develops. Lung sounds are clear; rales or basilar dullness suggest an alternate diagnosis. An enlarged cardiac silhouette without other chest x-ray findings of heart failure suggests pericardial effusion. Echocardiography is the most sensitive and specific way of determining

32
Q

cardiac tamponade, a condition in which pericardial fluid under increased pressure impedes diastolic filling, resulting in reduced cardiac output and hypotension. Physical examination reveals

A

elevation of jugular venous pressure. An important confirmatory clue to cardiac tamponade is pulsus paradoxus,
a greater than normal (10 mm Hg) inspiratory decline in systolic arterial pressure. In contrast to pulmonary edema, the lungs are usually clear