Exam 4 Staphylococcus Flashcards

1
Q

Is staphylococci catalase negative or positive

A

catalase positive

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2
Q

Which staphylococci produce B-hemolysis

A

Staph aureus

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3
Q

What is the important test to classify staph species

A

coagulase test

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4
Q

What are the coagulase positive staphylococci

A

Staph aureus and S. Delphini, S. Intermedius, S. Lutrae, S. Hyicus: animal pathogens

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5
Q

What are the coagulase-negative staphylococci

A

S. Epidermis and S. Saprophyticus, Staph Lugdunesis

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6
Q

Which plates do staphylococcus grow easily on

A

SBA and thioglycolate plates

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7
Q

If staphylococcus is plated on SBA and is heavily contaminated, which selective media would be used and what would it indicate

A

Mannitol salt agar (MSA) would be used, Staph Aureus on MSA would be yellow, it is selective for staphylococcus and differential for S. aureus

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8
Q

Where does Staph aureus grow, live, and multiply (primary reservoir)?

A

The nares, it also grows on the axillae, vagina, pharynx, and other skin surfaces

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9
Q

What are hospital outbreaks called

A

nosocomial infections

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10
Q

What are the virulence factors associated with Staph aureus

A

Toxins, Structural cellular components , and enzymes

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11
Q

What releases cytokines that result in fever and hypotensive shock

A

superantigens

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12
Q

What are the toxins virulence factor of Staph aureus

A

Enterotoxins (superantigen), cytolytic toxins, exfoliative toxins (superantigen), and TSST-1 (superantigen)

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13
Q

What are the structural cellular components virulence factor of Staph aureus

A

Protein A, Capsules, and Slime layer

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14
Q

What are the enzymes virulence factor of Staph aureus

A

Coagulase, and Hyaluronidase

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15
Q

What are the enterotoxins

A

Enterotoxin A, C, D and B
A- associated with food poisoning
C & B- associated with contaminated milk products
B- associated with pseudomembranous enterocolitis

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16
Q

What is TSST-1

A

a superantigen that is toxic shock syndrome toxin-1, associated with super absorbent tampons on sterile packaging after surgical procedures
it is absorbed through vaginal mucosa, permitting the systemic effects seen in TSS

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17
Q

What is exfoliative toxin

A

it is responsible for (SSS) Scalded Skin Syndrome or Ritters Disease- causes the epidermal layer of the skin to slough off

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18
Q

What is cytolytic toxins

A

Alpha-toxin (a-toxin) -creates pores in host cell membranes esp red blood cells and immune cells
Beta toxin (b-toxin) -breaks down membrane lipids
Delta toxin- small peptides that disrupt membranes & contributes to inflammation
Gamma toxin (y-toxin) -target white blood cells and destroy them
& Panton- Valentine Leukocidin (PVL) -associated with severe skin infections and necrotizing pneumonia

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19
Q

What are the enzymes of Staph aureus

A

coagulase enzyme, hyaluronidase enzyme, lipase enzyme, and penicillinase enzyme (B-Lactamase specific for penicillin)

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20
Q

What is protein A

A

binds the fc portion of antibodies to avoid phagocytosis (assists in blocking phagocytosis)

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21
Q

What are the infections associated with Staph aureus

A

SSS “Ritter’s Disease), impetigo, boils, carbuncles. acute endocarditis, pneumonia, osteomyelitis, food poisoning, and TSS

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22
Q

When do symptoms appear if someone ingested toxins within food (Food poisoning)

A

2-8 hours after ingesting food (rapid)

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23
Q

What are the culture characteristics of Staph aureus

A

they can produce beta-hemolytic zones, and exhibit a yellow pigment (Au- aureus element symbol for Gold= golden color)

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24
Q

Is staphylococcus epidermis coagulase negative or positive

A

coagulase negative

25
Q

What infections is Staph epi associated with

A

it is the common cause of hospital-acquired UTIs and a common contaminant of blood cultures (due to improper sterile techniques)

26
Q

What does Staph epi get introduced to

A

catheters, heart valves, cerebrospinal fluid shunts, and PROSTHETIC devices, organisms produce a slime layer (BIOFILM) that helps adherence to prosthetics and avoid phagocytosis

27
Q

What is Staphylococcus saprophyticus

A

the cause of UTIS in young, sexually active women, it is novobiocin resistant

28
Q

What is the novobiocin test

A

it is used for only urine isolates, it differentiates s. sapro from other CoNS, Staph sapro is RESISTANT and other CoNS are susceptible

29
Q

What does Staph lugdunensis mimic

A

staph lugdunesis mimics a positive coagulase test because of a clumping factor so it is often mistaken for S. Aureus

30
Q

What is the culture characteristics of staph. epi

A

small- to medium sized nonhemolytic gray to white colonies

31
Q

What is the culture characteristic of staph. sapro

A

slightly larger colonies with 50% producing yellow pigment, 50% very white pigment

32
Q

What is the culture characteristic of staph. haemolyticus

A

medium-sized colonies with weak or moderate hemolysis and variable pigment production

33
Q

Why are all the Staphylococcus catalase positive

A

because staphylococcus produces the enzyme catalase

34
Q

What is the coagulase test

A

A hallmark for Staph. Aureus, it tests for cell-bound coagulase

35
Q

if the coagulase test is positive it is

A

Staph aureus

36
Q

To test for CoNS what is used

A

novobiocin

37
Q

If a staphylococcus is resistant to novobiocin it is

A

Staphylococcus Sapro

38
Q

If a staphylococcus is sensitive to novobiocin it is

A

Staph. Epidermis

39
Q

What does micrococcus look like plated

A

bright, lemon yellow colonies

40
Q

Is micrococcus catalase positive or negative

41
Q

Is micrococcus coagulase negative or positive

A

coagulase negative

42
Q

If the coagulase is negative what tests is ran next

A

Oxidase/bacitracin

43
Q

If the oxidase test is positive and susceptible to bacitracin it is

A

micrococcus

44
Q

If the oxidase test is negative and not susceptible to novobiocin it is

A

coagulase-negative staphylococcus spp.

45
Q

Which test is ran if oxidase-negative staphylococcus is present

A

the novobiocin susceptibility test

46
Q

If the CoNS is sensitive to novobiocin it is

A

Coagulase-negative staphylococcus spp

47
Q

If the CoNS is resistant to novobiocin it is

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

48
Q

Is staphylococcus sensitive or resistant to furazolidone

A

it is sensitive

49
Q

Is micrococcus sensitive or resistant to furazolidone

A

it is resistant

50
Q

What are the rapid methods of ID for staphylococcus

A

The PCR (polymerase chain reaction) and MALDI-TOF

51
Q

Why are most staph aureus resistant to penicillin

A

because they produce the B-Lactamase enzyme

52
Q

If the staphylococcus spp is resistant to methicillin it should be treated with

A

vancomycin

53
Q

What is used to detect methicillin resistance in in staph aureus

54
Q

What is used to detect methicillin resistance in CoNS

55
Q

What is the mecA gene responsible for and what is the mecA gene detected by

A

the mecA gene is responsible for methicillin resistance and the gold standard test is used to detect the mecA gene

56
Q

Erythromycin and clindamycin

A

should have the same resistance patterns

57
Q

If the erythromycin and clindamycin don’t have the same resistance patterns what should be tested

A

The D-zone test

58
Q

What is the D-zone test

A

when erythromycin and clindamycin disks are placed on a plate and there is growth between the disks but not on the side of the clindamycin (inducible clindamycin resistance)