Exam 4- Obstructive Respiratory Disease - organize COPY Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 most common viral pathogens responsible for URIs?

A

rhinovirus, coronavirus, influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

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2
Q

Noninfectious nasopharyngitis can be ____ or ____ in origin.

A

allergic or vasomotor

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3
Q

Why is the diagnosis of URIs mainly based on just clinical s/sx? (as opposed to labs/tests)

A

Viral cultures & lab tests lack sensitivity, and are time and cost consuming
* impractical in a busy clinical setting

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4
Q

what accounts for ̴95% of all URIs?

A

Infectious (viral or bacterial) nasopharyngitis

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5
Q

Who is at a much higher risk of perioperative respiratory adverse events (PRAEs) s/a transient hypoxemia, laryngospasm, breath holding, and coughing?

A

Children with URI’s

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6
Q

Should we postpone surgery for a pt who has had a chronic URI and is stable?

A

No, a pt who has had a URI for days-weeks and is stable or improving can be safely managed without postponing surgery

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7
Q

for how long may airway hyperreactivity persist?

A

6 weeks

So if surgery is delayed bec of an URI, pts should not be rescheduled within 6 weeks

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8
Q

What is used to determine risk of proceeding with surgery for a pt w/ URI?

A

COLDS scoring system

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9
Q

What 5 things does the COLDS scoring system take into account?

A

current sx’s
onset of symptoms (higher risk <2 weeks ago)
presence of lung disease
airway device (higher risk with ETT)
surgery (higher risk with major airway surgery)

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10
Q

Anesthetic management of pts w/URI’s should include (3 things):

A

adequate hydration, reducing secretions, and limiting manipulation of the sensitive airway

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11
Q

What type of local anesthetic can reduce upper airway sensitivity?

A

Nebulized or topical local anesthetic on the vocal cords

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12
Q

Use of what airway may help reduce the risk of laryngospasm?

A

Use of a LMA rather than an ETT

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13
Q

Considerations for induction and maintenance for pts with acute URI are similar to those with _____.

A

asthma

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14
Q

if there are no contraindications, what may result in smoother emergence?

A

deep extubation

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15
Q

Adverse respiratory events in pts w URI include (6 things):

A

bronchospasm, laryngospasm, airway obstruction, postintubation croup, desaturation, and atelectasis

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16
Q

Whats common in pts with Acute URI that can be treated easily w supplemental O2?

A

Intraoperative and postoperative hypoxemia

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17
Q

What are some differentials between Acute URI vs Influenza?

A

Acute URI: earache, runny nose, nasal congestion, sore throat, hoarseness

All other sx are seen in both URI and flu!

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18
Q

Asthma is considered chronic inflammation of the mucosa of the ____ airways.

A

lower airways

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19
Q

In asthma, activation of the inflammatory cascade leads to infiltration of airway mucosa with: (6 inflammatory cells)

This results in airway edema, especially in the ______.

A
  • infiltration of the airway mucosa with eosinophils, neutrophils, mast cells, T cells, B cells, and leukotrienes
  • bronchi

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20
Q

What are the 3 main inflammatory mediators in asthma?

A

histamine, prostaglandin D2, and leukotrienes

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21
Q

What are 5 asthma provoking stimulators?

A
  • allergens
  • pharmacologic agents: ASA, BB, some NSAIDs, sulfaring agents
  • infections
  • exercise
  • emotional stress

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22
Q

What are some sx of asthma (6)?

A

expiratory wheezing, productive or nonproductive cough, dyspnea, chest tightness that may lead to air hunger, and eosinophilia

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23
Q

What is status asthmaticus?

A

life-threatening bronchospasm that persists despite treatment

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24
Q

What 4 factors should attention be focused on when obtaining hx from an asthma pt?

A

previous intubation, ICU admission, 2+ hospitalizations for asthma in the past year, and the presence of coexisting diseases

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25
Q

When is asthma diagnosed? (like what pt reports and what does PFT show)

A

when a pt reports symptoms of wheezing, chest tightness, or SOB and demonstrates airflow obstruction on PFT that is at least partially reversible with bronchodilators

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26
Q

What does classification of asthma severity depend on?

A

symptoms, PFTs, and medication usage

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27
Q

What is maximum voluntary ventilation?

A

max air that can be inhaled and exhaled within 1 min
males: 140-180 L; females 80-120 L

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28
Q

FEV1, FEF (forced expiratory flow) and midexpiratory phase flow are direct measurements of the severity of what?

A

expiratory obstruction

These are used to assess the severity of an asthma attack

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29
Q

During an asthma attack, what type of results are seen in FEV1?
Flow volume loop? Lung volumes?
Diffusing capacity for CO?

A

FEV1 <35%
Flow volume loops show a downward scooping of expiratory part
FRC increases, but TLC remains normal
Diffusing capacity for CO not changed

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30
Q

In pt w/ expiratory obstruction, what suggests the diagnosis of asthma?

A

relief of obstruction after bronchodilator

abnormalities in PFT seen for days even w/ absence of symtpoms!

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31
Q

In a pt w/ bronchospasm, FEV1 is _____ than 80%.

Peak flow and maximum flow rate (FEF 25%-75%) are also ____

A

lower than 80%

decreased

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32
Q

Flow volume loops

A

obstructive: O
restrictive w/ limitation on inspiration and expiration: R(E)
and paraenchymal restrictive (RP)

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33
Q

What causes an tachypnea and hyperventilation during an asthma attack?

A

neural reflexes of lungs, not hypoxemia

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34
Q

What are common ABG findings in symptomatic asthma?

A

hypocarbia and respiratory alkalosis!
*however a mild asthma attack = normal PaO2 and normal PaCO2 *

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35
Q

As expiratory obstruction worsens, V/Q mismatching may result in a PaO2 of ____?

The PaCO2 will increase when FEV1 is what percentage?

A

<60 mmHg

25% of predicted

fatique of breathing skeletal muscles contributes to hypercapnea

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36
Q

Due to mucous plugging and pulm HTN, pt w/ severe asthma demonstrate what 2 symptoms?

A

hyperinflation and hiliar vascular congestion

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37
Q

During an asthma attack, what might the EKG show?

A

RV strain or ventricular irritability

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38
Q

What is the 1st line of treatment for patient with mild asthma?

What other medication can be added to help improve the symptoms of asthma, reduce exacerbations and decrease risk of hospitalization?

A
  • short-acting inhaled β2 agonist
  • daily inhaled corticosteroids

*This is only recommended in those w/ < 2 exacerbations/month *

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39
Q

True or false: if asthma symptoms remain uncontrolled, daily inhaled β2 agonist

A

True

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40
Q

What medication can be use to decrease the use of long -term medications for asthma ?

base of a study

A

SQ immunotherapy

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41
Q

What other therapies that can be use as treatment for asthmas?

A
  • inhaled muscarinic antagonists
  • leukotriene modifiers
  • mast cell stabilizers

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42
Q

What medication is reserved for severe asthma that is uncontrolled with inhalational medications?

A

Systemic corticosteroids

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43
Q

What is the name of the only nonpharmacologic treatment for refractory asthma?

A

Bronchial thermoplasty (BT)

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44
Q

How is Bronchial thermoplasty (BT) utilize to treat refractory asthma?

A

uses a bronchoscopy to deliver radiofrequency ablation of airway smooth muscles to all lung fields except the right middle lobe

*procedure is performed in three sessions and uses intense heat, which carries a risk of airway fire

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45
Q

Loss of airway smooth muscle mass can reduce what ?

A

bronchoconstriction

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46
Q

What is useful in monitoring the reponse to bronchial thermoplasty?

A

Serial PFTs

FEV1 improves to about 50% of normal, pts usually have minimal or no symptoms

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47
Q

What is the emergency treatment for acute severe asthma?

A
  • consists of high-dose
  • short-acting β2 agonists
  • systemic corticosteroids

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48
Q

What is the difference in asthma vs acute severe asthma ?

A
  • bronchospasm doesn’t resolve despite usual treatment
  • considered life threatening

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49
Q

How often can INH β2 agonistsbe adminstered?

A

every 15-20 minfor several doses without adverse hemodynamic effects

although pts may experience unpleasant sensations resulting from adrenergic overstimulation

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50
Q

Why is IV corticosteroides adminstered early for treatment of acute severe asthma?

What are the 2 corticosteroids most commomly used

A

onset takes several hours

Hydrocortione and methlprednisone

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51
Q

What other drugs can be administered to patietnts that are experiencing acute severe asthma?

A
  • magnesium
  • oral leukotriene inhibitors

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52
Q

Treatment of Acute Severe Asthma

Fill in the blanks:
* Supplemental oxygen to maintain SaO2 > ____%

  • ____ agonists by metered- dose inhaler every ____ - ____ or by ____ nebulizet administration
  • intervenous ____ ( hydrocotisone or ____)
  • IV fluids to maintain ____
  • ____ broad -spectrum antibiotics
  • Anticholinergiv (____) by inhalation
  • IV ____ sulfate
  • ____ intubation and mechanical ventilation (when PaCO2 is > ____ mmhg)
  • Sedation and _____
  • Mechanical ventialation parameters:
  • Gernal ansthesia with a ____ ____ to produce _____
  • _______ _______ _______ _______ (ECMO) as a last resort
A

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53
Q

What are the risk factors that would contribute to bronchospasms during surgery?

A
  • type of surgery (higher with upper abdominal and oncologic surgery)
  • how recent the last attack occurred

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54
Q

How does General Anesthesia effects a patient with asthma?

A
  • depression of cough reflex
  • impairment of mucociliary function
  • reduction of palatopharyngeal muscle tone
  • depression of diaphragmatic function
  • increased fluid in the airway wall

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55
Q

What other factors can affect an asthmatic receiving anesthesia

A

airway stimulation by intubation,
PNS activation, and/or release of neurotransmitters

such as substance P and neurokinins also play a role

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56
Q

What are some pre-op assessment that need to be done for a patient that that has Asthma ?

A
  • assessment of disease severity
  • current treatment, and the
  • need for additional therapy before surgery
  • history of symptom control
  • frequency of exacerbations
  • Physicalappearance and use of accessory muscles
  • Auscultation of the chest to detect wheezing or crepitations is important
  • Eosinophil counts

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57
Q

During a pre-op Assessment for a patient that as asthma, what type of test and mediation should be taken in consideration?

A
  • Preop PFTs (esp FEV1) before and after bronchodilator may be indicated
    ( A reduction in FEV1 or forced vital capacity (FVC) to <70% of predicted, and/orFEV1:FVC ratio <65% of predicted, is a risk for periop respiratory complications)
  • Preop chest physiotherapy, antibiotics, and a bronchodilators can often improve reversible components of asthma
  • ABGs (if there is any question about the adequacy of ventilation or oxygenation)
  • Anti-inflammatories and bronchodilators should be continued until induction
  • If the pt is has been on systemic corticosteroids within the past 6 months, a stress-dose hydrocortisone or methylprednisolone is indicated
  • Pts should be free of wheezing and have a PEFR of >80% of predicted or their personal best value before surgery

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58
Q
  • symptoms = emphysema characterized by lung _____ damage ,, chronic ____ ,, productive _______ ,, small airway dz
  • _____ leading cause of death

COPD

A
  • parenchymal ,, bronchitis ,, cough
  • 3rd

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59
Q

COPD risks (long list)

A

o smoking, occupational exposure, asbestos, gold mining, biomass fuel, air pollution, genetic factors, age, female gender, poor lung development during gestation, low birth weight, recurrent childhood respiratory infections, low socioeconomic class, and asthma

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60
Q

COPD leads to ?? (5)

A
  1. deterioration in recoil/elasticity
  2. decrease bronchiolar wall structure
  3. increased velocity through narrowed bronchi
  4. active bronchospasm + obstruction from secretions
  5. destruction of lung parenchyma + enlarge air sacs

*emphysema

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61
Q

COPD Symptoms ::
* vary with ___________
* __________ at rest ,, chronic __________ and __________ production
* exacerbations&raquo_space;> _________ and prolonged ___________ times
* breath sounds are ____________ and __________ wheezes
* as progresses :: exacerbations are more _________ and triggered by _____________ resp infx

A
  • severity
  • dyspnea ,, cough ,, sputum
  • tachypnea ,, expiratory
  • decreased ,, expiratory
  • frequent ,, bacterial

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62
Q

COPD Diagnosis:

  • Definitive diagnosis is made with ______________
  • PFTS = decrease in ______ and ________
  • increase in _______ volume d/t gas trapping which causes a _______ airway diameter
A
  • spirometry
  • FEV1/FVC ratio + FEF25-75
  • residual
  • enlarged

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63
Q

Common findings of COPD include
* FEV1:FVC <_____%
* increased _____ and _____
* reduced ______

A
  • <70%
  • FRC + TLC
  • DLCO

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64
Q

COPD Diagnosis:

  • CXR findings = may be ______ even with severe COPD
  • ________ suggests emphysema
  • ______ confirms emphysema
A
  • minimal
  • hyperlucency
  • bullae

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65
Q

COPD Diagnosis:

Most Sensitive to diagnose COPD

A

CT

30

66
Q

COPD Diagnosis:

  • Multi Organ Loss of Tissue (MOLT) is a ____ of COPD
  • high rates of _____ cancer
  • Sx = ______ enlargement , ______ destruction , loss of _______, muscle, fat tissues
A
  • phenotype
  • lung
  • airspace , alveolar , bone

30

67
Q

COPD Diagnosis:

Bronchitic Phenotype = _________ narrowing and _______ thickening
* accompanied by _______ syndrome and ______ disease

A
  • bronchiolar + wall
  • metabolic + cardiac

30

68
Q

____________ eosinophil levels indicate the need for inhaled ____________.

____________ eosinophil levels are associated with poor response and increased risk of ___________.

A

high eosinophil indicate the need for inhaled glucocorticoids

low levels are associated with poor response and increased risk of pneumonia

31

69
Q

ABGs often remain normal until COPD is severe

Pa02 doesn’t usually decrease until the FEV1 is ____________% of predicted, and PaC02 may not increase until the FEV1 is even _________.

A

ABGs often remain normal until COPD is severe

Pa02 doesn’t usually decrease until the FEV1 is **<50% ** of predicted, and PaC02 may not increase until the FEV1 is even lower

31

70
Q

________________deficiency is an inherited disorder associated with premature development of COPD

This deficiency indicates genetic disease and need for lifelong ____________therapy

A

**α1-antitrypsin **deficiency is an inherited disorder associated with premature development of COPD

low α1-antitrypsin indicates genetic disease and need for lifelong **replacement **therapy

31

71
Q

____________should be measured in pts with uncontrolled disease despite adequate bronchodilator treatment

A

Eosinophils should be measured in pts with uncontrolled disease despite adequate bronchodilator treatment

31

72
Q

T/F
COPD treatment is designed to alleviate symptoms and slow progression

A

TRUE
COPD treatment is designed to alleviate symptoms and slow progression

32

73
Q

The 1st step in treating COPD is reducing exposure to ____________and ________________pollutants

A

The 1st step in treating COPD is reducing exposure to smoking and environmental pollutants

32

74
Q

Smoking cessation can decrease COPD disease progression and lower mortality by up to:
a. 20%
b. 8%
c. 18%
d. 32%

A

C. 18%

  • Chronic bronchitis and lung degeneration may also diminish or disappear*

32

75
Q

The first medical treatment for COPD begins with inhalers, specifically long-acting:
a. muscarinic antagonist
b. muscarinic agonist

A

A. Muscarinic antagonists

32

76
Q

If dyspnea persists with COPD, the second treatment that can be added is a long-acting:
a. β2 agonist
b. β2 antagonist

A

a. β2 agonist

32

77
Q

The third treatment for COPD, inhaled ________________, is most effective with associated ____________, rhinitis, elevated eosinophils, and history of _______________

A

The third treatment, inhaled glucocorticoids, is most effective with associated asthma, rhinitis, elevated eosinophils, and history of **exacerbations **

32

78
Q

Correctly using inhaled tx’s can improve sx, improve FEV1, and reduce exacerbations

Other tx’s include ____________& ____________ vaccines, and ____________ (when RHF or CHF has developed)

A

Correctly using inhaled tx’s can improve sx, improve FEV1, and reduce exacerbations

Other tx’s include flu & pneumonia vaccines, and diuretics (when RHF or CHF has developed)

33

79
Q

During exacerbations, antibiotics, corticosteroids, and ____________ may be necessary

Pulmonary rehab programs are beneficial as they can increase ____________ capacity

A

During exacerbations, antibiotics, corticosteroids, and theophylline may be necessary

Pulmonary rehab programs are beneficial as they can increase exercise capacity

33

80
Q

T/F
COPD Exacerbations may be due to URI’s and antibiotics are always warranted

A

FALSE

Exacerbations may be due to URI’s or may be *noninfective *
* so antibiotics are not always warranted

33

81
Q

The goal of supplemental 02 is to achieve a Pa02 >________mmHg, which can usually be accomplished w/ NC @ ____L/min

A

The goal of supplemental 02 is to achieve a Pa02 >**60 **mmHg, which can usually be accomplished w/ NC @ 2 L/min

34

82
Q

To decrease the risk of death, long-term home 02 is recommended when the Pa02 is <_______mmHg, the HCT >______%, or if evidence of ___________.

A

To decrease the risk of death, long-term home 02 is recommended when the Pa02 is <55mmHg, the HCT >55%, or if evidence of cor-pulmonale

34

83
Q

T/F - Supplemental 02 is ________ effective than drug therapy in decreasing pulmonary vascular resistance and pulmonary htn, and in preventing _______________

A

Supplemental 02 is more effective than drug therapy in decreasing pulmonary vascular resistance and pulmonary htn, and in preventing erythrocytosis

34

84
Q

Pts should be advised to do deep breathing exercises or ________________ ________________, which may improve respiratory function postoperatively

A

Pts should be advised to do deep breathing exercises or incentive spirometry, which may improve respiratory function postoperatively

34

85
Q

All of the COPD treatments in a chart!

A

35

86
Q

All of the COPD exacerbation treatments in a chart!

A

35

87
Q

In pts w/severe refractory COPD andoverdistended lung tissue, lung ____________ ____________ surgery may be required

Surgical removal allows more areas of normal lung to ________ and improve function

It is commonly performed via a ________________ sternotomy or a (VATS).

What does VATS stand for?

A

In pts w/severe refractory COPD andoverdistended lung tissue, lung volume reduction surgery may be required

Surgical removal of these overdistended areas allows more areas of normal lung to expand and improve lung function

Lung volume reduction surgery is most commonly performed via a median sternotomy or a video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)

36

88
Q

Mechanisms for improvement in lung function include:
1) increased _______ ___________, which increases expiratory airflow
2) decreased ____________, which improves diaphragmatic and chest wall mechanics
3) decreased ____________/____________ mismatch, improving alveolar gas exchange

A

Mechanisms for improvement in lung function include:
1) increased elastic recoil, which increases expiratory airflow
2) decreased hyperinflation, which improves diaphragmatic and chest wall mechanics
3) decreased ventilation/perfusion mismatch, improving alveolar gas exchange

36

89
Q

Anesthesia mgmt for lung-volume reduction surgery includes: a __________-______________ ETT, avoidance of _________ _________, and minimizing excessive airway pressure

________ is an unreliable guide for fluid management in this situation due to surgical alterations that will affect ________________ pressures

A

Anesthesia mgmt for lung-volume reduction surgery includes: a double-lumen ETT, avoidance of nitrous oxide, and minimizing excessive airway pressure

CVP is an unreliable guide for fluid management in this situation due to surgical alterations that will affect **intrathoracic ** pressures

37

90
Q

A complete history, including investigation of the causes, course, and severity of COPD

Note the ____________ history, current meds (esp recent ____________), exercise tolerance, ____________ frequency, and need for hospitalizations

Any previous need for ________________ or mechanical ventilation should be determined

A

A complete history, including investigation of the causes, course, and severity of COPD

Note the smoking history, current meds (esp recent corticosteroids), exercise tolerance, exacerbation frequency, and need for hospitalizations

Any previous need for noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NIPPV) or mechanical ventilation should be determined

37

91
Q

Because smoking & COPD are assoc w/ multiple comorbidities, pts should also be questioned on presence of other diseases such as…. 7 things mentioned on this slide.. (hint mostly heart stuff..)

A

Because smoking & COPD are assoc w/ multiple comorbidities, pts should also be questioned on presence of other diseases such as:
1. DM
2. HTN
3. PVD
4. ischemic heart disease
5. heart failure
6. dysrhythmias
7. lung cancer

37

92
Q

If pt has pulmonary disease, ________ ventricular function should be assessed by clinical exam, along with echocardiogram

A

If pt has pulmonary disease, right ventricular function should be assessed by clinical exam, along with echocardiogram

37

93
Q

Should inhalation therapies be continued until the morning of surgery?

A

YES - continue inhalation therapies

37

94
Q

What can be done pre-operatively to help reduce pulmonary complications post-operatively?

A

Preoperative chest physiotherapy such as deep breathing, coughing, incentive spirometry, and pulmonary physical therapy can reduce postop pulmonary complications

37

95
Q

T/F
Clinical findings such as smoking, wheezing, and productive cough are less predictive of pulmonary complications than spirometric tests

A

FALSE
Clinical findings such as smoking, wheezing, and productive cough are more predictive of pulmonary complications than spirometric tests

The value of routine preop PFTs remains controversial

37

96
Q

Indications for preop pulmonary evaluation typically include:

1) ____ on room air or the need for home ____ without a known cause

2) a bicarbonate ____ mEq/L or Pco2 ____ mmHg in w/o diagnosed pulmonary dz

3) a history of respiratory ____ due to an existing problem

4) severe ____ __ ____ attributed to respiratory disease

5) planned ____

6) difficulty assessing pulmonary ____ by clinical signs

7) the need to distinguish causes of respiratory ____

8) the need to determine the response to ____

9) suspected pulmonary ____

A

ndications for preop pulmonary evaluation typically include:

1) hypoxemia on room air or the need for home 02 without a known cause

2) a bicarbonate >33 mEq/L or Pco2 >50 mmHg in w/o diagnosed pulmonary dz

3) a history of respiratory failure due to an existing problem

4) severe shortness of breath attributed to respiratory disease

5) planned pneumonectomy

6) difficulty assessing pulmonary function by clinical signs

7) the need to distinguish causes of respiratory compromise

8) the need to determine the response to bronchodilators

9) suspected pulmonary HTN

38

97
Q

What respiratory test is sufficient to assess COPD lung disease?

A

spirometry with FEV1

38

98
Q

What are expected to show in the flow volume loop of a COPD pt?

A
  • decreased expiratory flow rate at any given lung volume
  • expiratory curve is concave
  • RV is increased because of air trapping

39

99
Q

How are flow-volume loops obtained with COPD?

A
  • assessed under dynamic conditions by measuring airflow related to lung volume
  • Expiratory flow ratescan be plotted against lung volumes to produce flow-volume curves
    -Start at TLC and force expire to RV
  • Inspiration flow rates are added to these curves
    -Max inspire from RV to TLC
    -flow is most rapid at midpoint = curve
    is U shaped

i summarized the slide

39

100
Q

What test predictor show risk factors for development of postoperative pulmonary complications?

A

Albumin level < 3.5 g/dL

40

101
Q

What are patient related risk factors for development of postoperative pulmonary complications?

A
  • Age > 60 yr
  • ASA > 2
  • CHF
  • Pre-existing pulmonary disease
  • Cigarette smoking

40 - table

102
Q

What are procedure related risk factors for development of postoperative pulmonary complications?

A

Surgeries
* emergency sx
* abdominal or thoracic sx
* head & neck sx
* neurosurgery
* vascular/aortic aneurysm sx

Anesthesia
* prolonged anesthesia (>2.5h)
* General anesthesia

40 - table

103
Q

What pre-op strategies to do to reduce post-op complications?

A
  • smoking cessation for at least 6 weeks
  • treat evidence of Expiratory airflow obstruction
  • treat respiratory infection with ABX
  • Pt education regarding lung volume expansion maneuvers

41 table

104
Q

What intraop strategies to do to reduce post-op complications?

A
  • use minimally invasive sx techniques (if possible)
  • consider Regional Anesthesia
  • avoid sx procedure > 3 hours

41 - table

105
Q

What post-op strategies to do to reduce post-op complications?

A
  • institute lung volume expansion maneuvers
  • maximize analgesia

41 - table

106
Q

How long does it take for benefit of smoking cessation to be seen?

A

stopped more than 8 weeks prior to surgery

(that the earlier the intervention, the more effective it is in reducing postop complications and maintaining cigarette abstinence

The American Society of Anesthesiologists has a Stop Smoking Initiative and provides resources to help practitioners encourage smoking cessation)

I tried tosummarize-ish the slide

42

107
Q

What is the single-most important risk factor for developing COPD and death caused by lung disease?

A

smoking

42

108
Q

How long do the adverse effects of carbon monoxide on 02-carrying capacity and of nicotine on the CV system?
What is the time frame for CO and Nicotine?

A

it is short lived

Nicotine on heart: 20-30 mins

E1/2 of Carbon Monoxide: 4-6 hours

43

109
Q

Within 12 hours after cessation of smoking, the Pa02 at which HGB 50% saturated with oxygen (P50) increases from 22.9 to ____ mmHg, and the plasma levels of carboxyhemoglobin decrease from 6.5% to ____

A

26.4 mmHg

1%

43

110
Q

Despite of favorable effects, does short-term abstinence from cigarettes has been proven to decrease the incidence of postoperative pulmonary complications?

A

NO!

43

111
Q

What does cigarette smoking cause?

A
  • mucous hypersecretion
  • impairment of mucociliary transport
  • narrowing of small airways

44

112
Q

How long does it take to see improved ciliary and small airway function and decreased sputum production after smoking abstinence?

A

takes weeks of abstinence from smoking

44

113
Q

What does smoking do to normal immune responses?

How long does it take to return to normal after smoking abstinence?

A

interfere with normal immune responses
(affects responsd to pulmonary infection after sx)

requires at least 6 weeks of abstinence from smoking

44

114
Q

How does some components of cigarette smoke affect the liver?

How long does it take to return to normal after smoking cessation?

A

stimulate hepatic enzymes

may take 6 weeks or longer for hepatic enzyme activity to return to normal

44

115
Q

In cystic fibrosis, what causes the thick viscosity of secretions?

A

presence of neutrophils and degradation products that release DNA forming long fibrils that add to viscocity.

52

116
Q

What is given based on identification of bacteria isolated from sputum?

A

antibiotics

52

117
Q

What is indicated if cultures show no pathogens?

A

bronchoscopy

52

118
Q

What is given to pts w/ CF long-term to suppress chronic infection?

A

Antibiotics

52

119
Q

What would be the goal after delaying elective surgery in someone w/ CF?

A

Optimal pulmonary function is ensured by controlling infection and facilitating removal of airway secretions

53

120
Q

Which vitamin may be necessary if hepatic fx is poor or exocrine pancreatic function is impaired?

A

Vitamin K

53

121
Q

What are the important steps in maintaining less- viscous secretions?

A

Humidification of inspired gases, hydration, and avoidance of anticholinergic drugs.

Frequent tracheal suctioning may be necessary

53

122
Q

What should pts regain prior to extubation?

A

full airway reflexes, adequate TV & RR

53

123
Q

What is important to have in control to allow for deep breathing, coughing, and early ambulation?

A

Postop pain control to minimize pulmonary complications

53

124
Q

What are the consequences of the impaired ciliary activity?

A

chronic sinusitis, recurrent respiratory infections, bronchiectasis and infertility

54

125
Q

What is Kartagener syndrome?

A

Triad of chronic sinusitis, bronchiectasis, and situs inversus (chest organ position is inversed)

54

126
Q

How many patients with congenitally nonfunctioning cilia exhibit situs inversus?

A

Approximately 1/2 of pts

54

127
Q

What is isolated dextrocardia almost always associated with?

A

congenital heart disease

54

128
Q

What is primary ciliary dyskinesia?

A

Congenital impairment of ciliary activity in respiratory tract,epithelial cells and sperm tails and ciliated ovary ducts

54

129
Q

What is the preop preparation directed at to determine if significant organ inversion is present?

A

directed at treating pulmonary infection

55

130
Q

What type of anesthesia is preferred for primary ciliary dyskinesia?

A

Regional anesthesia

55

131
Q

When would EKG position be reversed for accurate interpretation in case of primary ciliary dyskineasia?

A

Presence of dextrocardia

55

132
Q

In what case would you select the left IJ vein for CVC?

A

Inversion of the great vessels

Normally the right IJ is preferred as it leads straight to the SVC

55

133
Q

To what side would you see uterine displacement in pregnant women?

A

To the Right

Normally LUD is implemented to avoid vena cava syndrome

55

134
Q

What would indicate pulmonary inversion in presence of a double- lumen ETT?

A

R DLT placement

Typically, L DLT is preferred b/c the R mainstem is shorter and RUL more easily obstructed

55

135
Q

What would prompt you to avoid the nasopharyngeal airway?

A

high incidence of sinusitis

55

136
Q

What is bronchiolitis obliterans?

A

Results from epithelial and subepithelial inflammation leading to bronchiolar destruction and narrowing

56

137
Q

What are the risk factors for Bronchiolitis Obliterans?

A

viral respiratory infections, environmental exposures, lung transplant, and stem cell transplant

56

138
Q

What are sx of Bronchiolitis Obliterans?

A

Sx are nonspecific and include dyspnea and nonproductive cough

56

139
Q

What would PFTs and CT show in someone with Bronchiolitis Obliterans?

A

PFT: obstructive disease and includes a reduced FEV1 and FEV1:FVC ratio that is unresponsive to bronchodilators.

CT shows air trapping and bronchiectasis in severe cases

56

140
Q

What is central airway obstruction?

A

Includes obstruction of airflow in the tracheal and mainstem bronchi.

Obstruction c/b tumors, granulation from chronic infection, and airway thinning from cartilage destruction

57

141
Q

How many (%) lung cancer pts can be affected by airflow obstruction?

A

20-30%

57

142
Q

What is likely to develop after prolonged intubation either with ETT or a tracheostomy tube?

A

Tracheal stenosis

57

143
Q

What can progress to destruction of cartilaginous rings, and subsequent circumferential scar formation?

A

Tracheal mucosal ischemia

57

144
Q

How do you minimize Tracheal mucosal ischemia?

A

By the use of high-volume, low-pressure cuffs on ETTs

57

145
Q

When does tracheal stenosis becomes symptomatic?

A

when the lumen is decreased to <5mm in diameter

58

146
Q

What symptom of trachea stenosis is prominent even at rest?

A

Dyspnea

58

147
Q

what muscles are utilized throughout all phases of the breathing cycle?

A

accessory muscles

58

148
Q

What would you expect to see on flow-volume loops in someone with central airway obstruction? What would CT show?

A

flattened inspiratory & expiratory curves, which ischaracteristic of a fixed airway obstruction.

CT will illustrate tracheal narrowing

58

149
Q

What can be used as a temporizing measure to treat tracheal stenosis?

A

tracheal dilation

59

150
Q

How is tracheal dilation performed?

A

bronchoscopically using balloon dilators, surgical dilators, or laser resection of the tissue at the stenotic site. A tracheobronchial stent could be inserted as a temporary or long-term solution

59

151
Q

What is the most successful tx for tracheal stenosis?

A

surgical resection & reconstruction with primary re-anastomosis

59

152
Q

What kind of intubation is neccessary prior to surgical resection & reconstruction with primary re-anastomosis?

A

translaryngeal intubation

59

153
Q

How do you facilitate the anesthesia for tracheal resection?

A

by the addition of helium to the inspired gases.
This decreases the density of the gas mixture and may improve flow through the area of tracheal narrowing.

59

154
Q

What should be the focus of anesthetic management of a pt with a recent URI?

A

reducing secretions and limiting manipulation of a potentially hyperresponsive airway

61

155
Q

What is all included into immediate and long-term therapy for asthmatic patients?

A

Immediate therapy for bronchospasm consists mainly of short-acting β-agonists.

Long-term relief mayinclude inhaled corticosteroids & long-acting bronchodilators, leukotriene inhibitors, monoclonal antibodies, and bronchial thermoplasty

61

156
Q

What is the goal in asthmatic pts during during induction & maintenance?

A

depress airway reflexes and avoid bronchoconstriction

61

157
Q

What are the only two interventions in COPD patients that may slow progression of the disease?

A

smoking cessation and long-term 02 therapy

61

158
Q

What drug therapies are managed with a goal of decreasing exacerbations?

A

inhaled β-agonists, inhaled corticosteroids, and anticholinergic drugs.

61

159
Q

What type of anesthesia is preferred in pts w/ COPD to decrease the incidence of bronchospasm, barotrauma, and the need for positive pressure ventilation?

A

RA

62

160
Q

Why should COPD pts receiving GA be ventilated at slow respiratory rates?

A

to allow sufficient time for exhalation, minimizing the risk of air trapping and auto-PEEP

62

161
Q

What are two goals of prophylaxis against postop pulmonary complications?

A

restoring lung volumes, especially FRC, and facilitating effective coughing

62

162
Q

How should Intraoperative bronchospasm due to obstructive lung disease be treated?

A

by deepening the anesthetic, administering bronchodilators and suctioning secretions as needed

62