Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

A technique for identifying underpriced or overpriced stocks based on ratios of the stock price to accounting fundamentals, like book value per share or EPS

A

Stock valuation using multiples

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2
Q

Stock Valuation using multiples:

Set a ____. If the ratio of price to fundamental is below average, the stock is considered relatively ___, and if above average, relatively ___.

A

Benchmark

Cheap

Expensive

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3
Q

Price to book value is the ratio of the market value of the ____ to its latest quarterly ____

A

Common stock

Book value

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4
Q

A low P/B is an indicator of a possibly ____ stock, while a high P/B might indicate that the stock price is well ___ the cost of replacing the company’s assets, and hence _____.

A

Undervalued

Above

Overvalued

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5
Q

In an efficient market, the P/B ratio will exceed 1 if the company is able to earn a ____ that exceeds the cost of _____.

A

Return on equity

Equity capital

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6
Q

Return on equity is ___ divided by ___, or the net income “return” as a percentage of book value

A

Net income divided by beginning book value

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7
Q

If net income return exceeds r, then the company is able to earn a higher return on its investments than the stockholder could earn elsewhere on comparable risk investments. Thus, the company is generating economic value, sometimes called “____”, on its available assets, and its stock will be priced ____ of book value

A

Residual income

In excess

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8
Q

If book value accurately measures replacement cost, there must be some _______ (government regulations, high fixed costs, economies of scale) for the long-term average P/B ratio to ___ one. Otherwise, if a company was able to earn an ROE above the cost of equity, you would expect increased ____ in the business, that would drive down ROE in the future

A

Barriers to entry

Exceed

Competition

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9
Q

Can the P/B be less than one in an efficient market?

A

Yes

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10
Q

If an industry is in decline, and there is little or no new investment into the industry, ____ often do not accurately reflect _____

A

Book values

True asset values

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11
Q

When book value does not accurately measure replacement cost, then the long-run or “_____” P/B is not equal to one. Book value differs from replacement cost because of _____ and _____

A

Equilibrium

Hidden assets and inflation

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12
Q

internally-developed patents and trademarks, past research and development expenditures, past advertising and other marketing expenditures, past start-up costs for employee training, customer relationships, and developed managerial expertise

A

Hidden assets

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13
Q

P/B’s should logically be ____ after a period of sustained inflation than after a period of stable or falling prices

A

Higher

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14
Q

Companies with long-lived “real” assets, particularly land and buildings, are most subject to this ___ bias

A

Inflation

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15
Q

Hidden assets of an acquired company are captured in ____, whereas hidden assets of a comparison firm without acquisitions are left out of ____

A

Goodwill

Book value

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16
Q

Merger-related comparability problem can be avoided by using ____ as an alternative to P/B

A

Price/Tangible Book Value

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17
Q

Tangible book value excludes ___ and other ____ assets from book value, so is unaffected by merger purchase accounting

A

Goodwill

Intangible

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18
Q

Historically, stocks with relatively ___ P/B ratios have earned higher future returns than stocks with relatively ___ P/B ratios

A

Low

High

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19
Q

Stocks with ___ book-to-market value, tend to outperform stocks with ___ book-to-market ratios

A

High

Low

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20
Q

Different measures of EPS in the P/E ratio (4):

A
  • Most recent 12 months trailing EPS
  • EPS forecast for the current fiscal year
  • EPS forecast for a future fiscal year
  • GAAP earnings versus ‘operating’ earnings
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21
Q

All else equal, it is better to have a ____ EPS and hence a ___ P/E, than to have ___ EPS and hence a ____ P/E

A

Positive and positive

Negative and negative

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22
Q

If EPS is negative for two different stocks, the ____ is not a meaningful tool for comparison between them

A

P/E ratio

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23
Q

The P/E ratio measures the cost of buying a stock as a multiple of the ____ or ___ per share

A

Earnings or profits

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24
Q

a stock with a P/E of 15 costs $___ to buy for every $__ of per share profits

A

$15

$1

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25
Q

In a simple analysis, a stock with a low P/E relative to others in the industry, sector, or overall stock market is considered ____

A

Underpriced

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26
Q

All else equal, in an efficient market, the forward P/E will be higher (3):

A
  1. The lower is r, the equity discount rate or cost of equity capital
  2. The higher the ROE, the return on equity - “good” growth from higher ROE
  3. The lower the payout ratio if ROE > r, the higher the payout ratio if ROE < r
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27
Q

The lower the perceived risk of a sock or stock index, the ___ the P/E

A

Higher

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28
Q

For individual stocks, beta from the CAPM measures the systematic risk of a stock relative to the overall market. The lower the systematic (beta) risk of a stock, the ___ the cost of equity capital r, and thus the ___ the P/E

A

Lower

Higher

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29
Q

Holding the payout ratio constant, firms with higher ROE will have ___ growth rates, and thus will have ___ P/Es than low ROE firms

A

Higher

Higher

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30
Q

The ____ the ROE, the greater is the opportunity for profitable reinvestment

A

Higher

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31
Q

For firms with high ROE, lower payout ratios are associated with ____ P/Es, because if the firm can earn a higher ROE than the cost of capital, more reinvestment into the business adds ___

A

Higher

Value

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32
Q

For firms with ROE below the cost of capital, a ____ payout is a good thing, increasing the ___

A

Higher

P/E

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33
Q

If ROE is less than r, stockholders would rather

A

Invest extra cash themselves than have the firm invest on their behalf

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34
Q

In order for the P/E to be a good investment indicator, the analyst must control for ____, ___, and ____.

A

Risk

Payout ratio

Return on equity

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35
Q

Growth resulting from a _____ is not as attractive, and can actually be value-destructive, compared with growth resulting from a _____

A

Low payout ratio

High ROE

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36
Q

Recession -> Temporarily ____ -> ____

Economic boom -> Temporarily _____ ->

A

Low profits -> High P/E

High profits -> Low P/E

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37
Q

Economic cycles have a big impact on P/E’s for ___ industries, such as autos, appliances, construction, basic materials, etc., because their earnings will _____ with the economy

A

Cyclical

Rise and fall dramatically

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38
Q

For cyclical industries, like auto, at the peak of the cycle, earnings are ___, and thus P/Es ___, if investors predict a future decline in earnings

A

Very high

Low

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39
Q

Historically, stocks with relatively ___ P/E ratios have outperformed stocks with relatively ___ P/E ratios

A

Low

High

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40
Q

P/E is a useful indicator of ___ value

A

Relative

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41
Q

Stocks with ____ E/Ps tend to outperform stocks with ___ E/Ps

A

High

Low

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42
Q

All else equal, stocks of companies with high leverage will be ____, and will therefore have a higher cost of equity r and low P/E in an efficient market

A

Riskier

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43
Q

The extent to which a company’s assets are financed with debt rather than equity

A

Financial leverage

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44
Q

A stock could appear “cheap” based on its P/E, when in fact it deserves a low price because of its high ___ and hence high ___

A

High Leverage and cost of equity

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45
Q

To get around the impact of leverage on the P/E ratio, analysts often compute multiples using (2):

A
  1. The total market value of equity, plus interest-bearing debt, minus cash and marketable securities in the numerator, defined as enterprise value
  2. Earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation, and amortization (EBITDA) in the denominator
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46
Q

Enterprise Value/EBITDA = [_____+____-____]/____

A

[Market Value of Equity + Book Value of Debt - Cash] / EBITDA (Earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation, and amortization)

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47
Q

A company with a low EV/EBITDA ratio is considered ____ in the market

A

Underpriced

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48
Q

The Enterprise Value/EBITDA essentially disregards ___ and ___ as expenses

A

Depreciation and Amortization (and taxes)

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49
Q

Price-Earnings to Growth (PEG) ratio is defined as the ratio of the ___ to the expected _____

A

P/E to the expected growth rate in earnings

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50
Q

The expected growth rate g (in percent) is typically assumed to equal the _______ forecast of Wall Street analysts

A

Consensus long-term (5 years) earnings growth

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51
Q

A stock with a ___ P/E, relative to the expected future growth of earnings, is more attractive to buy than a stock with a ___ P/E relative to its earnings growth rate

A

Low

High

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52
Q

The major advantage of the PEG ratio over the P/E is that it incorporates a ______

A

Forward-looking, long-term growth rate

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53
Q

P/E ratios are both theoretically (through ROE) and empirically positively associated with expected ____. If a stock has a low P/E simply because future growth prospects are poor, it is probably not a ___ stock

A

Earnings growth

Bargain

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54
Q

The major disadvantage of the PEG ratio is that it depends upon Wall Street’s earnings forecast, which tend to be overly ____ for popular stocks with ____ P/Es

A

Optimistic

High

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55
Q

Another disadvantage of PEG is that it does not distinguish between growth created by a ______ rate and growth create by a _____

A

High earnings reinvestment rate

High ROE

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56
Q

If two stocks have the same PEG, the stock with the higher ____ is better, all else equal

A

Higher dividend yield

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57
Q

A revenue multiple compares the total value of ___ or total value of ____ to the ___ generated

A

Equity or value of the firm to the revenue generated

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58
Q

Sales = ___

A

Revenue

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59
Q

Price/Sales = ___ per share/___ per share

A

Stock price per share/Revenue per share

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60
Q

Enterprise Value/Revenue = ____/____

A

Enterprise Value/Total Company Revenue

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61
Q

Enterprise Value = ____ + ____ or ____ + ____ - _____

A

Market Value of Equity + Net Debt

Market Value of Equity + Book Value of Debt - Cash and Marketable Securities

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62
Q

EV/Revenue

Price/Sales

Which should be used and why?

A

Ev/Revenue

Much more sensible because the entire firm, not just the equity, generates sales for the business

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63
Q

Price/Sales and EV/Revenue can be distorted by recent acquisitions. After an acquisition, the _____ immediately adjusts, but trailing-twelve-months revenue will take ___ to fully adjust

A

Enterprise value

A year

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64
Q

Advantages of EV/Revenue vs. P/E (3):

A
  • Revenue figures are less subject to manipulation than earnings figures (“Operating” earnings differ, R&D, advertising)
  • Revenue is more stable over time than earnings (Ex. Cyclical companies like auto industry with high fixed costs and variable earnings)
  • Revenue is always non-negative, while earnings can be negative, making P/E uninterpretable
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65
Q

Disadvantage of EV/Revenue vs P/E (1):

A

It ignores the profit margin that the company is able to earn on its sales

The profit margin is obviously crucial to generating earnings, and ultimately free cash flow, from each dollar of sales

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66
Q

Stocks with relatively ___ market capitalization tend to earn higher future returns than stocks with ___ market capitalization

A

Small firm effect

Low

High

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67
Q

Two explanations for small firm effect:

A

Low liquidity and not well known to the investing public (neglected)

68
Q

_______: Stocks that have earned high returns over the past 3-12 months tend to earn _____ future returns than do past 3-12 month losers

A

Momentum Effect

Higher

69
Q

Post-earnings announcement drift: Stocks that have reported _____ earnings tend to outperform stocks reporting ___ earnings, even allowing for a couple of days to process the news

A

Better-than-expected

Lousy

70
Q

Explanation to momentum effect and post-earnings announcement drift?

A

Sales and profit trends tend to last a while, and Wall Street is slow to a just expectations

71
Q

Investment effect: Stocks that experience a high percentage growth in total assets tend to earn ______

A

Lower future returns

72
Q

Investment effect explanation?

A

By keeping new investment spending relatively low, managers will only choose the most promising new projects. Too-rapid growth overextends the company

73
Q

Profitability effect: Stocks with high pretax profits as percentage of ____ tend to earn ____ future returns

A

Book value

Higher

74
Q

Profitability effect explanation?

A

Profits are more durable/persistent than investors recognize?

75
Q

Accruals effect: Stocks with a large (positive) change in _____, scaled by ____, tend to earn lower future returns

A

Net working capital

Book value

76
Q

Accruals effect explanation?

A

A big increase in inventory might indicate that product demand was overestimated. A big increase in accounts receivable might indicate that customers are having trouble paying their bills

Inventory buildup indicates weak sales, AR buildup indicates ‘channel stuffing’

77
Q

Dilemmas in profiting from anomalies (4):

A
  • Loss of diversification
  • Transaction costs
  • Statistical artifact
  • Recognition leads to more efficient pricing over time
78
Q

A futures contract is a contract to trade a specific ____ of an asset at a specific ____ at a price that is agreed upon ___

A

Quantity

Future date

Today

79
Q

A futures contract obligates the seller to _____ to the buyer on a specified future date in exchange for the agreed-upon ____

A

Deliver the asset

Futures price

80
Q

Futures contracts are ____, in that they derive their ___ from their underlying ____

A

Derivatives

Value

Assets

81
Q

Futures contracts trade on an ____. As futures prices fluctuate after the contract is entered, profits and losses are settled daily in a procedure called ______.

A

Exchange

Marking to market

82
Q

A forward contract is very similar to a futures contract, except it does not _____, and does not have a ____ feature

A

Trade on an exchange and does not have a marking to market feature

83
Q

Futures exchanges allow for ____ trades. If I first buy a contract, I can sell the same contract before ____ to avoid taking ____ of the commodity. Ignoring commissions, I will earn a profit if the futures price at the time of reversal is ___ than the original ____ price

A

Reversing

Expiration

Delivery

Higher

Futures

84
Q

Buying a futures contract is often referred to as “___” and selling is referred to as “___”

A

Going long

Going short

85
Q

Even though I buy a futures contract, there is no initial ____. Similarly, selling a contract provides no upfront ____. However, the futures exchange will require ____ or ____ to be deposited by both the buyer and seller of the contract

A

Outflow of cash

Revenue

Performance bond

Margin

86
Q

Possible motivations for trading motivations (3):

A
  • Hedging
  • Speculation
  • Arbitrage
87
Q

Individuals or firms that buy or sell a commodity in the course of their business and who could lose money if the price changes against them

A

Hedgers

88
Q

Place a bet on the future price movements of a commodity but does not use the commodity in their ongoing business, just simply has an opinion on which way the price of the commodity will go

A

Speculation

89
Q

The simultaneous purchase and sale of the same or equivalent security in order to profit from price discrepancies

A

Arbitrage

90
Q

Before actually making a futures trade, the investor needs to deposit some money in their account. this money will be used as _____ for their future positions

A

Margin or performance bonds

91
Q

Margin or performance bonds are used by the exchange to pay any ____ that the trader incurs to the other side of the ____. The margin deposit of the other party to the trade helps insure that if you start to _____ on a futures position, the other side of the trade will be able to ____

A

Losses

Contract

Make money

Pay up

92
Q

Forward contracts are ____ transactions, and do not trade on ___. Margin may or may not be required, and is negotiable between the ____.

A

Private

An exchange

Two parties

93
Q

Buyers and sellers of futures contracts must put up _____ with their brokers. Some brokers pay ____ on ___ balances to favored customers

A

Equal amounts of margin

Interest on margin balances

94
Q

The amount that must be put up when the trade is placed which is usually __% or less of the ___ value

A

Initial margin

5% or less of the contract value

95
Q

The margin for futures contract is higher the more ____ the underlying commodity or asset

A

Volatile

96
Q

Marking to market:

If the futures price increases from yesterday, the seller pays the buyer the ___ in the ___ price

If the futures price decreases from yesterday, the buyer pays the seller the ___ in the ___ price

A

Increase in the futures price

Decrease in the futures price

97
Q

Brokers and exchanges require that a ____ be maintained at all times after the position is established. If the value of their account falls below this level, the investor will receive a ____ from their broker and must deposit cash to bring them up to the ____ margin

A

Maintenance margin

Margin call

Initial

98
Q

At present at the CME, the initial margin is set at ___% of the maintenance margin for speculator/non-members of the exchange. For exchange members, the initial margin is the same as the ____. If the customer is unable or unwilling to deposit enough money to get back to the initial margin, the broker will proceed to close out the position with a ____.

A

110%

Maintenance margin

Reversing trade

99
Q

For many commodity futures, the ____ position has a choice as to the timing of delivery within the delivery month, and sometimes can deliver in _____ or ____, with lower prices for _____.

A

Short

Alternate locations or quality grades

Lower-quality goods

“Cornering the market” and “short squeezes” with physical delivery

100
Q

Only a small percentage of futures contracts are actually held until ____. This is particularly true for ____ positions in futures with physical delivery. Even ___ make or take delivery infrequently, because it is often more convenient to buy or sell the actual commodity with suppliers or customers, not with another futures trader.

A

The delivery date

Speculative

Hedgers

101
Q

To close out a ___ position before the expiration of the contract in a reversing trade or offset, you simply ___ the same number of contracts you had originally ____ to bring the net position to ___.

A

Long

Sell

Bought

Zero

102
Q

The difference between the spot or cash price and the futures price is called the ___

A

Basis

103
Q

Basis =

A

Spot price - Futures Price

S - F

104
Q

Basis risk is the risk that the futures and spot prices will diverge in _____ when closing out a futures position prior to expiration

A

Unpredictable ways

105
Q

If making or taking delivery is not desirable, hedgers minimize basis risk by choosing a contract that expires _____ after you plan to close out the position

A

Relatively soon

106
Q

Cost-of-carry is the ___ cost of _____ the underlying commodity or asset over the life of the _____

A

Net

Carrying or owning

Futures contract

107
Q

Carrying costs include (3):

A
  1. The interest cost of financing the purchase of the asset. Even if you have the cash to purchase the asset, there is an opportunity cost of lost interest from not investing the money elsewhere
  2. Storage and insurance cost, and spoilage costs for perishable commodities
  3. The cost of carry is reduced by any income that the asset produces. For example, owning a stock index produces dividend income, so owning stocks directly has an advantage over a long position in stock futures
108
Q

For cost of carry, define F as the current _____, S as the current ___, and rf as the ____ for both borrowing and lending for maturity __. “FV” is ___ as of time T.

A

Futures or forward price

Spot price

Risk-free rate

T

Future value

109
Q

The future value of the storage cost is the cost, billed as of time T, from holding the commodity from now until time T. It includes ____ to store the commodity, and also ____, and any ____ costs

A

Rent for space

Insurance

Spoilage

110
Q

The total carrying cost, including both interest and storage, is always ____ for commodities, so the theoretical futures price always exceeds the ___ price

A

Positive

Spot

111
Q

Often, the futures price for agricultural commodities is ____ the cost of carry formula predicts. This is because arbitrage does not work very well in _____ markets, particularly because it is usually impossible to short sell an ____ commodity

A

Less than

Commodity

Agricultural

112
Q

Financial futures pricing cost of carry formula:

A

F = S(1+rf)^t - FV(Dividends)

113
Q

Options are contracts giving the purchaser the right to buy or sell a security, such as a stock, at a ___ price within a specified ____

A

Fixed

Period of time

114
Q

Like futures contracts, option contracts are ____, in that they derive their value from their underlying assets

A

Derivatives

115
Q

Two major types of options:

A

Calls and puts

116
Q

A call option is a contract that gives the buyer the right, but not the ___, to _____ an asset for a fixed price, called the ___ or ___ price, up through a fixed ____ date

A

Obligation

Purchase

Strike or exercise price

Expiration

117
Q

Calls:

If the right to exercise is “any time until maturity”

A

American or American-style option

118
Q

Calls:

If the right to exercise is only “at the time of maturity”

A

European or European-style option

119
Q

The majority of options traded are ____ style options. All options on individual stocks are ____ style

A

American

American

120
Q

At initiation of the call contract, the call buyer will pay the seller the ____ price, sometimes called the option ____

A

Call option

Premium

121
Q

The seller of a call option is required to deliver the asset in exchange for the ____ price if the call buyer so desires

A

Strike

122
Q

Since there is no theoretical upper limit on the price of the asset in the market, the seller of a ‘___’ call (a call sold without accompanying ownership of the asset) is exposed to unlimited potential ____

A

Naked

Losses

123
Q

With a call option contract, ____ will need to put up margin with their brokers

A

Naked call writers

Sellers

124
Q

A put option is a contract that gives the buyer the right, but not the _____, to ___ an asset for a fixed price, called the ___ or ___ price, up through a fixed expiration date

A

Obligation

Sell

Strike or exercise price

125
Q

At initiation of the contract, the buyer will pay the seller the put option ____. The seller of a put is required to ____ of the asset in exchange for paying the ___ price if the put buyer so desires

A

Premium

Accept delivery

Strike

126
Q

Puts:

Since the lower limit of the asset price is zero, the seller of a ‘__’ put (a put sold without an accompanying short position in the asset) is exposed to a (large) potential loss equal to the ____ less the ____ received upfront

A

Naked

Strike price

Put premium

127
Q

_____ will need to put up margin with their brokers for puts

A

Naked put writers

Seller

128
Q

Buying a option is often referred to as having a “___” position, and having sold an option is referred to as having a “____” position. Selling an option is also referred to “____” an option

A

Long

Short

Writing

129
Q

At expiration, a call is worthless if _____, but its value increases one-for-one with the stock price if ______. If you own a call option, you receive a positive net cash flow from exercising if the ____ price is greater than the ____ price

A

St < X

St > X

Stock

Strike

130
Q

Call Payoff example:

If I am long a call with a strike price of $50, if the stock price is $60 at expiration my payoff is $__, if the stock price is $50 my payoff is $__

A

$10

$0

131
Q

Owning a call (or put) requires an upfront investment. Ignoring commissions, you make a profit from owning an option if it finishes _____ and the amount by which it finishes _____ exceeds what you _____

A

In-the-money

In-the-money

Paid for it

132
Q

For example, if I am long a call with a strike price of $50 that I purchased for $4, if the stock price is $60 at expiration, my profit is $___ and if it is $50 or below at expiration my profit is $___

A

$6

-$4

133
Q

A put is worthless if __ > __, but its value increases by $1 for every $1 decrease in the stock price if ___ < ___.

A

St > X

St < X

134
Q

If you own a put option, you receive a positive net cash flow from exercising if the stock price is ___ the strike price

A

Less than

135
Q

For example, if I am long a put with a strike price of $50, if the stock price is $40 at expiration my payoff is $___ and if it is $50 or above at expiration my payoff is $___

If my put cost $6 upfront, my profit is $___ in the former case and $___ in the latter

A

$10

$0

$4

$-6

136
Q

Places a floor on the value of the position as of the expiration date

A

Protective put strategy

137
Q

At-the-money means

A

Current stock price equals the strike price

138
Q

In-the-money means

A

If you exercised now, you would get a positive payoff

139
Q

In-the-money

Calls - ___ > ___
Puts - ___ < ___

A

Calls - Stock Price > Strike Price

Puts - Stock Price < Strike Price

140
Q

Out-of-the-money means

A

A negative cash flow from exercising now

141
Q

Out-of-the-money

Calls - ___ < ___
Puts - ___ > ___

A

Calls - Stock Price < Strike Price

Puts - Stock Price > Strike Price

142
Q

Option price = ___ + ___

A

Intrinsic value + time value

143
Q

Intrinsic value is the amount the option would be worth if you were forced to decide whether to exe cerise or not ___, assuming the option is American style

A

Now

144
Q

For a call, intrinsic value = ____

For a put, intrinsic value = ____

A

Max{0, S - X}

Max{0, X - S}

145
Q

Time value is the difference between the ____ of an option and its _____

A

Market price and its intrinsic value

146
Q

In an efficient market, time value is always ____ or equal to ____ for American-style options

A

Greater than or equal to zero

147
Q

Protective put: Owning asset combined with long put option: guarantees minimum proceeds equal to the put’s ____

A

Exercise price

148
Q

Suppose the stock I own now trades at $55 and I buy a put with a strike of $50 for $4. If the stock drops to $40 at expiration, I will exercise, receiving $__. My loss is $__, a smaller loss than $__ if I had not purchased the put. If the stock rises to $70 at expiration, I will not exercise. My profit is $__, a smaller profit than $__ if I had not purchased the put

A

Receiving: $50

Loss: $5 + $4 = $9

Smaller than: $55-$40 = $15 (without the put)

Profit: $15 - $4 = $11

Smaller than: $70 - $55 = $15 (without the put)

149
Q

Writing call on asset together with owning asset (long asset plus short call)

A

Covered call

150
Q

Suppose the stock I own now trades at $55 and I write a call with a strike of $60 for $4. If the stock drops to $40 at expiration, the call buyer will not exercise. My loss is $__, a smaller loss than $__ if I had not written the call. If the stock rises to $70 at expiration, the call buyer will exercise. My profit is $__, a smaller profit than $__ if I had not written the call

A

Loss: $15 - $4 = $11

Smaller than: $55 - $40 = $15 (without writing the call)

Profit: $5 + $4 = $9

Smaller than: $70 - $55 = $15 (without writing the call)

151
Q

Sell put, and lend the present value of the strike price, ensuring you have enough cash if the put is exercised against you at the maturity date

A

Covered put writing

152
Q

Covered put writing can be superior to covered call writing if put options are relatively ____ in the market versus calls, and/or the dividends paid on the stock through expiration turn out to be ___ than expected

A

Overpriced

Less

153
Q

Combination of call and put, each with same exercise price and expiration date

A

Straddle

154
Q

Buy call and buy put

A

Long straddle

155
Q

Write call and write put

A

Short straddle

156
Q

A long straddle is a bet that the stock will end up _____ the strike price, in either direction. So, it is a bet that volatility will be ____ than expected in the market

A

Far away from

Higher

157
Q

A short straddle is a bet that the stock will end up _____ the strike price. So, it is a bet that volatility will be ____ than expected in the market

A

Near

Lower

158
Q

Vertical spread is the combination of two or more call options/put options on same asset with differing _____ but the same _____

A

Exercise prices

Expiration date

159
Q

Buy call with low strike and write call with high strike

A

Bullish call spread

160
Q

Buy call with high strike and write call with low strike

A

Bearish call spread

161
Q

Buy put with low strike and write put with high strike

A

Bullish put spread

162
Q

Buy put with high strike and write put with low strike

A

Bearish put spread

163
Q

Collared stock position is a stock and options strategy that brackets value of portfolio between two bounds. You own the stock, buy a ___ with a strike ____ current stock price, and sell a ___ with a strike ____ current stock price

A

Put

Below

Call

Above

164
Q

A ‘zero-cost’ collar is a collar where the ____ price equals the ___ price

A

Call price equals put price

165
Q

Put-call parity is the relationship between the price of a _____ and the price of a ____ with the same ___ price and ______

A

European call and European put

Strike

Expiration date

166
Q

From put-call parity formula, owning a call is like owning the ____ until the expiration date without receiving the ____, protected by owning a ___, and partially financed by borrowing the present value of the ____ price.

A

Stock

Dividend income

Put

Strike

167
Q

Put-call parity formula: Owning a put is like ____ the stock until the expiration date without having to pay the ____ on a ____, protected by owning a ____, and lending the present value of the ___ price

A

Shorting

Dividends

Short sale

Call

Strike